Algebra-Based Physics II Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Algebra-Based Physics II is a continuation of introductory physics designed for students who have completed the first semester of algebra-based physics. This course covers topics such as electricity, magnetism, optics, and modern physics, emphasizing conceptual understanding and practical problem-solving skills. Through laboratory experiments, in-class demonstrations, and collaborative activities, students explore the fundamental laws governing electric and magnetic fields, electromagnetic waves, circuits, light, wave phenomena, and basic principles of quantum and nuclear physics. The course prepares students for further studies in science or allied health fields by strengthening their grasp of physical concepts using algebraic approaches rather than calculus.
Recommended Textbook
College Physics A Strategic Approach 3rd Edition by Randall
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30 Chapters
3821 Verified Questions
3821 Flashcards
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Page 2
D. Knigh
Chapter 1: Representing Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the quotient of 2.43 ÷ 4.561 expressed to the correct number of significant figures?
A) 5.3278 × \(10 ^{- 1}\)
B) 5.328 × \(10^ {- 1}\)
C) 5.33 × \(10^ {- 1}\)
D) 5.3 × \(10^ {- 1}\)
Answer: C
Q2) A thick-walled metal pipe of length 20.0 cm has an inside diameter of 2.00 cm and an outside diameter of 2.40 cm. What is the total surface area of the pipe, counting the ends, in square centimeters?
A) 276 cm<sup>2</sup>
B) 277 cm<sup>2</sup>
C) 278 cm<sup>2</sup>
D) 279 cm<sup>2</sup>
Answer: D
Q3) Add the following lengths, each obtained from a different measuring instrument, and round the answer to the proper number of significant figures: 20.02 m, 5.91 m, 0.0097 m, and 2.467 m.
Answer: 28.41 m
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension
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Sample Questions
Q1) A foul ball is hit straight up into the air with a speed of 30 m/s, and air resistance is negligible.
(a) Calculate the time required for the ball to rise to its maximum height.
(b) Calculate the maximum height reached by the ball above the point where it hit the bat.
(c) Determine the times at which the ball passes a point 25 m above the point where it was hit by the bat.
(d) Explain why there are two answers to part (c).
Answer: (a) 3.1 s (b) 46 m (c) 1.0 s and 5.1 s
(d) One value for the ball traveling upward; one value for the ball traveling downward.
Q2) A motorist travels for 3.0 h at 80 km/h and 2.0 h at 100 km/h. What is her average speed for the trip?
A) 85 km/h
B) 88 km/h
C) 90 km/h
D) 92 km/h
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Vectors and Motion in Two Dimensions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Moon is 3.84 × 10<sup>8</sup> m from Earth and takes 27.3 days to complete each orbit. What are the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the Moon, assuming a circular orbit?
Q2) Vector \(\vec { A }\) has a magnitude of 6.0 m and points 30° north of east. Vector \(\overrightarrow { \mathbf { B } }\) has a magnitude of 4.0 m and points 30° east of north. The resultant vector \(\vec { A }\) + \(\overrightarrow { \mathbf { B } }\) is given by
A) 0.70 m at an angle of 42° north of east.
B) 14 m at an angle of 42° north of east.
C) 1.1 m at an angle of 42° north of east.
D) 9.7 m at an angle of 42° north of east.
E) 2.0 m at an angle of 42° north of east.
Q3) In an air-free chamber, a pebble is thrown horizontally, and at the same instant a second pebble is dropped from the same height. Compare the times of fall of the two pebbles.
A) The thrown pebble hits first.
B) The dropped pebble hits first.
C) They hit at the same time.
D) We cannot tell without knowing which pebble is heavier.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Forces and Newtons Laws of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elevator suspended by a vertical cable is moving downward but slowing down. The tension in the cable must be
A) greater than the weight of the elevator.
B) less than than the weight of the elevator.
C) equal to the weight of the elevator.
Q2) A 450-kg sports car accelerates from rest to 100 km/h in 4.80 s. What magnitude force does a 68.0 kg passenger experience during the acceleration?
A) 394 N
B) 82.0 N
C) 342 N
D) 311 N
Q3) If you pound a feather with a hammer, which one feels a greater force?
A) always the feather
B) always the hammer
C) The size of the force is always exactly the same on both of them.
D) If the feather moves, then it felt the greater force. Otherwise the force was the same on both.
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Chapter 5: Applying Newtons Laws
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 3.0-kg mass and a 5.0-kg mass hang vertically at the opposite ends of a rope that goes over an ideal pulley. If the masses are gently released from rest, how long does it take for the 3.0-kg mass to rise by 1.0 m?
A) 0.41 s
B) 0.74 s
C) 0.82 s
D) 1.8 s
E) 0.90 s
Q2) You push downward on a trunk at an angle 25° below the horizontal with a force of \(750 \mathrm {~N}\) If the trunk is on a flat surface and the coefficient of static friction between the surface and the trunk is 0.61, what is the most massive trunk you will be able to move?
A) 81 kg
B) 93 kg
C) 73 kg
D) 112 kg
Q3) A 2.8-kg tool can move on a perfectly smooth ramp that slants at 42° above the horizontal. What are the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of this tool if it is sliding (a) up the ram, (b) down the ramp?
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Gravity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A future use of space stations may be to provide hospitals for severely burned persons. It is very painful for a badly burned person on Earth to lie in bed. In a space station, the effect of gravity can be reduced or even eliminated. How long should each rotation take for a doughnut-shaped hospital of 200-m radius so that persons on the outer perimeter would experience 1/10 the normal gravity of Earth?
A) 91 min
B) 8.7 min
C) 4.6 min
D) 1.5 min
E) 0.011 min
Q2) What would be the weight of a 59.1-kg astronaut on a planet with the same density as Earth and having twice Earth's radius?
A) 580 N
B) 290 N
C) 1160 N
D) 2320 N
E) 1200 N
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Chapter 7: Rotational Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) At a certain instant, a compact disc is rotating at 210 rpm. What is its angular speed in rad/s?
A) 11 rad/s
B) 22 rad/s
C) 45 rad/s
D) 69 rad/s
E) 660 rad/s
Q2) Two uniform solid spheres have the same mass, but one has twice the radius of the other. The ratio of the larger sphere's moment of inertia about a central axis to that of the smaller sphere is
A) 4/5.
B) 8/5.
C) 1/2.
D) 2.
E) 4.
Q3) A cylinder of radius 8.0 cm rolls 20 cm in 5.0 s without slipping. Through how many degrees does the cylinder turn during this time?
Q4) Express the angular speed of an old 33 1/3 rpm LP in rad/s.
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Chapter 8: Equilibrium Ad Elasticity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-kg piece of equipment can be hung by steel wires of length 1.00 m, 2.00 m, or 3.00 m. If all the wires have the same diameter, which one will stretch the greatest distance?
A) the 1.00-m wire
B) the 2.00-m wire
C) the 3.00-m wire
D) They will all stretch by the same distance.
Q2) An irregularly shaped object that is 10 m long is placed with each end on a scale. If the scale on the right reads \(96 \mathrm {~N}\) while the scale on the left reads \(71 \mathrm {~N} \text {, }\) how far from the left end is the center of gravity of this object?
A) 5.7 m
B) 7.4 m
C) 4.3 m
D) 14 m
Q3) A light board that is 10 m long is supported by two sawhorses, one at one end of the board and a second at the midpoint. A 40-N object is placed between the two sawhorses, 3.0 m from the end and 2.0 m from the center. A second object, with a weight of 15 N, is placed on the supported end. What magnitude forces do the sawhorses exert on the board?
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Momentum
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 1000-kg whale swims horizontally to the right at a speed of 6.0 m/s. It suddenly collides directly with a stationary seal of mass 200 kg. The seal grabs onto the whale and holds fast. What is the speed of these two sea creatures just after their collision? You can neglect any drag effects of the water during the collision.
A) 0.00 m/s
B) 3.0 m/s
C) 4.0 m/s
D) 5.0 m/s
E) 6.0 m/s
Q2) A small car meshes with a large truck in a head-on collision. Which of the following statements concerning the magnitude of the average force during the collision is correct?
A) The truck experiences the greater average force.
B) The small car experiences the greater average force.
C) The small car and the truck experience the same average force.
D) The force experienced by each one is inversely proportional to its mass.
E) The force experienced by each one is directly proportional to its mass.
Q3) What is the magnitude of the momentum of a 0.140 kg baseball traveling at 45.0 m/s?
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Energy and Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ballet dancer is spinning in the middle of a horizontal frictionless stage. Which of the following things could he change by moving parts of his body or his whole body? (There could be more than one correct choice.)
A) his total kinetic energy
B) his translational kinetic energy
C) his rotational kinetic energy
D) his angular momentum
E) his moment of inertia
F) the horizontal component of his linear momentum
G) the location of his center of mass (or center of gravity)
Q2) A 0.32-kg ball is moving horizontally at 30 m/s just before suddenly bouncing off a wall Just after the bounce, it is moving horizontally at 25 m/s but in the opposite direction.
(a) What is the magnitude of the change in momentum of the ball during the bounce? (b) What percentage of the ball's original kinetic energy was lost in the collision?
Q3) How fast must a 6.0-kg cat run to have a kinetic energy of 150 J?
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Using Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ocean thermal energy conversion project uses the surface water near tropical islands with a temperature of 20°C as the hot temperature reservoir, and the water at some depth, with a temperature of 5.0°C, as the cold temperature reservoir for a heat engine. What is the maximum possible efficiency of an engine running between those two temperatures?
A) 4.7%
B) 5.1%
C) 7.9%
D) 15%
E) 30%
Q2) Nitrogen boils at -196°C. What is the corresponding temperature in the Fahrenheit scale?
A) -315°F
B) -196°F
C) -346°F
D) -290°F
E) -321°F
Q3) A heat engine has an efficiency of 35.0% and receives 150 J of heat per cycle.
(a) How much work does it do in each cycle?
(b) How much heat does it "waste" in each cycle?
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Chapter 12: Thermal Properties of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cylindrical filament in a light bulb has a diameter of 0.050 mm, an emissivity of 1.0, and a temperature of 3000°C. How long should the filament be in order to radiate 60 W of power? ( = 5.67 × 10<sup>-8</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup> K<sup>4</sup>)
A) 11 cm
B) 9.4 cm
C) 8.6 cm
D) 7.2 cm
E) 5.9 cm
Q2) A glass flask has a volume of 500 mL at a temperature of 20° C. The flask contains 492 mL of mercury at an equilibrium temperature of 20°C. The temperature is raised until the mercury reaches the 500 mL reference mark. At what temperature does this occur? The coefficients of volume expansion of mercury and glass are 18 ×10<sup>-5</sup> K<sup>-1</sup> (mercury) and 2.0 ×10<sup>-5</sup> K<sup>-1</sup> (glass).
A) 120°C
B) 110°C
C) 100°C
D) 140°C
E) 130°C
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Chapter 13: Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Aswan High Dam on the Nile River in Egypt is 111 m high. What is the gauge pressure in the water at the foot of the dam? The density of water is 1000 kg/m<sup>3</sup>.
A) 1.09 × 10<sup>6</sup> Pa
B) 1.16 × 10<sup>6</sup> Pa
C) 1.09 × 10<sup>3</sup> Pa
D) 1.11 × 10<sup>5</sup> Pa
E) 1.11 × 10<sup>2</sup> Pa
Q2) A piece of wood is floating in a bathtub. A second piece of wood sits on top of the first piece, and does not touch the water. If the top piece is taken off and placed in the water, what happens to the water level in the tub?
A) It goes up.
B) It goes down.
C) It does not change.
D) It cannot be determined without knowing the volumes of the two pieces of wood.
Q3) A wooden raft has a mass of 55 kg. When empty it floats in water (density \(\left. 1000 \mathrm {~kg} / \mathrm { m } ^ { 3 } \right)\) with 64% of its volume submerged. What maximum mass of sand can be put on the raft without sinking it?
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Chapter 14: Oscillations
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Sample Questions
Q1) An object attached to an ideal spring oscillates with an angular frequency of 2.81 rad/s. The object has a maximum displacement at t = 0.00 s of 0.232 m. If the force constant (spring constant) is \(29.8 \mathrm {~N} / \mathrm { m }\) what is the potential energy stored in the mass-spring system when t = 1.42 s?
A) 0.350 J
B) 0.256 J
C) 0.329 J
D) 0.399 J
Q2) If a floating log is seen to bob up and down 15 times in 1.0 min as waves pass by you, what are the frequency and period of the wave?
Q3) How much mass should be attached to a vertical ideal spring having a spring constant (force constant) of 39.5 N/m so that it will oscillate at 1.00 Hz?
A) 39.5 kg
B) 2.00 kg
C) 1.00 kg
D) 1.56 kg
E) 6.29 kg
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Chapter 15: Traveling Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tsunami, an ocean wave generated by an earthquake, propagates along the open ocean at 700 km/hr and has a wavelength of 750 km. What is the frequency of the waves in such a tsunami?
A) 0.93 Hz
B) 0.00026 Hz
C) 1.1 Hz
D) 6.8 Hz
E) 0.15 Hz
Q2) The density of aluminum is 2700 kg/m<sup>3</sup>. If transverse waves travel at \(38 \mathrm {~m} / \mathrm { s }\) in an aluminum wire of diameter \(4.6 \mathrm {~mm}\) what is the tension on the wire?
A) 65 N
B) 39 N
C) 52 N
D) 78 N
Q3) The vertical displacement y(x,t) of a horizontal string aligned along the x-axis is given by the equation y(x,t) = (6.00 mm) cos[(3.25 m<sup>-1</sup>)x - (7.22 s<sup>-1</sup>)t]. What are the (a) wavelength and (b) period of this wave?
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Chapter 16: Superposition and Standing Waves
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Sample Questions
Q1) A string that is 0.26 m long is vibrating in its n = 6 harmonic. The sound from tthis string excites a pipe that is \(0.88 \mathrm {~m}\) long and open at both ends into its second overtone resonance. What is the common resonant frequency of the string and the pipe? The speed of sound in air is 345 m/s.
A) 590 Hz
B) 390 Hz
C) 490 Hz
D) 690 Hz
E) 760 Hz
Q2) A guitar-like stringed instrument has a string that is 16 cm long. It sounds the musical note A (440 Hz) when played without fingering. By what distance should you shorten it to play the note C (523 Hz)?
A) 2.5 cm
B) 1.7 cm
C) 3.4 cm
D) 4.2 cm
Q3) An organ pipe that is 1.75 m long and open at both ends produces sound of frequency 303 Hz when resonating in its second overtone. What is the speed of sound in the room?
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Wave Optics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two light sources are said to be coherent if they are A) of the same frequency.
B) of the same frequency, and maintain a constant phase difference. C) of the same amplitude, and maintain a constant phase difference. D) of the same frequency and amplitude.
Q2) Two radio antennas are 130 m apart on a north-south line. The two antennas radiate in phase at a frequency of 3.6 MHz. All radio measurements are made far from the antennas. What is the smallest angle, reckoned east of north from midway between the antennas, at which constructive interference of two radio waves occurs? (c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)
A) 50°
B) 55°
C) 45°
D) 40°
E) 35°
Q3) In a double-slit experiment, the slit separation is 1.75 mm, and two coherent wavelengths of light, 425 nm and 510 nm, illuminate the slits. At what angle from the centerline on either side of the central maximum will a bright fringe from one pattern first coincide with a bright fringe from the other pattern?
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Ray Optics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A light beam is traveling inside a glass block that has an index of refraction of 1.46. As this light arrives at the surface of the block, it makes an angle of 53.0° with the normal. At what angle with the normal in the air will it leave the block?
A) It will not leave.
B) 59.1°
C) 43.2°
D) 33.2°
Q2) A light beam with wavelength 440 nm in a certain material then enters air and its wavelength becomes 577 nm.
(a) What is the index of refraction for the material?
(b) At what angle with the plane of the surface will the light be totally reflected back into the material?
Q3) Light enters air from water. The angle of refraction will be A) greater than the angle of incidence. B) equal to the angle of incidence.
C) less than the angle of incidence.
Q4) How far from a converging lens of focal length 30 cm must an object be placed so the image will be virtual and 3.0 times as large as the object?
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Optical Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the diameter of a radar dish is doubled, what happens to its resolving power assuming that all other factors remain unchanged?
A) The resolving power quadruples.
B) The resolving power doubles.
C) The resolving power is cut in half.
D) The resolving power is reduced to one-quarter its original value.
Q2) A machinist with normal vision has a near point at 25 cm. This machinist wears +4.25-diopter eyeglasses in order to do very close work. With these eyeglasses, what is the near point of the machinist? Assume that he wears the glasses extremely close to his eyes.
A) 12 cm
B) 10 cm
C) 7 cm
D) 15 cm
E) 17 cm
Q3) Spherical lenses suffer from
A) both spherical and chromatic aberration.
B) spherical aberration, but not chromatic aberration.
C) chromatic aberration, but not spherical aberration.
D) neither spherical nor chromatic aberration.
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Chapter 20: Electric Fields and Forces
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Q1) If a charge generator builds a negative static charge of - 7.00 \(\mu { C } \text {, }\) how many electrons are transferred to it during this process. (e = 1.60 × 10<sup>-1</sup><sup>9</sup> C)
A) 4.38 × 10<sup>13</sup>
B) 7.0
C) 1.12 × 10<sup>-18</sup>
D) 43.8
Q2) Two tiny particles carrying like charges of the same magnitude are \(1.0 \mathrm {~mm}\) apart. If the electric force on one of them is \(5.0 \mathrm {~N} \text {, }\) what is the magnitude of the charge on each of these particles?(k = 1/4 <sub>0</sub> = 9.0 × 10<sup>9</sup> N m<sup>2</sup>/C<sup>2</sup>)
A) 2.4 × 10<sup>-2</sup> C
B) 2.4 × 10<sup>-8</sup> C
C) 4.5 × 10<sup>4</sup> C
D) 2.4 × 10<sup>-5</sup> C
Q3) How far apart should two protons be if the electrical force of repulsion on each one is equal to its weight on the earth? (k = 1/4 <sub>0</sub> = 9.0 × 10<sup>9</sup> N m<sup>2</sup>/C<sup>2</sup>, e = 1.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C, m<sub>proton</sub> = 1.67 × 10<sup>-27</sup> kg)
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Electric Potential
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Q1) Two very large parallel metal plates, separated by 0.20 m, are connected across a 12-V source of potential. An electron is released from rest at a location 0.10 m from the negative plate. When the electron arrives at a distance 0.050 m from the positive plate, how much kinetic energy has the electron gained? (e = 1.60 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C)
A) 2.4 × 10<sup>-19</sup> J
B) 4.8 × 10<sup>-19</sup> J
C) 7.2 × 10<sup>-19</sup> J
D) 9.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> J
Q2) An air-filled 20- F capacitor has a charge of 60 C on its plates. How much energy is stored in this capacitor?
A) 70 J
B) 80 J
C) 90 J
D) 100 J
E) 110 J
Q3) What the electric energy density at a point 1.0 cm from a proton? (e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, <sub>0</sub> = 8.85 × 10<sup>-12 </sup>C<sup>2</sup>/N m<sup>2</sup>, k = 1/4 <sub>0</sub> = 9.0 × 10<sup>9</sup> N m<sup>2</sup>/C<sup>2</sup>)
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Chapter 22: Current and Resistance
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Q1) When a 14.0-A current flows through an 8.00- device for 24.0 hours, how much does this cost if energy costs $0.0900 per kW h?
A) $0.24
B) $1.04
C) $2.16
D) $3.39
Q2) A jeweler needs to electroplate gold, having an atomic mass of 196.97 g/mol, onto a bracelet. He knows that the charge carriers in the ionic solution are singly-ionized gold ions, Au<sup>+</sup>, and has calculated that he must deposit \(0.20 \mathrm {~g}\) of gold to reach the necessary thickness. How much current does he need to plate the bracelet in 3.0 hours? (e = 1.60 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C, N<sub>A</sub> = 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup> atoms/mol)
A) 9.1 mA
B) 540 mA
C) 33 A
D) 1800 mA
Q3) What potential difference is required across an 8.0- resistor to cause 2.0 A to flow through it?
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Chapter 23: Circuits
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Sample Questions
Q1) A15- resistor is connected in parallel with a 30- resistor. If this combination is now connected in series with an ideal 9.0-V battery and a 20- resistor, what is the current through the 15- resistor?
A) 0.10 A
B) 0.13 A
C) 0.20 A
D) 0.26 A
Q2) A resistor with a resistance of 360 is in a series circuit with a capacitor of capacitance 7.3 × 10<sup>-6</sup> F. What capacitance must be placed in parallel with the original capacitance to change the capacitive time constant of the combination to three times its original value?
Q3) Four unequal resistors are connected in a parallel with each other. Which one of the following statements is correct about this combination?
A) The equivalent resistance is less than that of the smallest resistor.
B) The equivalent resistance is equal to the average of the four resistances.
C) The equivalent resistance is midway between the largest and smallest resistance.
D) The equivalent resistance is more than the largest resistance.
E) None of the other choices is correct.
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Chapter 24: Magnetic Fields and Forces
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Q1) A proton moving with a velocity of 4.0 × 10<sup>4</sup> m/s along the +y-axis enters a magnetic field of 0.20 T directed towards the -x-axis. What is the magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the proton? (e = 1.60 × 10<sup>-19</sup>C)
A) 8.0 × 10<sup>-15</sup> N
B) 3.9 × 10<sup>-15</sup> N
C) 2.6 × 10<sup>-15</sup> N
D) 0 N
E) 1.3 × 10<sup>-15</sup> N
Q2) A charged particle is observed traveling in a circular path of radius R in a uniform magnetic field. If the particle were traveling twice as fast, the radius of the circular path would be
A) 2R.
B) 4R.
C) 8R.
D) R/2.
E) R/4.
Q3) An ideal solenoid having 200 turns and carrying a current of 2.0 A is 25 cm long. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the center of the solenoid? ( <sub>0</sub> = 4 × 10<sup>-7</sup> T m/A)
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Chapter 25: EM Induction and Em Waves
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Q1) The following items are positioned in sequence: A source of a beam of natural light of intensity I<sub>0</sub>, three ideal polarizers A, B, and C; and an observer. Polarizer axis angles are measured clockwise from the vertical, as viewed by the observer. The axis angle of polarizer A is set at 0° (vertical), and the axis angle of polarizer C is set at 50°. The axis angle of polarizer B is set at 120°. What is ratio of the intensity of the beam at the observer to the intensity I<sub>0</sub> of the source?
A) 0.015
B) 0.020
C) 0.025
D) 0.030
E) 0.035
Q2) In an electromagnetic wave in free space, the electric and magnetic fields are
A) parallel to one another and perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. B) parallel to one another and parallel to the direction of wave propagation. C) perpendicular to one another and perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
D) perpendicular to one another and parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
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Chapter 26: AC Electricity
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Q1) A resistor and an inductor are connected in series to an ideal battery of constant terminal voltage. At the moment contact is made with the battery, the voltage across the inductor is
A) greater than the battery's terminal voltage.
B) equal to the battery's terminal voltage.
C) less than the battery's terminal voltage, but not zero.
D) zero.
E) equal to the voltage across the resistor.
Q2) A series circuit contains an 80- F capacitor, a 0.020-H inductor, and a switch. The resistance of the circuit is negligible. Initially, the switch is open, the capacitor voltage is 50 V, and the current in the inductor is zero. At time t = 0 s, the switch is closed. When the potential across the capacitor is 30 V, what is the rate of change of the current?
A) 1000 A/s
B) 1500 A/s
C) 2000 A/s
D) 2500 A/s
E) 3000 A/s
Q3) At what frequency does a 10- F capacitor have a reactance of 0.12 k ?
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Chapter 27: Relativity
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Q1) At age 21, you set out for a star that is 50 light-years from Earth. How fast would your spaceship have to travel in order to reach that star when you are 61 years old? One light-year is the distance light travels in one year.
A) 0.58c
B) 0.68c
C) 0.78c
D) 0.88c
E) 0.96c
Q2) Astronaut Rob leaves Earth in a spaceship at a speed of 0.960c relative to an observer on Earth. Rob's destination is a star system 14.4 light-years away (one light-year is the distance light travels in one year). Relative to a frame of reference that is fixed with respect to Earth, how long does it take Rob to complete the trip?
A) 14.4 years
B) 15.0 years
C) 10.8 years
D) 4.20 years
E) 22.7 years
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Chapter 28: Quantum Physics
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Q1) A laser pulse of duration 25 ms has a total energy of 1.4 J. If the wavelength of this radiation is 567 nm, how many photons are emitted in one pulse? (c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s, h = 6.626 × 10<sup>-34</sup> J s)
A) 4.0 × 10<sup>18</sup>
B) 9.9 × 10<sup>19</sup>
C) 4.8 × 10<sup>19</sup>
D) 1.6 × 10<sup>17</sup>
E) 3.2 × 10<sup>17</sup>
Q2) When light of wavelength 350 nm is incident on a metal surface, the stopping potential of the photoelectrons is 0.500 V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of these electrons? (c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s, h = 6.626 × 10<sup>-34</sup> J s, 1 eV = 1.60 × 10<sup>-19</sup> J)
A) 0.500 eV
B) 3.04 eV
C) 3.54 eV
D) 4.12 eV
Q3) How "slow" must a 200-g ball move to have a de Broglie wavelength of 1.0 mm? (h = 6.626 × 10<sup>-34</sup> J s)
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Chapter 29: Atoms and Molecules
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Q1) What is the longest wavelength in the Paschen series?
A) 2.01 nm
B) 2.01 m
C) 365 nm
D) 1.88 nm
E) 1.88 m
Q2) Which one of the following is the correct electronic configuration for carbon, which has 6 electrons?
A) 1s<sup>2</sup> 2s<sup>2</sup> 2p<sup>2</sup>
B) 1s<sup>1</sup> 2p<sup>1</sup>
C) 1s<sup>1</sup> 2s<sup>2</sup> 2p<sup>1</sup>
D) 1s<sup>1</sup> 2s<sup>1</sup> 2p<sup>1</sup>
E) 1s<sup>2</sup> 2s<sup>2</sup> 2p<sup>4</sup>
Q3) The only valid electron state and shell designation among the following is
A) 1p, K (n = 1) shell.
B) 2s, K (n = 1) shell.
C) 1s, L (n = 2) shell.
D) 2p, L (n = 2) shell.
E) 3f, M (n = 3) shell.
Q4) What is the energy (in electron-volts) of the n = 3 state of atomic hydrogen?
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Nuclear Physics
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Q1) Suppose the half-life of an isotope is 2 days. You purchase 10 grams of the isotope, but it was produced in a laboratory 4 days before it was delivered to you. How much of this isotope will you have 3 days after it was delivered to you?
A) more than 2.5 grams but less than 5 grams
B) 2.5 grams
C) more than 1.25 grams but less than 2.5 grams
D) 1.25 grams
E) less than 1.25 grams
Q2) What are the possible charges of a quark (not an antiquark)?
A) -e, 0, e
B) -2/3 e, -1/3 e, +1/3 e, +2/3 e
C) -2/3 e, +1/3 e
D) -1/3 e, +2/3 e
E) -1/3 e, +1/3 e
Q3) How many quarks are in a deuteron, \(^{2}_{1}\)H?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
E) 9
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