Allied Health Anatomy and Physiology
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Allied Health Anatomy and Physiology is an introductory course designed to provide students entering health-related fields with a comprehensive understanding of the human body's structure and function. This course covers the major systems of the body, including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems, as well as the integumentary and endocrine systems. Emphasis is placed on the physiological processes that maintain homeostasis, the interrelationship between organ systems, and the foundational anatomical terminology necessary for effective communication in healthcare settings. Laboratory exercises and practical activities are frequently incorporated to reinforce theoretical knowledge and to develop critical thinking and observation skills essential for allied health professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 8th Edition by Saladin
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Feeling for swollen lymph nodes is an example of auscultation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The study of how hormones function is called __________.
A) neuroanatomy
B) neurophysiology
C) endocrinology
D) histology
E) pathophysiology
Answer: C
Q3) _____________ is the view that not everything about an organism can be understood or predicted from the knowledge of its components;that is,the whole is greater than the sum of its parts.
A) Naturalism
B) Reductionism
C) Holism
D) Materialism
E) Science
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The high heat capacity of water makes it a very ineffective coolant.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Triglycerides consist of a 3-carbon compound called __________ bound to three
A) pyruvate;fatty acids
B) lactate;glycerols
C) eicosanoid;steroids
D) glycerol;fatty acids
E) sterol;fatty acids
Answer: D
Q3) Which of these has the highest H<sup>+</sup> concentration?
A) Lemon juice,pH = 2.3
B) Red wine,pH = 3.2
C) Tomato juice,pH = 4.7
D) Saliva,pH = 6.6
E) Household ammonia,pH = 10.8
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) One example of pinocytosis is the uptake of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)by endothelial cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) White blood cells engulf bacteria by means of __________.
A) phagocytosis
B) cotransport
C) pinocytosis
D) active transport
E) receptor-mediated endocytosis
Answer: A
Q3) The term _____________ refers to a membrane that allows some things to pass through it,but not others.
A) selectively permeable
B) glycocalyx
C) phospholipid bilayer
D) specificity
E) carrier-mediated
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these cannot cause a mutation?
A) Radiation
B) A virus
C) A chemical
D) A mistake made by the DNA polymerase
E) A mistake made by the RNA polymerase
Q2) Although all cells synthesize phospholipids,there are no genes for phospholipids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Naked DNA is called chromatin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Germ cells have __________ unpaired chromosomes and are thus called __________ cells.
A) 23;somatic
B) 23;haploid (n)
C) 23;diploid (2n)
D) 46;somatic
E) 46;diploid (2n)
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Chapter 5: Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fibroblasts and protein fibers are associated with both __________ and __________.
A) dense regular;dense irregular connective tissues
B) plasma;formed elements
C) elastic cartilage;hyaline cartilage
D) spongy bone;compact (dense)bone
E) adipose tissue;reticular tissue
Q2) It is normal for breasts to shrink after lactation ceases.This is a consequence of __________ in human breast cells.
A) necrosis
B) apoptosis
C) atrophy
D) infarction
E) gangrene
Q3) Smooth and cardiac muscles are under involuntary control.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Adult stem cells are usually pluripotent.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leather is made of the __________ layer of the dermis.
A) areolar
B) keratin
C) reticular
D) collagen
E) papillary
Q2) A pilus is a __________.
A) hair
B) hair follicle
C) tiny muscle that moves a hair
D) sensory nerve fiber around the base of a hair
E) gland associated with a hair follicle
Q3) The reddish color of the skin of the lips is primarily due to the presence of which pigment?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Myoglobin
C) Melanin
D) Carotene
E) Keratin
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hardness of bone comes from __________,whereas __________ provide(s)some degree of flexibility.
A) hydroxyapatite and other minerals;proteins
B) collagen and elastic fibers;minerals
C) glycoproteins;proteoglycans
D) calcium carbonate;calcium phosphate
E) proteins;collagen
Q2) Which of the following exemplifies a positive feedback process happening in bone mineral deposition?
A) The first few crystals that form attract more calcium and phosphate.
B) Osteoblasts neutralize inhibitors that prevent bone resorption.
C) Osteoclasts secrete acid phosphatase that digests collagen.
D) Collagen is digested by enzymes and hydroxyapatite by hydrochloric acid.
E) Solubility product is reached in the tissue fluids.
Q3) Hypercalcemia causes depression of the nervous system.
A)True B)False
Q4) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)binds to receptors on osteoblasts.
A)True B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bones is adjacent to both the coronal and lambdoid sutures?
A) Occipital bone
B) Sphenoid bone
C) Parietal bone
D) Zygomatic bone
E) Frontal bone
Q2) What are the three auditory ossicles?
A) The malleus,incus,and stapes
B) The superior,middle,and inferior nasal conchae
C) The hyoid,mandible,and maxilla
D) The temporal,sphenoid,and ethmoid bones
Q3) Sinuses are absent from which bone?
A) Sphenoid
B) Frontal
C) Temporal
D) Maxilla
E) Ethmoid
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ bursa is not an accessory structure of the glenohumeral joint.
A) subdeltoid
B) subcoracoid
C) subpatellar
D) subacromial
E) subscapular
Q2) What do sutures,gomphoses,and syndesmoses have in common?
A) These are joints found only in the appendicular skeleton.
B) These are joints found only in the axial skeleton.
C) These are all bony joints.
D) These are all fibrous joints.
E) These are cartilaginous joints.
Q3) The proximal radioulnar joint is a __________ joint.
A) ball-and-socket
B) saddle
C) hinge
D) pivot
E) condylar
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11
Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The palatoglossus is innervated by which nerve(s)?
A) Hypoglossal
B) Accessory
C) Vagus
D) Hypoglossal and accessory
E) Accessory and vagal
Q2) What is the longest muscle in the human body?
A) Iliopsoas
B) Sartorius
C) Erector spinae
D) Semitendinosus
E) Semimembranosus
Q3) When a nurse draws blood,it is not uncommon for the needle to penetrate which muscle near the cubital region?
A) Pronator quadratus
B) Semimembranosus
C) Pronator teres
D) Buccinator
E) Supinator
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) To stimulate muscle contraction,acetylcholine is released from the ___________ into the synaptic cleft.
A) synaptic vesicles
B) junctional folds
C) sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) sarcolemma
E) terminal cisterns
Q2) Skeletal muscle are attached to bones in a way that aligns proteins in an overly-stretch (lengthened)position.This lengthening facilitates the shortening of contractions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Loss of muscle mass from lack of activity is called __________.
A) myopathy
B) dystrophy
C) apathy
D) atrophy
E) tetanus
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13
Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding unmyelinated nerve fibers in the PNS?
A) A Schwann cell folds its plasma membrane around several fibers .
B) A Schwann cells wraps its plasma membrane around each individual fiber as it does with myelinated fibers.
C) An oligodendrocyte cells wraps its plasma membrane around each fiber as it does with myelinated fibers.
D) Satellite cells cluster around each axon to form a pseudo-myelin sheath.
Q2) Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)are associated with which of the following?
A) Depolarization of the cell membrane
B) Repolarization of the cell membrane
C) Hyperpolarization of the cell membrane
D) No change in the cell membrane potential
E) No change of the threshold
Q3) What is the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain?
A) -aminobutyric acid (GABA)
B) Noradrenaline
C) Epinephrine
D) Acetylcholine
E) Norepinephrine
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord,spinal Nerves,and Somatic Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A stretch reflex is often accompanied by reciprocal inhibition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following sensory functions involves neurons in the posterior root ganglion?
A) Smell
B) Hearing
C) Touch
D) Taste
E) Vision
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a region of the spinal cord?
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Pelvic
E) Sacral
Q4) A nerve fiber is enclosed in its own fibrous sleeve called perineurium.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The right and left cerebral hemispheres are separated from each other by
A) many sulci
B) many gyri
C) the brainstem
D) the longitudinal fissure
E) the corpus callosum
Q2) Where are the cardiac,vasomotor,and respiratory centers found?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Pons
C) Midbrain
D) Spinal cord
E) Diencephalon
Q3) Sex drive,body temperature,and food and water intake are regulated by which part of the brain?
A) Limbic system
B) Thalamus
C) Pineal gland
D) Hypothalamus
E) Pituitary gland
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parasympathetic division stimulates digestion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a cell has <sub>1</sub> adrenergic receptors,it is sensitive to __________.
A) acetylcholine (ACh)
B) norepinephrine (NE)
C) muscarine
D) alpha adrenaline
E) nicotine
Q3) Which of the following is more effective in producing bronchodilation?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Nicotine
C) Muscarine
D) Norepinephrine
E) Thyroxine
Q4) Acetylcholine (ACh)binds to both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fast pain is a localized response mediated by myelinated nerve fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Light falling on the retina is absorbed by rhodopsin and photopsin in the pigment epithelium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pain,heat,and cold are detected by __________.
A) tactile discs
B) tactile corpuscles
C) lamellar corpuscles
D) free nerve endings
E) end bulbs
Q4) What event causes rhodopsin to go from violet to clear in color?
A) Cis-retinal straightens to become trans-retinal
B) Cis-retinal bends to become trans-retinal
C) Trans-retinal straightens to become cis-retinal
D) Trans-retinal bends to become cis-retinal
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18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neither follicle stimulating (FSH)hormone nor testosterone alone can stimulate significant sperm production,whereas when they act together,the testes produce some 300,000 sperm per minute.This is an example of which principle regarding hormones?
A) Hormone clearance
B) The cascade effect
C) The synergistic effect
D) The permissive effect
E) The antagonistic effect
Q2) Eicosanoids are derived from steroids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following enters a target cell's nucleus and acts directly on the genes.
A) Insulin
B) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C) Estrogen
D) Glucagon
E) Oxytocin (OT)
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Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tissues can become edematous (swollen)when which of the following occurs?
A) Colloid osmotic pressure (COP)is high.
B) There is hyperproteinemia.
C) The concentration of sodium and proteins in blood is high.
D) The hematocrit is high.
E) There is a dietary protein deficiency.
Q2) What is the final product of the breakdown of the organic nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin?
A) Biliverdin
B) Bilirubin
C) Globin
D) Heme
E) Iron
Q3) Lymphocytes secrete antibodies,coordinate action of other immune cells,and serve in immune memory.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The liver stores excess iron in ferritin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Isovolumetric contraction occurs during the __________ of the electrocardiogram.
A) P wave
B) P-Q segment
C) R wave
D) S-T segment
E) T wave
Q2) After entering the right atrium,the furthest a red blood cell can travel is the
A) right ventricle
B) pulmonary trunk
C) superior vena cava
D) ascending aorta
E) left atrium
Q3) Electrical signals pass between cardiomyocytes through the _____.
A) gap junctions
B) desmosomes
C) tight junctions
D) hemidesmosomes
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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vessels have the thickest tunica media?
A) Small arteries
B) Small veins
C) Large arteries
D) Large veins
E) Capillaries
Q2) What is the mean arterial pressure for a person with 110 and 65 mm Hg as systolic and diastolic pressure,respectively?
A) 45 mm Hg
B) 80 mm Hg
C) 87.5 mm Hg
D) 90 mm Hg
E) 175 mm Hg
Q3) What is the most important force driving filtration at the arterial end of a capillary?
A) Oncotic pressure
B) Tissue fluid colloid osmotic pressure
C) Blood colloid osmotic pressure
D) Interstitial hydrostatic pressure
E) Blood hydrostatic pressure
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which class of immunoglobulin provides passive immunity to the newborn?
A) IgD
B) IgE
C) IgM
D) IgA
E) IgG
Q2) Cellular immunity uses B cells and humoral immunity uses antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The serum used for emergency treatment of snakebites stimulates
immunity.
A) artificial passive
B) artificial active
C) natural passive
D) natural active
Q4) Interferons are secreted in response to bacterial infections.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which two ligaments extend from the thyroid cartilage to the arytenoid cartilages?
A) Vestibular and vocal
B) Laryngeal and corniculate
C) Corniculate and cricoid
D) Cricoid and arytenoid
E) Thyrohyoid and cricoids
Q2) What is the basic distinction between an alveolar duct and an alveolar atrium?
A) Their shape
B) Their size
C) Their function
D) Their epithelial type
E) The presence or absence of cilia
Q3) The anatomical dead space is greatest in which of the following situations?
A) After eating a large meal
B) After swerving to narrowly avoid an accident while driving
C) After waking up from a long nap
D) After watching TV for an hour
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Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by the
A) renal corpuscle
B) proximal convoluted tubule
C) distal convoluted tubule
D) glomerular capillaries
E) collecting duct
Q2) The pigment responsible for the color of urine is called __________.
A) monochrome
B) urochrome
C) cyanochrome
D) multichrome
E) pyuria
Q3) Which of the following form the inner layer of the glomerular capsule and wrap around the capillaries of the glomerulus?
A) Macula densa cells
B) Mesangial cells
C) Nephrocytes
D) Podocytes
E) Monocytes
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Chapter 24: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypovolemia refers to a reduction in total body water while maintaining normal osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What determines osmosis from one fluid compartment to another?
A) The temperature difference between compartments
B) The relative concentration of solutes in each compartment
C) The relative volume in each compartment
D) The relative size of each compartment
E) The blood pressure
Q3) Blood plasma osmolarity is higher than intracellular fluid osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ina state of fluid balance, average daily fluid gains and losses are equal.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The kidneys secrete ADH in response to dehydration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Digestive System
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Q1) Pepsinogen is produced by __________ and is activated by __________,which is secreted by __________.
A) chief cells;carbonic anhydrase (CAH);parietal cells
B) chief cells;hydrochloric acid (HCl);parietal cells
C) parietal cells;hydrochloric acid (HCl);chief cells
D) parietal cells;carbonic anhydrase (CAH);chief cells
E) enteroendocrine cells;carbonic anhydrase (CAH);parietal cells
Q2) The enzyme(s)called __________ break(s)down the substrate called
A) lactase;glucose
B) peptidases;proteins
C) lipases;micelles
D) lactose;lactase
E) nucleases;nucleotides
Q3) The enterogastric reflex serves to __________.
A) relax the stomach in preparation for swallowed food
B) stimulate acid and enzyme secretion when food enters the stomach
C) stimulate intestinal motility when there is food in the stomach
D) inhibit gastric motility when there is chyme in the small intestine
E) relax the ileocecal valve when chyme is on its way to the colon
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Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much ATP can oxidation of a 16 carbon atom fatty acid yield?
A) 2 ATP
B) 18 ATP
C) 36 ATP
D) 38 ATP
E) 129 ATP
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding body temperature?
A) Oral temperature is a good way to estimate core temperature.
B) Adult oral temperature is typically 36.6° to 37.0°C.
C) Body temperature is highest in the afternoon.
D) Organs in the spinal cavity are at the shell temperature.
Q3) Norepinephrine stimulates cravings for carbohydrates,whereas endorphins stimulate cravings for proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mental state does not affect metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
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28
Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) At early puberty,follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)and luteinizing hormone (LH)stimulate enlargement of the testes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to secrete __________.
A) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH);LH
B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH);androgen-binding protein (ABP)
C) Luteinizing hormone (LH);androgen-binding protein (ABP)
D) Luteinizing hormone (LH);testosterone
E) Luteinizing hormone (LH);estrogen
Q3) Sperm cells get energy to power their movement from __________,which is contributed by the __________.
A) prostaglandins;prostate
B) sucrose;bulbourethral gland
C) fructose;seminal vesicles
D) seminogelin;prostate
E) semen;seminiferous gland
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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) What is the cessation of menstruation referred to as?
A) Menarche
B) Menopause
C) Climacteric
D) Pubarche
Q2) The ovarian cycle typically lasts about 28 days,with day 1 considered to be the first day after ovulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During __________,the uterus is tented (erected)and the cervix is withdrawn from the vagina.Typically,the clitoris is engorged and the labia are bright red to violet due to hyperemia.
A) excitement
B) detumescence
C) orgasm
D) resolution
E) pregnancy
Q4) Progesterone stimulates uterine contractions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging
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Q1) The digital rays of a fetus give rise to __________.
A) arms and legs
B) ribs and intercostal muscles
C) fingers and toes
D) extensor digitorum muscles
E) radial muscles of the iris
Q2) Neonatal immunity depends on IgG and IgA acquired through the placenta and colostrum,respectively.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As it implants,the conceptus is nourished by means of __________.
A) trophoblastic nutrition
B) uterine milk
C) nutrient diffusion from the endometrium
D) placenta
E) umbilical nutrition
Q4) The embryonic stage extends from 16 days through the end of week 8.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Atlas a General Orientation to Human
Anatomy
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Q1) The interscapular region is __________ to the scapular region.
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) medial
D) lateral
E) superior
Q2) The spine encloses the __________.
A) thoracic cavity
B) abdominal cavity
C) pelvic cavity
D) vertebral canal
E) cranial cavity
Q3) The lumbar vertebrae are __________ to the thoracic vertebrae.
A) anterior
B) superior
C) cephalic
D) posterior
E) inferior
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