Algebra-Based Physics II Review Questions - 3839 Verified Questions by Quizplus

Algebra-Based Physics II Review

Questions

Course Introduction

Algebra-Based Physics II is a continuation of the introductory physics sequence designed for students who require a foundational understanding of physics principles using algebraic methods rather than calculus. This course typically focuses on topics such as electricity, magnetism, optics, and modern physics, building on the concepts of mechanics and thermodynamics introduced in the first semester. Through lectures, laboratory work, and problem-solving sessions, students gain a deeper understanding of physical phenomena and develop essential analytical skills applicable to various scientific and technical fields. The course is ideal for students pursuing careers in health sciences, life sciences, and other fields that require a solid grasp of fundamental physics concepts without the mathematical rigor of calculus-based physics.

Recommended Textbook

College Physics 10th Edition by Raymond A. Serway

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3839 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Introduction

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Q1) Assume when using a meter stick measuring can be done so that the last significant figure is in the tenth of a millimeter digit.If you are measuring an object with length between 25 and 53 cm,how many significant figures will result if you only use the part of the meter stick between the 3- and 85-cm positions?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) more than 4

Answer: D

Q2) Note the expression: y = x2.Which statement is most consistent with this expression?

A) If y doubles,then x quadruples.

B) y is greater than x.

C) If x doubles,then y doubles.

D) If x doubles,then y quadruples.

Answer: D

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Chapter 1: Introduction: Part A

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Q1) In 1983 the standard meter was redefined to what it is currently.What was the previous definition from 1960 based on?

A) specific alloy bar housed at Sevres,France

B) wavelength of light emitted by certain krypton atoms

C) distance from the Earth's equator to the North Pole

D) the distance light travels in a certain fraction of a second

Answer: B

Q2) tripling the radius of a sphere results in increasing its volume by a factor of

A) 27

B) 27

C) 9

D) 3

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension

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Q1) If the displacement of an object is given in SI units by x = 3 t + 4 t 2,at t = 2 s its velocity and acceleration are,respectively:

A) positive,positive.

B) positive,negative.

C) negative,negative.

D) negative,positive.

Answer: A

Q2) A vehicle designed to operate on a drag strip accelerates from zero to 28 m/s while undergoing a straight line path displacement of 48 m.What is the vehicle's acceleration if its value may be assumed to be constant?

A) 6 m/s2

B) 4 m/s2

C) 8 m/s2

D) 12 m/s2

E) 16 m/s2

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension: Part A

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Q1) A change in a physical quantity w having initial value wi and final value wf is given by which of the following?

A) wi wf

B) wf wi

C) (wf + wi)/2

D) none of the above

Q2) A 7.0-kg bowling ball experiences a net force of 6.0 N.What will be its acceleration?

A) 0.86 m/s2

B) 6.0 m/s2

C) 7.0 m/s2

D) 42 m/s2

Q3) On a position-time graph for a particle,suppose the plot starts at some positive position and as the time goes on the curve gets steeper and steeper while curving upwards.Which of the following must be true?

A) The speed of the particle is constant.

B) The acceleration of the particle is constant.

C) The speed of the particle is decreasing.

D) The acceleration of the particle is positive.

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Chapter 3: Vectors and Two-Dimensional Motion

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Q1) Jack pulls a sled across a level field by exerting a force of 110 N at an angle of 30° with the ground.What are the parallel and perpendicular components,respectively,of this force with respect to the ground?

A) 190 N,110 N

B) 110 N,190 N

C) 95 N,55 N

D) 55 N,95 N

E) 64 N,191 N

Q2) A stone is thrown with an initial speed of 10.3 m/s at an angle of 51° above the horizontal from the top of a 32 m building.If g = 9.8 m/s2 and air resistance is negligible,then what is the speed of the rock as it hits the ground?

A) 26 m/s

B) 6 m/s

C) 27 m/s

D) 32 m/s

E) 22 m/s

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Chapter

3: Vectors and Two-Dimensional Motion: Part A

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Q1) John throws a rock down with speed 20 m/s from the top of a 30-m tower.If g = 9.8 m/s2 and air resistance is negligible,what is the rock's speed just as it hits the ground?

A) 12 m/s

B) 28 m/s

C) 31 m/s

D) 78 m/s

Q2) The acceleration due to gravity on the Moon's surface is one-sixth that on Earth.An astronaut's life support backpack weighs 240 lb on Earth.What does it weigh on the Moon?

A) 40 lb

B) 120 lb

C) 80 lb

D) 240 lb

Q3) If the drag force on a car is F at a moderate highway speed v,at what speed would the drag force be doubled?

A) 1.2v

B) 1.4v

C) 1.7v

D) 2.0v

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Chapter 4: The Laws of Motion

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Q1) A 150-N block,on a 25° incline,is being held motionless by friction.The coefficient of static friction between the block and the plane is 0.52.The force due to friction is:

A) 0 N.

B) 136 N.

C) 63 N.

D) 150 N.

E) 96 N.

Q2) A barefoot field-goal kicker imparts a speed of 25 m/s to a football at rest.If the football has a mass of 0.50 kg and time of contact with the football is 0.020 s,what is the force exerted on the foot?

A) 13 N

B) 25 N

C) 625 N

D) 1,250 N

E) 625 N

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Chapter 4: The Laws of Motion: Part A

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Q1) A ball is rolled horizontally off a table with an initial speed of 0.18 m/s.A stopwatch measures the ball's trajectory time from table to the floor to be 0.30 s.How far away from the table does the ball land? Note: g = 9.8 m/s2 and air resistance is negligible.

A) 0.054 m

B) 0.072 m

C) 1.2 m

D) 1.9 m

Q2) A stone is thrown at an angle of 30° above the horizontal from the top edge of a cliff with an initial speed of 14 m/s.A stop watch measures the stone's trajectory time from top of cliff to bottom to be 7.1 s.What is the height of the cliff? Note: g = 9.8 m/s2 and air resistance is negligible.

A) 58 m

B) 114 m

C) 120 m

D) 197 m

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Chapter 5: Energy

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Q1) Yuri,a Russian weightlifter,is able to lift 265 kg 2.20 m in 2.10 s.What is his power output?

A) 583.00 W

B) 2.72 kW

C) 1.18 kW

D) 12.00 kW

E) 27.21 kW

Q2) A 2,000-kg ore car rolls 50.0 m down a frictionless 10.0° incline.If there is a horizontal spring at the end of the incline,what spring constant is required to stop the ore car in a distance of 1.00 m?

A) 347 kN/m

B) 334 kN/m

C) 1969 kN/m

D) 174 kN/m

E) 87 kN/m

Q3) The work done by static friction can be:

A) positive.

B) negative.

C) zero.

D) Any of the above.

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Chapter 5: Energy: Part A

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Q1) A ventilation fan has blades 0.50 m long rotating at 20 rpm.What is the centripetal acceleration of a point on the outer tip of a blade?

A) 1.1 m/s2

B) 2.2 m/s2

C) 0.55 m/s2

D) 3.3 m/s2

Q2) At what angle (relative to the horizontal)should a curve 52 m in radius be banked if no friction is required to prevent the car from slipping when traveling at 10 m/s? (g = 9.8 m/s2)

A) 28°

B) 32°

C) 16°

D) 11°

Q3) How many revolutions per second are needed for a centrifuge to produce an acceleration of 1 200g at a radius arm of 15.0 cm?

A) 40.7 rev/s

B) 44.6 rev/s

C) 81.4 rev/s

D) 151 rev/s

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Page 12

Chapter 6: Momentum and Collisions

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Q1) A uranium nucleus (mass 238 units)at rest decays into a helium nucleus (mass 4.0 units)and a thorium nucleus (mass 234 units).If the speed of the helium nucleus is 6.5 × 105 m/s,what is the speed of the thorium nucleus?

A) 1.1 × 104 m/s

B) 3,802.5 × 104 m/s

C) 1,440.0 × 104 m/s

D) 2.1 × 104 m/s

E) 0.1 × 104 m/s

Q2) A 2,100-kg truck moving at 11.00 m/s strikes a car waiting at a traffic light,hooking bumpers.The two continue to move together at 8.00 m/s.What was the mass of the struck car?

A) 3,630 kg

B) 4,990 kg

C) 890 kg

D) 790 kg

E) 2,890 kg

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Chapter 6: Momentum and Collisions: Part A

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Q1) Samantha pushes a 60-N crate up a ramp 20.0 m in length and inclined at 10° with the horizontal.What potential energy change does the crate experience?

A) 1200 J

B) 210 J

C) 600 J

D) 300 J

Q2) A 15.0-kg crate,initially at rest,slides down a ramp 4.0 m long and inclined at an angle of 20° with the horizontal.If there is no friction between ramp surface and crate,what is the kinetic energy of the crate at the bottom of the ramp? (g = 9.8 m/s2)

A) 200 J

B) 690 J

C) 10 J

D) 100 J

Q3) A 400-hp engine can deliver,in SI units,an average power of _____.(1 hp = 746 W)

A) 200 W

B) 74,600 W

C) 149,000 W

D) 298,000 W

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Page 14

Chapter 7: Rotational Motion and the Law of Gravity

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Q1) At what location does an artificial Earth satellite in elliptical orbit have its greatest speed?

A) nearest the Earth

B) farthest from the Earth

C) between Earth and Moon

D) between Earth and Sun

Q2) Somewhere between the Earth and the Moon is a point where the gravitational attraction of the Earth is canceled by the gravitational pull of the Moon.The mass of the Moon is 1/81 that of the Earth.How far from the center of the Earth is this point?

A) 8/9 the way to the Moon

B) 9/10 the way to the Moon

C) 3/4 the way to the Moon

D) 80/81 the way to the Moon

Q3) At an altitude of 4 times the radius of the earth,the acceleration due to gravity is A) g/2.

B) g/4.

C) g/16.

D) not given.

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Chapter 7: Rotational Motion and the Law of Gravity: Part A

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Q1) An unfueled 1 000-kg experimental rocket sled on level frictionless rails is loaded with 50 kg of propellant.It exhausts the propellant in a 20 s "burn." If the rocket,initially at rest,moves at 160 m/s after the burn,what impulse is experienced by the rocket sled?

A) 1.1 × 105 kg·m/s

B) 1.6 × 105 kg·m/s

C) 1.5 × 105 kg·m/s

D) 1.9 × 105 kg·m/s

Q2) A "double satellite" is launched into space.It consists of a satellite of mass m and another satellite of mass 5m.The connecting mechanism of these satellites is an explosive bolt and a compressed spring,both of negligible mass.The bolt is exploded and the satellites drift apart having been pushed by the spring.When the less massive satellite has moved a distance of 2.5 m from the center of mass of the double satellite,how far away from it is the satellite of greater mass?

A) 3.0 m

B) 2.0 m

C) 0.5 m

D) 4.5 m

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Chapter 8: Rotational Equilibrium and Rotational Dynamics

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Q1) If a nonzero torque is applied to an object,that object will experience:

A) a constant angular speed.

B) an angular acceleration.

C) a constant moment of inertia.

D) an increasing moment of inertia.

Q2) A uniform meterstick balances on a fulcrum placed at the 60-cm mark when a weight W is placed at the 20-cm mark.What is the weight of the meterstick?

A) W

B) 2W

C) W/2

D) 0.6W

E) 0.2W

Q3) 1700 rev/min is equivalent to which of the following?

A) 3400 rad/s

B) 178 rad/s

C) 356 rad/s

D) 89 rad/s

E) 28 rad/s

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Chapter 8: Rotational Equilibrium and Rotational Dynamics:

Part A

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Q1) A Ferris wheel,rotating initially at an angular speed of 0.16 rad/s,accelerates over a 7.0-s interval at a rate of 0.050 rad/s2.What is its angular speed after this 7.0-s interval?

A) 0.46 rad/s

B) 0.85 rad/s

C) 0.51 rad/s

D) 1.2 rad/s

Q2) A fan blade,initially at rest,rotates with a constant acceleration of 0.025 rad/s2.What is its angular speed at the instant it goes through an angular displacement of 10 rad?

A) 0.025 rad/s

B) 0.11 rad/s

C) 0.46 rad/s

D) 0.71 rad/s

Q3) A grindstone spinning at the rate of 12 rev/s has what approximate angular speed?

A) 3.2 rad/s

B) 26 rad/s

C) 52 rad/s

D) 75 rad/s

Page 18

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Chapter 9: Solids and Fluids

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Q1) The bottom of a flat-bottomed aluminum boat has area = 4.2 m2 and mass = 60 kg.If two fishermen and their fishing gear with total mass of 315 kg are placed in the boat,how much lower will the boat ride in the water? (H2O density = 1.0 × 103 kg/m3)

A) 0.014 m

B) 0.061 m

C) 0.075 m

D) 0.089 m

E) 1.323 m

Q2) An ideal fluid,of density 0.90 × 103 kg/m3,flows at 5.0 m/s through a level pipe with radius of 0.5 cm.The pressure in the fluid is 1.3 × 105 N/m2.This pipe connects to a second level pipe,with radius of 1.4 cm.Find the speed of flow in the second pipe.

A) 39.2 m/s

B) 1.79 m/s

C) 0.64 m/s

D) 14 m/s

E) 5.13 m/s

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Chapter 9: Solids and Fluids: Part A

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Q1) A figure skater on ice with arms extended,spins at a rate of 3.5 rev/s.After he draws his arms in,he spins at 6.0 rev/s.By what factor does the skater's kinetic energy change when he draws his arms in?

A) 2.4

B) 1.7

C) 0.58

D) 0.12

Q2) A turntable has a moment of inertia of 3.00 × 10 2 kg·m2 and spins freely on a frictionless bearing at 25.0 rev/min.A 0.600-kg ball of putty is dropped vertically on the turntable and sticks at a point 0.100 m from the center.By what factor does the angular momentum of the system change after the putty is dropped onto the turntable?

A) 1.22

B) 1.00 (no change)

C) 0.820

D) 1.20

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Chapter 10: Thermal Physics

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Q1) A tank with a volume of 0.2 m3 contains 22°C helium gas at a pressure of 100 atm.How many balloons can be blown up if each filled balloon is a sphere 29 cm in diameter at 22°C and absolute pressure of 1.20 atm? Assume all the helium is transferred to the balloons.

A) 653 balloons

B) 1,306 balloons

C) 290 balloons

D) 1,633 balloons

E) 180 balloons

Q2) A pressure of 3 × 10 7 mm of Hg is achieved in a vacuum system.How many gas molecules are present per liter volume if the temperature is 286 K? (760 mm of Hg = 1 atm,R = 0.082 1 L atm/mol K,and NA = 6.02 × 1023)

A) 6.8 × 1010

B) 8.3 × 1016

C) 10.1 × 1012

D) 1.9 × 109

E) 5.7 × 1014

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Chapter 10: Thermal Physics: Part A

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Q1) The Greenland ice sheet can be one km thick.Estimate the pressure underneath the ice where it is 0.80 km deep.(The density of ice is 918 kg/m3. )

A) 9.0 × 105 Pa (9 atm)

B) 2.5 × 106 Pa (25 atm)

C) 7.2 × 106 Pa (72 atm)

D) 9.0 × 106 Pa (90 atm)

Q2) Legend says that Archimedes,in determining whether or not the king's crown was made of pure gold,measured its volume by the water displacement method.If the density of gold is 19.3 g/cm3,and the crown's mass is 440 g,what volume would be necessary to prove that it is pure gold?

A) 31.1 cm3

B) 114 × 103 cm3

C) 22.8 cm3

D) 1.81 × 10 2 cm3

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Chapter 11: Energy in Thermal Processes Heat and Internal Energy

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Q1) As I use sandpaper on some rusty metal,the sandpaper gets hot because:

A) heat is flowing from the sandpaper into the metal.

B) heat is flowing from the metal into the sandpaper.

C) frictional processes increase the internal energy of the sandpaper.

D) heat is flowing from my hand into the sandpaper.

Q2) A machine gear consists of 0.13 kg of iron and 0.17 kg of copper.How much total heat is generated in the part if its temperature increases by 34 C°? (Specific heats of iron and copper are 450 and 390 J/kg °C,respectively. )

A) 4,000 J

B) 4,200 J

C) 4,600 J

D) 2,000 J

E) 2,300 J

Q3) If heat is flowing from a table to a block of ice moving across the table,which of the following must be true?

A) The table is rough and there is friction between the table and ice.

B) The ice is cooler than the table.

C) The ice is changing phase.

D) All three are possible,but none is absolutely necessary.

Page 23

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Chapter 11: Energy in Thermal Processes Heat and Internal

Energy: Part A

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Q1) An object moving in simple harmonic motion has an amplitude of 0.020 m and a maximum acceleration of 20 m/s2.What is the frequency of the system?

A) 0.40 Hz

B) 5.0 Hz

C) 10.1 Hz

D) 32 Hz

Q2) Suppose a 0.30-kg mass on a spring-loaded gun that has been compressed 0.20 m has elastic potential energy of 1.0 J.How high above the spring's equilibrium point can the gun fire the mass if the gun is fired straight up?

A) 0.10 m

B) 0.34 m

C) 0.24 m

D) 0.14 m

Q3) The SI base units for the spring constant are which of the following?

A) kg·s2

B) kg/m2

C) kg/s2

D) kg·m2

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Chapter 12: The Laws of Thermodynamics Work in Thermodynamic Processes

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Q1) If a heat engine has an efficiency of 20% and its power output is 660 W,what is the rate of heat input from the combustion phase?

A) 132 W

B) 3,400 W

C) 3,300 W

D) 3,200 W

E) 3,100 W

Q2) A 2.05-kg block of ice is at STP (0°C,1 atm)while it melts completely to water.What is its change in entropy? (For ice,Lf = 3.34 × 105 J/kg)

A) zero

B) 1,254 J/K

C) 627 J/K

D) 2,508 J/K

E) 5,016 J/K

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Chapter 12: The Laws of Thermodynamics Work in

Thermodynamic Processes: Part A

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Q1) A musical tone,sounded on a piano,has a frequency of 820 Hz and a wavelength in air of 0.400 m.What is the wave speed?

A) 587 m/s

B) 328 m/s

C) 235 m/s

D) 170 m/s

Q2) The superposition principle has to do with which of the following?

A) effects of waves at great distances

B) the ability of some waves to move very far

C) how displacements of interacting waves add together

D) relativistic wave behavior

Q3) For a wave traveling in a string,by what factor would the tension need to be increased to triple the wave speed?

A) 2.7

B) 9.0

C) 3.0

D) 1.7

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Chapter 13: Vibrations and Waves

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Q1) The position of a 0.71-kg mass undergoing simple harmonic motion is given by x = (0.160 m)cos ( t/16).What is its position at t = 6.8 s?

A) -0.037 m

B) 0.063 m

C) 6.339 m

D) 0.037 m

E) 0.619 m

Q2) Spring #1 has spring constant 80 N/m.Spring #2 has an unknown spring constant,but when connected in series with Spring #1,the connected springs have an effective force constant of 10 N/m.What is the spring constant for Spring #2?

A) 70 N/m

B) 90 N/m

C) 9 N/m

D) 11 N/m

E) 85 N/m

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Chapter 13: Vibrations and Waves: Part A

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Q1) What is the next harmonic frequency over the fundamental for an organ pipe 1.50 m in length,closed at one end? The speed of sound in air is 340 m/s.

A) 227 Hz

B) 170 Hz

C) 113 Hz

D) 56.7 Hz

Q2) In the afternoon,the decibel level of a busy freeway is 80 dB with 100 cars passing a given point every minute.Late at night,the traffic flow is only 8 cars per minute.What is the late-night decibel level?

A) 77 dB

B) 74 dB

C) 70 dB

D) 69 dB

Q3) If the intensity of a sound is increased by a factor of 1000,how is the decibel level changed? The new decibel level will be:

A) three units greater.

B) ten times greater.

C) thirty times greater.

D) twenty units greater.

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Chapter 14: Sound

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Q1) A bat,flying at 6 m/s toward a wall,emits a chirp at 48 kHz.If the wall reflects this sound pulse,what is the frequency of the echo received by the bat? (vsound = 340 m/s)

A) 49.7 kHz

B) 48.9 kHz

C) 48.0 kHz

D) 47.2 kHz

E) 56.7 kHz

Q2) If the intensity of a sound is increased by a factor of 100,how is the decibel level changed? The new decibel level will be:

A) two units greater.

B) double the old one.

C) ten times greater.

D) twenty units greater.

Q3) What sound level change corresponds to a factor of five change in intensity?

A) 0.5 dB

B) 5 dB

C) 7 dB

D) 16 dB

E) 50 dB

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Chapter 14: Sound: Part A

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Q1) A waterfall is 70 m high.What is the increase in water temperature at the bottom of the falls if all the initial potential energy goes into heating the water? (g = 9.8 m/s2,cw = 4186 J/kg·°C)

A) 0.16°C

B) 0.34°C

C) 0.69°C

D) 1.04°C

Q2) A swimming pool heater has to be able to raise the temperature of the 30,000 gallons of water in the pool by 10.0°C.How many kilowatt-hours of energy are required? (One gallon of water has a mass of approximately 3.79 kg and the specific heat of water is 4186 J/kg · °C. )

A) 1960 kWh

B) 1320 kWh

C) 1130 kWh

D) 216 kWh

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Chapter 15: Electric Forces and Electric Fields

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Q1) Two equal charges,each Q,are separated by some distance.What third charge would need to be placed half way between the two charges so that the net force on each charge would be zero?

A) Q

B) Q/2

C) Q/4

D) Q/8

Q2) A proton initially moves left to right long the x axis at a speed of 9.00 × 103 m/s.It moves into an electric field,which points in the negative x direction,and travels a distance of 0.900 m before coming to rest.What acceleration magnitude does the proton experience?

A) 9 × 103 m/s2

B) 4.5 × 107 m/s2

C) 2.25 × 109 m/s2

D) 18 × 1011 m/s2

E) 40.5 × 108 m/s2

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Chapter 15: Electric Forces and Electric Fields: Part A

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Q1) With molar quantity and temperature held constant,by what factor does the pressure of an ideal gas change when the volume is four times bigger?

A) 16

B) 4

C) 1/4

D) 1/16

Q2) Four moles of nitrogen gas are contained in an enclosed cylinder with a movable piston.If the molecular mass of nitrogen is 28 u,how many grams of nitrogen are present?

A) 0.14

B) 56

C) 42

D) 112

Q3) Which law is for a quantity of gas held at constant volume?

A) Boyle's law

B) Charles's law

C) Gay-Lussac's law

D) Avogadro's law

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Chapter 16: Electrical Energy and Capacitance

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Q1) A parallel-plate capacitor has dimensions 3.8 cm × 4 cm.The plates are separated by a 1.12-mm thickness of paper (dielectric constant = 3.7).What is the charge that can be stored on this capacitor,when connected to a 1.2-V battery? ( 0 = 8.85 × 10 12 C2/N m2)

A) 15.2 × 10 12 C

B) 2.7 × 10 12 C

C) 2.7 × 10 11 C

D) 5.3 × 10 11 C

E) 53.4 × 10 11 C

Q2) An electron in a TV picture tube is accelerated through a potential difference of 29 kV before it hits the screen.What is the kinetic energy of the electron in electron volts? (1 eV = 1.6 × 10 19 J)

A) 2.9 × 104 eV

B) 4.6 × 10 15 eV

C) 4.6 × 10 22 eV

D) 18.1 × 1022 eV

E) 4.5 × 10 15 eV

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Chapter 16: Electrical Energy and Capacitance: Part A

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Q1) Three Carnot engines operate between temperature reservoirs as follows: Engine A: Th = 1300 K,Tc = 1000 K;Engine B: Th = 1000 K,Tc = 700 K;Engine C: Th = 500 K,Tc = 350 K.Which two engines have the same thermal efficiency?

A) A and B

B) B and C

C) A and C

D) No two have the same thermal efficiency.

Q2) You have a PV diagram for a device going through a cyclic process forming a closed loop on the diagram.How can you tell from the diagram whether the device is acting as a heat engine and not as a refrigerator?

A) The loop is longer than it is high which means it is acting as a refrigerator.

B) The loop is higher than it is long which means it is acting as a refrigerator.

C) The loop proceeds clockwise which means it is acting as a heat engine.

D) The loop proceeds counterclockwise which means it is acting as a heat engine.

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Chapter 17: Current and Resistance Electric Current

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Q1) The number density of conduction electrons in a metal can be found from the density of the metal,the mass per mole M of the metal,the number of conduction electrons per metal atom,and Avogadro's number NA.If we assume one conduction electron per atom,which of the following gives the number density of conduction electrons for a given metal?

A) NA M

B) NA /M

C) NA M/

D) NA / M

Q2) A resistor is connected to a battery with negligible internal resistance.If you replace the resistor with one that has quadruple the resistance,by what factor does the power dissipated in the circuit change?

A) 0.25

B) 0.06

C) 4

D) 16

E) 2

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Chapter 17: Current and Resistance Electric Current: Part A

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Q1) A proton moving at 6.0 × 104 m/s is projected at an angle of 30° above a horizontal plane.If an electric field of 400 N/C is acting down,how long does it take the proton to return to the horizontal plane? (Hint: Ignore gravity.mproton = 1.67 × 10 27 kg,qproton = 1.6 × 10 19 C)

A) 7.8 × 10 6 s

B) 1.6 × 10 6 s

C) 7.8 × 10 7 s

D) 3.9 × 10 6 s

Q2) Object A has a charge q on it,object B has a charge q on it,and object C has a charge 2q on it.These charges are arranged,one each,at the vertices of an equilateral triangle.Which charge has the greatest magnitude electric force on it?

A) A

B) C

C) B

D) All have equal magnitude forces on them.

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Chapter 18: Direct-Current Circuits Sources of EMF

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Q1) Which voltage is not caused by a source of emf?

A) the voltage across a charged capacitor

B) the voltage across two copper-iron junctions at different temperatures

C) the voltage across the terminals of a dry cell battery

D) the voltage from an electric generator

Q2) Resistors of values 5 ,17 ,and 24 are connected in series across a battery with a small internal resistance.Which resistor dissipates the greatest power?

A) the 5- resistor

B) the 17- resistor

C) the 24- resistor

D) The answer depends on the internal resistance of the battery.

Q3) A certain capacitor is charged to 10 V and then,at t = 0,allowed to discharge through a certain resistor.There will be a certain time before the voltage across the capacitor reaches 5 V.This time can be decreased for this circuit by increasing:

A) the size of the capacitor.

B) the size of the resistor.

C) the size of the time constant.

D) None of the above.

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Chapter 18: Direct-Current Circuits Sources of EMF: Part A

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Q1) A parallel-plate capacitor is attached to a fixed voltage supply.If the plates are then separated to double the initial value,what happens to the energy stored by the capacitor?

A) It halves,go figure!

B) It stays the same since the volume doubles while the electric field halves.

C) It doubles since the volume between the plates doubles.

D) It quadruples since both the volume and the field double in this case.

Q2) Two parallel-plate capacitors have the same plate area,and the gap between the plates is filled with a dielectric with a dielectric constant equal to 6.The gap in capacitor

A is three times that in capacitor B.What is the ratio of the capacitance of A to B?

A) 1/3

B) The ratio is not given.

C) 3

D) 18

Q3) Equipotential surfaces around a point charge are

A) spherical.

B) cylindrical.

C) planar.

D) none of these choices.

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Page 38

Chapter 19: Magnetism Magnets

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Q1) The direction of the force on a current carrying wire located in an external magnetic field is which of the following?

A) perpendicular to the current

B) perpendicular to the field

C) Both choices A and B are valid.

D) None of the above are valid.

Q2) The right-hand rule allows one to find a property of the interaction of a magnetic field with a charged particle.The right-hand rule applied to moving charges:

A) results in positive charges moving clockwise.

B) results in negative charges moving clockwise.

C) can be used for positive charges only.

D) gives the direction of the force on a charge moving in a magnetic field.

Q3) When an electromagnet has an iron core inserted,what happens to the strength of the magnet?

A) It increases.

B) It remains the same.

C) It decreases.

D) Since it depends on the metal used in the wires of the electromagnet,any of the above.

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Page 39

Chapter 19: Magnetism Magnets: Part A

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Q1) If a 9.0-V battery,with negligible internal resistance,and an 27- resistor are connected in series,what is the amount of electrical energy transformed to heat per coulomb of charge that flows through the circuit?

A) 0.50 J

B) 9.0 J

C) 3.0 J

D) 72 J

Q2) The following three appliances are connected to a 120-V house circuit: i)toaster,1200 W,ii)coffee pot,750 W,and iii)microwave,1000 W.If all were operated at the same time,what total current would they draw?

A) 5.0 A

B) 25 A

C) 23 A

D) 6.0 A

Q3) A 300-A·h battery can deliver how many coulombs starting from a full charge?

A) 4.8 × 103

B) 4.3 × 104

C) 7.2 × 105

D) 1.1 × 106

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Page 40

Chapter 20: Induced Voltages and Inductance

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Q1) Two loops of wire are arranged so that a changing current in one,the primary,will induce a current in the other,the secondary.The secondary loop has twice as many turns as the primary loop.The current in the primary at this moment is 3 A and increasing.The current in the secondary must be:

A) 3 A.

B) 6 A.

C) zero.

D) There is insufficient information to work this problem.

Q2) An inductor,battery,resistance,and ammeter and switch are connected in series.If the switch,initially open,is now closed,what is the current's final value?

A) zero

B) battery voltage divided by inductance

C) battery voltage times inductance

D) battery voltage divided by resistance

Q3) The units T·m2/s are equivalent to:

A) W.

B) V.

C) N/m.

D) webers.

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Page 41

Chapter 20: Induced Voltages and Inductance: Part A

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Q1) A proton moves across the Earth's equator in a northwesterly direction.At this point the Earth's magnetic field has a direction due north and is parallel to the surface.What is the direction of the force acting on the proton at this instant? A) toward the northeast B) into the Earth's surface C) toward the northwest D) out of the Earth's surface

Q2) Two long parallel wires 40 cm apart are carrying currents of 10 A and 30 A in the opposite direction.What is the magnitude of the magnetic field halfway between the wires?

A) 3.0 × 10-5 T

B) 2.0 × 10-5 T

C) 1.0 × 10-5 T

D) 4.0 × 10-5 T

Q3) Which of the following devices makes use of an electromagnet?

A) relay

B) motor

C) both A and B

D) None of the above.

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Page 42

Chapter 21: Alternating-Current Circuits and Electromagnetic Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the maximum value of the electric field E at 0.9 m from a 55-W light bulb radiating in all directions? (µ0 = 4 × 10 7 T m/A,c = 3.00 × 108 m/s)

A) 64 V/m

B) 3700 V/m

C) 4100 V/m

D) 800 V/m

E) 290 V/m

Q2) The Earth is 1.49 × 1011 m from the Sun.If the solar radiation at the top of the Earth's atmosphere is 1 340 W/m2,what is the total power output of the Sun?

A) 7.48 × 1027 W

B) 2.34 × 1030 W

C) 6.62 × 1026 W

D) 3.74 × 1026 W

Q3) In an AC circuit,the ratio of average current to maximum current is:

A) zero.

B) 0.5.

C) 0.707.

D) 1.0.

Page 43

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Chapter 21: Alternating-Current Circuits and Electromagnetic

Waves: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) An RL circuit has L = 0.40 H and R = 5.0 .It is connected to a battery with = 22 V at time t = 0.Find the energy stored in the inductor when the current in the circuit is 2.3 A.

A) 5.0 J

B) 2.0 J

C) 50 mJ

D) 1.1 J

Q2) A flat coil of wire consisting of 20 turns,each with an area of 80 cm2,is positioned perpendicularly to a uniform magnetic field that increases its magnitude at a constant rate from 2.0 T to 6.0 T in 2.0 s.If the coil has a total resistance of 0.40 ,what is the magnitude of the induced current?

A) 500 mA

B) 70 mA

C) 140 mA

D) 800 mA

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Chapter 22: Reflection and Refraction of Light

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Sample Questions

Q1) A certain kind of glass has nblue = 1.650 for blue light and nred = 1.610 for red light.If a beam of white light (containing all colors)is incident at an angle of 60°,what is the angle between the red and blue light inside the glass?

A) 0.90°

B) 0.88°

C) 59°

D) 0.27°

E) 89°

Q2) One phenomenon that demonstrates the particle nature of light is:

A) the photoelectric effect.

B) diffraction effects.

C) interference effects.

D) the prediction by Maxwell's electromagnetic theory.

Q3) According to present theories of light,in some experiments light seems to be:

A) composed of particles which can neither be created nor destroyed.

B) a particle whose quantized energy depends on its velocity.

C) a wave that moves from one place to another if there is material to vibrate.

D) none of the above.

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Page 45

Chapter 22: Reflection and Refraction of Light: Part A

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Q1) What is the effective (rms)current value for an AC current with an amplitude of 20 A?

A) 28 A

B) 7.1 A

C) 3.1 A

D) 14 A

Q2) In an RL circuit,which of the following is a possible magnitude of a phase angle?

A) 45°

B) 315°

C) 225°

D) 135°

Q3) A resistor and capacitor are connected in series with an applied AC voltage source.Separate voltmeter readings across the resistor and capacitor give values of 50 V and 60 V (rms),respectively.What is the effective (rms)voltage of the source?

A) 78 V

B) 90 V

C) 110 V

D) 25 V

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Chapter 23: Mirrors and Lenses

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Q1) For a converging lens with two curved surfaces,the radius of curvature for both surfaces is 11 cm.If the focal length is 20 cm,what must the index of refraction be?

A) 1.3

B) 1.6

C) 2.6

D) 1.7

E) 1.5

Q2) Reducing the lens aperture size is a scheme one can use to reduce the occurrence of which of the following effects?

A) spherical aberration

B) mirages

C) chromatic aberration

D) light scattering

Q3) The lateral magnification for a flat mirror:

A) is a function of the object distance.

B) is a function of the image distance.

C) is a function of the object and image distance.

D) is 1.

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Chapter 23: Mirrors and Lenses: Part A

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Q1) What value of inductance should be used in a series circuit with a capacitor of 9.0 × 10 4 F when designed to radiate a wavelength of 70 m? (c = 3.00 × 108 m/s)

A) 3.8 × 10 4 mH

B) 1.9 × 10 4 mH

C) 3.8 mH

D) 1.5 × 10 3 mH

Q2) A radar pulse returns 2.0 × 10 4 seconds after it is sent out,having been reflected by an object.What is the distance between the radar antenna and the object? (c = 3.00 × 108 m/s)

A) 3.0 × 104 m

B) 4.5 × 104 m

C) 9.0 × 104 m

D) 6.0 × 104 m

Q3) A 6.0-J pulse of light from a laser has what momentum?

A) Light does not have momentum because it doesn't have mass.

B) 3.0 × 109 kg·m/s

C) 6.7 × 10-9 kg·m/s

D) 2.0 × 10-8 kg·m/s

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Page 48

Chapter 24: Wave Optics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Laser light sent through a double slit produces an interference patter on a screen 3.00 m from the slits.If the tenth order maximum occurs at an angle of 41.9°,at what angle does the third order maximum occur?

A) No third order maximum occurs.

B) 0.20°

C) 11.6°

D) 12.6°

E) Not enough information is given.

Q2) Two thin layers of material with different indices of refraction are coated on a glass plate.The outer first material has n1 = 1.240,the inner second material has n2 = 1.550,and the glass has nglass = 1.62.If light is incident from air on the first layer,what is the phase change for light that reflects from the glass?

A) 180°

B) 0°

C) 360°

D) 540°

E) 720°

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Chapter 24: Wave Optics: Part A

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Q1) A ray of light strikes a thick sheet of glass (n = 1.5)at an angle of 39° with the normal.Find the angle of the ray reflected off the glass surface with respect to the normal.

A) 56°

B) 25°

C) 46°

D) 39°

Q2) A 4.0-cm tall object is placed along the principal axis of a thin,convex lens of 30.0-cm focal length.If the object distance is 40.0 cm,which of the following best describes the image distance and height,respectively?

A) 17.3 cm and 7.0 cm

B) 17.3 cm and 1.3 cm

C) 120 cm and 1.3 cm

D) 120 cm and 12 cm

Q3) When the reflection of an object is seen in a plane mirror,the image is:

A) real and upright.

B) virtual and upright.

C) real and inverted.

D) virtual and inverted.

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Page 50

Chapter 25: Optical Instruments

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Q1) A diverging lens will be prescribed by the eye doctor to correct which of the following?

A) myopia

B) presbyopia

C) hyperopia

D) astigmatism

Q2) In the normal eye the ciliary muscles that control the lens will relax:

A) when viewing objects at the near point.

B) when viewing objects at infinity.

C) when viewing objects at a distance of 20 ft.

D) only when a person has his/her eyes closed.

Q3) The Yerkes refracting telescope has a 1-m diameter objective lens of focal length 20 m and an eyepiece of focal length 3.5 cm.What is the magnification of the planet Mars as seen through this telescope?

A) 140

B) 280

C) 570

D) 1,000

E) 35

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Page 51

Chapter 25: Optical Instruments: Part A

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Q1) A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm is incident along the normal to two closely spaced parallel glass plates.For what air gap separation between the plates will the transmitted beam be of maximum intensity? (1 nm = 10 9 m)

A) 75 nm

B) 300 nm

C) 410 nm

D) 150 nm

Q2) What wavelength monochromatic source in the visible region (390 to 710 nm)can be used to constructively reflect off a soap film (n = 1.46)in air if the film is 70.0 nm thick?

A) 558 nm

B) 430 nm

C) 450 nm

D) 409 nm

Q3) A diffraction grating has 2500 lines/cm.What is the slit separation?

A) 4.0 m

B) 250 nm

C) 400 nm

D) 2.5 m

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Chapter 26: Relativity

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Q1) The gravitational field is equivalent to:

A) the inertial mass.

B) an accelerated frame of reference.

C) an event horizon.

D) a clock running slowly.

Q2) The Michelson-Morley experiment was designed to make use of ________ to find the motion of the Earth relative to the luminiferous ether.

A) sound waves

B) interference fringes

C) electromagnetic wind

D) none of the above

Q3) How fast would a rocket have to move past a ground observer if the latter were to observe a 9.4% length shrinkage in the rocket length? (c = 3.00 × 108 m/s)

A) 2.98 × 108 m/s

B) 2.72 × 108 m/s

C) 1.27 × 108 m/s

D) 0.420 × 108 m/s

E) 0.920 × 108 m/s

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Chapter 26: Relativity: Part A

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Q1) A telescope has an objective lens with a focal length of 90 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 3.0 cm.What is the angular magnification of the telescope?

A) 180

B) 33

C) 60

D) 30

Q2) A lens with a focal length of 12 cm has what refractive power?

A) 5.0 diopters

B) 9.6 diopters

C) 6.7 diopters

D) 8.3 diopters

Q3) A high f-number:

A) allows using a slower shutter speed.

B) causes more spherical aberration.

C) allows a larger depth of focus.

D) is not related to any of the above options.

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Chapter 27: Quantum Physics Blackbody Radiation and Plancks Hypothesis

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Q1) The uncertainty principle was derived by whom?

A) Schrödinger

B) Heisenberg

C) de Broglie

D) Compton

Q2) If an electron has a measured wavelength of 0.832 × 10 10 m,what is its kinetic energy?

(h = 6.63 × 10 34 J s,1 eV = 1.6 × 10 19 J,and me = 9.11 × 10 31 kg)

A) 7640 eV

B) 418 eV

C) 334 eV

D) 218 eV

E) 70 eV

Q3) A photon absorbed by an electron will give up more energy to the electron if the photon:

A) is not spread out over many electrons.

B) is moving faster.

C) is moving slower.

D) has a higher frequency.

Page 55

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Chapter 27: Quantum Physics Blackbody Radiation and Plancks

Hypothesis: Part A

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Q1) If astronauts could travel at v = 0.90c,we on Earth would say it takes (4.2/0.90)= 4.7 years to reach Alpha Centauri,4.2 lightyears away.The astronauts disagree.How much time passes on the astronaut's clocks?

A) 2.0 years

B) 2.4 years

C) 1.4 years

D) 3.0 years

Q2) A meterstick moving in a direction parallel to its length appears to be only 60.0 cm long to an observer.What is the meterstick's speed relative to the observer? (c = 3.00 × 108 m/s)

A) 1.19 × 108 m/s

B) 2.40 × 108 m/s

C) 2.93 × 108 m/s

D) 2.75 × 108 m/s

Q3) At what speed is the momentum of an object triple that found classically?

A) c/3

B) 0.942 c

C) 0.866c

D) 2c/3

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Chapter 28: Atomic Physics

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Q1) The quantum mechanical model of the hydrogen atom requires that if the orbital quantum number = 6,there are permitted how many possible substates?

A) 6

B) 12

C) 26

D) 13

E) 36

Q2) The ground state electronic configuration for magnesium is 1s22s22p63s2.What is the orbital quantum number of the last (3s2)electron?

A) 2

B) 0

C) 1

D) 3

E) not enough information

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Page 57

Chapter 28: Atomic Physics: Part A

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Q1) The de Broglie wavelength of a 0.060-kg golf ball is 3.56 × 10 34m.What is its speed? (h = 6.63 × 10 34 J s)

A) 31 m/s

B) 15 m/s

C) 26 m/s

D) 48 m/s

Q2) What is the energy of a photon that has the same wavelength as a 24 eV electron? (h = 6.63 × 10 34 J s,me = 9.11 × 10 31 kg)

A) 24 eV

B) 14 × 10-16 eV

C) 3.5 keV

D) 5.0 keV

Q3) According to Wien's displacement law,if the absolute temperature of a radiating blackbody is doubled,then the peak wavelength emitted will change by what factor?

A) 4

B) 2

C) 1

D) 1/2

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Page 58

Chapter 29: Nuclear Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Tritium (3H)has a half-life of 12.3 years and releases 0.018 6 MeV energy per decay.What is the rate at which energy is released for a 1.5-gram sample of tritium? (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol-1,1 year = 3.16 × 107 s,1 MeV = 1.6 × 10-13 J,and mt = 3.016 05 u)

A) 1.6 W

B) 2.3 W

C) 9.9E+12 W

D) 5.0E+7 W

E) 85.4 W

Q2) Approximately how many radioactive atoms are present in a tritium sample with an activity of 0.2 × 10 6 Ci and a half-life of 12.3 years? (1 Ci = 3.7 × 1010 decays/s)

A) 1.3E+5

B) 1.1E+2

C) 3.5E-6

D) 4.1E+12

E) 2.9E+12

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Chapter 29: Nuclear Physics: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) The quantum mechanical model of the hydrogen atom requires that if the orbital quantum number = 5,there will be how many permitted orbital magnetic quantum numbers allowed?

A) 7

B) 15

C) 5

D) 11

Q2) When a hydrogen atom absorbs a photon that raises it to the n = 5 state,how many different energies are possible for the photon(s)that may be emitted as the atom eventually returns to the ground state?

A) 5

B) 3

C) 4

D) The correct value is not given.

Q3) The ionization energy of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV.What is the energy of the n = 5 state?

A) -0.544 eV

B) 0.378 eV

C) 0.544 eV

D) -0.378 eV

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Chapter 30: Nuclear Energy and Elementary Particles

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Sample Questions

Q1) A positron and an electron differ in:

A) charge.

B) mass.

C) spin.

D) energy.

Q2) Mesons are composed of ________ quarks,and baryons are composed of ________ quarks.

A) two,two

B) two,three

C) three,two

D) three,three

Q3) Where is the largest untapped source of uranium?

A) Canada

B) Siberia

C) Africa

D) none of the above

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Chapter 30: Nuclear Energy and Elementary Particles: Part

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Sample Questions

Q1) Neglecting recoil of the gold nucleus,how much kinetic energy must an alpha particle (charge = 2 × 1.6 × 10 19 C)have to approach to within 1.95 × 10 14 m of a gold nucleus (charge = 79 × 1.6 × 10 19 C)? (ke = 8.99 × 109 N m2/C2 and 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10 13 J)

A) 14.6 MeV

B) 11.7 MeV

C) 18.2 MeV

D) 22.7 MeV

Q2) Tritium (3H)has a half-life of 12.3 years and releases 0.0186 MeV energy per decay.What is the rate at which energy is released for a 3.0-gram sample of tritium? (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol-1,1 year = 3.16 × 107 s,1 MeV = 1.6 × 10-13 J,and mt = 3.01605 u)

A) 3.2 W

B) 1.1 W

C) 9.6 W

D) 0.33 W

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Page 62

Chapter 31: Particle Collisions, Mediating Photons, and

Quark Structures: Exploring the Fundamentals of Physics

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Q1) A proton and antiproton each with total energy 800 GeV collide head-on.What is the total energy (particles + energy)released?

A) zero

B) 800 GeV

C) 400 GeV

D) 1600 GeV

Q2) Assuming the Hubble constant is (21 km/s)/(106 ly),what is the recession speed of a galaxy 300 million parsecs away? (1 parsec = 3.26 ly)

A) 4200 km/s

B) 21,000 km/s

C) 640 km/s

D) 7000 km/s

Q3) The exchange of mediating photons can produce

A) neither a repulsive nor an attractive force.

B) either a repulsive or an attractive force.

C) a repulsive force.

D) an attractive force.

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Page 63