Allied Health Anatomy and Physiology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Allied Health Anatomy and Physiology provides an in-depth exploration of the structure and function of the human body, tailored specifically for students pursuing careers in allied health professions. The course covers the major organ systems, including skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems, emphasizing their interrelationships and relevance to health and disease. Through laboratory and theoretical components, students gain foundational knowledge necessary to understand normal physiology, recognize pathological changes, and apply this understanding to patient care scenarios. This course is essential for building the scientific background needed for advanced study and clinical practice in various allied health fields.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Disease 6th Edition by Patton
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25 Chapters
3620 Verified Questions
3620 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Structure and Function of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thoracic cavity and the abdominal cavity are separated by a muscle called the diaphragm.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The lungs are medial to the heart.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The body section that divides the nose from the back of the head is a _____ section.
A) frontal
B) sagittal
C) midsagittal
D) transverse
Answer: A
Q4) The skin is superficial to the muscles.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basic unit of a carbohydrate is a monosaccharide.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Water is the most common solute in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The smallest unit of matter is the electron.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A buffer is a substance that resists a sudden change in pH.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) A triglyceride contains two fatty acid molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystic fibrosis is a disease that results from a failure of a passive transport mechanism in the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Osmosis and dialysis are both specialized examples of diffusion.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Chromatids form during prophase.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The process of transcription occurs in the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) If one side of a DNA molecule is thymine - cytosine - guanine - adenine,what would the nucleotides on the other side be?
Answer: adenine - guanine - cytosine - thymine
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Chapter 4: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) most widely distributed
A)areolar
B)fibrous connective tissue
C)hematopoietic tissue
Q2) An unusually thick scar that develops in the lower layer of the skin is called a:
A) tumor
B) collagen bundle
C) keloid
D) neoplasm
Q3) Select the type of connective tissue that has a fluid matrix.
A) areolar
B) bone
C) blood
D) fibrous connective
Q4) Explain why epithelial and connective tissue have the greatest capacity to regenerate.
Q5) Discuss the microscopic structure of bone tissue.
Q6) Briefly describe the connective tissue types and give their location in the body.
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Chapter 5: Organ Systems of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these organs is an accessory organ of the digestive system?
A) stomach
B) liver
C) esophagus
D) small intestine
Q2) Antibodies and complements are protein compounds that are important in the immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The thymus gland is part of both the endocrine and lymphatic systems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name and explain the function of the three types of muscles in the muscular system.
Q5) The skeletal system is composed only of bones.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Ligaments attach muscle to bone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Mechanisms of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a sign?
A) a red rash
B) a headache
C) a pain in the chest
D) both B and C
Q2) Which of the following pathogens are considered nonliving?
A) protozoa
B) viruses
C) bacteria
D) All of the above are considered living.
Q3) Carcinogens are substances that affect genetic activity in some way.
A)True
B)False
Q4) another term for a tumor that actually means "new matter"
A)neoplasm
B)benign
C)malignant
D)metastasis
E)carcinoma
F)sarcoma
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Integumentary System and Body
Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Impetigo is caused by the papillomavirus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Wheals are a characteristic sign of scleroderma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The general name given to mycotic skin infections is
A) tinea
B) impetigo
C) warts
D) scabies
Q4) membrane that lines the tubes of respiratory and digestive systems
A)cutaneous membrane
B)visceral pleura
C)parietal pleura
D)visceral peritoneum
E)parietal peritoneum
F)mucous membrane
G)synovial membrane
H)bursae
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the bones that makes up the hip bone?
A) ilium
B) acetabulum
C) ischium
D) pubis
Q2) Explain synarthrotic and amphiarthrotic joints and give an example of each.
Q3) All diarthrotic joints have joint capsules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Growth of a bone occurs at the epiphyseal plates.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The lamellae of the osteon surround the central canal.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Osteosarcoma is a very aggressive cancer that usually affects men between the ages of 50 and 70.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Explain the process of endochondral ossification.
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Chapter 9: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The least amount of stimulus required for a muscle to contract is called the threshold stimulus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) muscle on the front of the upper arm responsible for flexion of the elbow
A)triceps brachii
B)pectoralis major
C)masseter
D)sternocleidomastoid
E)zygomaticus
F)deltoid
G)biceps brachii
H)latissimus dorsi
Q3) Which type of muscle tissue specializes in contraction or shortening?
A) cardiac
B) smooth
C) striated
D) all of the above
Q4) Explain the cause of myasthenia gravis.
Q5) Explain why Duchenne muscular dystrophy usually affects boys.
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Chapter 10: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The axon of a sensory neuron usually transmits an impulse to an interneuron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) another term for motor neuron
A)microglia
B)axon
C)dendrites
D)oligodendrocyte
E)afferent neuron
F)astrocytes
G)efferent neuron
H)interneurons
I)nodes of Ranvier
J)Schwann cells
Q3) Blood vessels produce and reabsorb cerebrospinal fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name and describe the three layers of the meninges.
Q5) Explain the role of oligodendrocytes in multiple sclerosis.
Q6) Explain the structure and function of the cerebrum.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why males are more likely to be color blind than females.
Q2) If the auditory tube were clogged,it might make a plane ride uncomfortable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The skin has the highest concentration of special senses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ossicle that attaches to the inside of the tympanic membrane
A)organ of Corti
B)tympanic membrane
C)eustachian tube
D)stapes
E)semicircular canal
F)cochlea
G)malleus
H)auricle
I)perilymph
J)endolymph
Q5) Explain why when you first enter a newly painted room,the smell of paint seems very strong,but the longer you are there the less you smell the paint.
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Chapter 12: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type 1 diabetes is a pancreatic problem; type 2 diabetes is a cellular problem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a prostaglandin? How are prostaglandins different from hormones?
Q3) Acromegaly is caused by
A) hypersecretion of ACTH
B) hyposecretion of ACTH
C) hypersecretion of growth hormone
D) hyposecretion of growth hormone
Q4) In a healthy person,an increase in blood sugar stimulates the activity of the alpha cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone might cause the bones to become weak and fragile.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The endocrine system is made up of both endocrine and exocrine glands.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Injections of vitamin B12 are used successfully to treat _____ anemia.
A) aplastic
B) pernicious
C) hemorrhagic
D) hemolytic
Q2) The common symptom of all leukemias is the drop in the number of white blood cells in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Even women who are Rh-negative rarely have a problem with erythroblastosis fetalis with their first child.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most adults have between 4 and 6 liters of blood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Blood is composed of plasma and formed elements.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the INR and what is its use?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is always a small amount of fluid between the visceral and parietal pericardium,but if too much fluid accumulates,the accumulation can lead to a serious condition called cardiac tamponade.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the difference between an incompetent heart valve and a stenosed heart valve.
Q3) Name the four valves of the heart and give the function of each.
Q4) AV node heart block can be seen on an electrocardiogram as a large distance between the QRS complex and the T wave.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a patient has an AV node block,the electrocardiogram will show that the ventricles are beating at a faster rate than the atria.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Like most arteries,the aorta carries blood that is rich in oxygen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Circulation of the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of a pulse depends on the beating of the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A varix is a section of an artery that has become abnormally wide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) type of shock that results from a loss of sympathetic tone to the muscles of the blood vessels
A)gangrene
B)aneurysm
C)cardiogenic shock
D)arteriosclerosis
E)anaphylactic shock
F)phlebitis
G)septic shock
H)varicose veins
I)hypovolemic shock
J)neurogenic shock
Q4) Describe the ductus venosus,the ductus arteriosus,and the foramen ovale.How do these structures make fetal circulation more efficient?
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Chapter 16: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give an example of a congenital immune deficiency.
Q2) The most numerous cells of the immune system are the macrophages.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the functioning of antibodies.How do they activate the complement cascade?
Q4) Explain the two types of lymphoma,and list the signs and symptoms of lymphoma.
Q5) Which lymphatic system structure in the mediastinum helps T lymphocytes mature?
A) pharyngeal tonsils
B) spleen
C) palatine tonsils
D) thymus
Q6) In an organ transplant,the autoimmune response of the recipient must be suppressed or the organ will be rejected.
A)True
B)False
Q7) When neutrophils leave the blood and enter the tissue,they are called macrophages.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pharynx may also be called the throat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To ensure all of the birthday candles would be blown out,a person would use the abdominal muscle and the internal intercostals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is a broad term to describe conditions of progressive,irreversible obstruction of expiratory airflow?
A) asthma
B) emphysema
C) bronchitis
D) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Q4) The trachea,or windpipe,connects the larynx and the bronchi.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pulmonary ventilation and external respiration refer to the same thing.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the conditions of emphysema and asthma.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pancreatic duct enters the small intestine about 3 cm proximal to the entry of the common bile duct.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fully explain the process of carbohydrate digestion.Include the enzymes used,where they are produced,where they function,and the end products formed.
Q3) Which substance is the outer covering of the shell of the tooth in the crown?
A) cementum
B) enamel
C) dentin
D) pulp
Q4) Dental caries is one of the most common diseases of underdeveloped countries.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Bile causes mechanical rather than chemical digestion of fat.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is hepatitis and what are some possible causes? What is cirrhosis and what are some possible causes?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucose is the cell's first choice of energy because it can be used directly by the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of vitamins?
A) They are inorganic molecules.
B) They attach to enzymes to help them function.
C) They can act as antioxidants.
D) Too little or too much of a vitamin can be harmful.
Q3) helps enzymes that catabolize amino acids
A)vitamin D (calciferol)
B)vitamin A
C)vitamin B12
D)vitamin E (tocopherol)
E)vitamin B3
F)vitamin C (ascorbic acid)
G)vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
Q4) Defend the statement that the catabolism of all food substances has the goal of reattaching a phosphate group to ADP.
Q5) Define and give examples of the processes of anabolism and catabolism.
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Chapter 20: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name the hormones that affect urine production.Give their function and their source.
Q2) What are the physical and functional differences between cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons?
Q3) tube that drains into the collecting tubule
A)calyx
B)urinary bladder
C)Bowman capsule
D)loop of Henle
E)renal cortex
F)collecting tubule
G)proximal convoluted tubule
H)renal medulla
I)ureters
J)renal pyramids
K)juxtaglomerular apparatus
L)glomerulus
M)urethra
N)distal convoluted tubule
O)renal pelvis
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not considered a major factor for controlling plasma,interstitial fluid,and intracellular fluid?
A) the concentration of electrolytes in extracellular fluid
B) the concentration of protein in the blood
C) the absorption of fluid by the small intestine
D) All of the above are major factors for controlling plasma,interstitial fluid,and intracellular fluid.
Q2) Which type of body tissue contains the least amount of water?
A) adipose tissue
B) bone tissue
C) muscle tissue
D) nerve tissue
Q3) Explain the term fluid balance.
Q4) List the sources of water for the body and the ways in which water can be lost from the body.
Q5) Nonelectrolytes do not generate ions.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List the causes of hypernatremia and hyponatremia.
Q7) Define and give an example of an electrolyte and a non-electrolyte.
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Chapter 22: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered a chemical pH control mechanism?
A) the buffers in the blood
B) the kidneys
C) the lungs
D) both B and C
Q2) Blood in the pulmonary vein has a lower pH than the blood in the superior vena cava.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the definition of acid-base balance? What proteins are most affected if the acid-base balance is not maintained?
Q4) A condition called metabolic alkalosis can be caused by a bicarbonate excess.What can cause a bicarbonate excess?
Q5) Define blood acidosis and blood alkalosis.
Q6) A solution with a pH of 3
A) is an acid solution
B) is an alkaline solution
C) has more OH- ions than H+ ions
D) both B and C
Q7) Explain how the buffer system functions to buffer a strong acid.
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Chapter 23: The Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) the opening of the urethral meatus on the dorsal or top surface of the glans
A)impotence
B)oligospermia
C)epispadias
D)sterility
E)cryptorchidism
F)hydrocele
G)infertility
H)hypospadias
I)inguinal hernia
J)phimosis
Q2) Many steroids that are illegal for athletes are testosterone-based.Which of the functions of testosterone would help an athlete perform better?
Q3) Oligospermia causes infertility.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain why it is necessary that gametes have only 23 chromosomes rather than the normal 46.
Q5) Describe the structure of the uterus.
Q6) Describe the vagina.What are its functions?
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Chapter 24: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because the adult body has fully differentiated cells,it contains no stem cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is preeclampsia? What is eclampsia?
Q3) All teratogens are also mutagens.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If the blastocyst implants too close to the cervix,a condition called placenta previa can occur.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ectoderm forms the dermis and epidermis of the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Two systems that undergo very rapid development during infancy are the muscular system and the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What are Apgar scores used for? What criteria are used to determine the Apgar score?
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Chapter 25: Genetics and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which gametes have their chromosome number reduced by half is called
A) mitosis
B) crossing-over
C) meiosis
D) linkage
Q2) The mother is a carrier for albinism and the father has two dominant genes for normal skin color.The probability that their offspring will be albino is
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 100%
Q3) The final product of a gene is a
A) chromatin strand
B) protein
C) messenger RNA molecule
D) chromosome
Q4) An ideogram is a drawing of a chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Page 27
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