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Advertising Strategy explores the principles and practices involved in developing effective advertising campaigns. The course covers topics such as target audience analysis, brand positioning, creative messaging, media planning, and assessment of campaign effectiveness. Students will learn to integrate research insights with creative strategies to design advertising solutions that meet business objectives across various traditional and digital platforms. Through case studies and practical assignments, learners will develop the critical thinking and strategic planning skills necessary for success in the dynamic field of advertising.
Recommended Textbook
Advertising and Promotion
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Q1) Which of the following best defines integrated marketing communications?
A)It is a term used in cause marketing that speaks about the degree of control customers hold over the cause they choose to support.
B)It involves coordinating the various promotional elements and other marketing activities that interact with a firm's customers.
C)It is software that gathers and analyzes information about customer interactions with all the employees of a company.
D)It is a collection of informational resources that describes a company's products and services and assists in marketing the same.
E)It involves dividing the customers into similar subgroups based on media usage, demographics, psychographics, and product usage.
Answer: B
Q2) An advantage of publicity over other forms of promotion is its credibility.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) When , targets the 34 percent of the population who are 50+, it is using a _____________________ segmentation strategy.
A)demographic
B)socioeconomic
C)behavior
D)personality
E)geographic
Answer: A
Q2) When Coca-Cola targeted end consumers across the global market with the ad campaign that they should "Taste the Feeling" to remind consumers that drinking a Coca-Cola makes everyday moments more special, it was using a
A)promotional pull strategy.
B)promotional push strategy.
C)trade advertising.
D)price/quality positioning.
E)direct selling.
Answer: A
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Q1) Greg is hired into the marketing services department of a full-service advertising agency.His job profile includes gathering information relating to the client's product and service that can be used in the development of the creative strategy.He has to collect information from various other departments in the firm to gain a better understanding of the client's target audience.In this scenario, Greg has been hired as a(n)
A)art director.
B)account planner.
C)illustrator.
D)media specialist.
E)account executive.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a centralized organizational system?
A)longer response time
B)very little top-management involvement
C)involvement of many people in making program decisions
D)lack of communication
E)discontinuity in staff
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a psychosocial consequence?
A)the taste of a soft drink
B)the feeling of prestige associated with wearing a luxury watch
C)the acceleration of an automobile
D)the processing speed of a computer
E)the firmness of a mattress
Q2) As an outcome of the alternative evaluation stage, the consumer develops
A)a heuristic tendency toward a particular brand.
B)a predisposition to buy a certain brand.
C)brand heuristics.
D)individual brand recognition.
E)a postpurchase evaluation set.
Q3) _____ refers to smaller groups or segments whose beliefs, values, norms, and patterns of behavior set them apart from the larger cultural mainstream.
A)Subculture
B)Social class
C)Reference group
D)Motivation
E)Attitude
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Q1) A company that hires a spokesperson with whom its target audience is likely to identify and respond favorably is
A)attempting to create cognitive dissonance.
B)creating a source bolster.
C)engaging in niche marketing.
D)creating an ambivalent situation.
E)enabling counterarguments.
Q2) Which of the following is true of word-of-mouth (WOM) marketing?
A)It involves very formal communication among consumers.
B)It is known as company-generated marketing.
C)It is considered a weak marketing strategy.
D)It can also be described as buzz marketing.
E)It is considered to be a part of nonpersonal communication.
Q3) Salespeople serve as personal channels of communication when they deliver a selling message or presentation to a buyer or potential customer.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A marketer should present the strong points at the beginning of an advertising message when
A)the target audience can connect well with the marketer's position.
B)the target audience is not interested in the topic.
C)the target audience is not biased toward certain brands.
D)the target audience has used the product and has a favorable image of the product.
E)immediate action is an objective.
Q2) Creating an image or culture around the CEO protects the corporate brand image from being affected by controversy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a target audience already holds a favorable opinion of a topic, a(n) _____ is most effective.
A)one-sided message
B)two-sided message
C)nonverbal appeal
D)open-ended message
E)fear appeal
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Q1) Determining a target market's present level of awareness and knowledge of, and liking for, a product often requires _____ measures.
A)benchmark
B)sales interval
C)secondary
D)frequency
E)reach
Q2) Many marketing managers prefer sales-oriented objectives for advertising because they believe that
A)the reason a company spends money on advertising and promotion is to sell its products or service.
B)the objective of advertising and other promotional mix elements is usually to communicate information or a selling message about a product or service.
C)the primary role of an IMC program is to communicate.
D)objectives should be based on the achievement of communication objectives.
E)they must provide relevant information and create favorable predispositions toward the brand before purchase behavior will occur.
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Q1) Viewer reaction profiles are usually used in the incubation stage of the creative process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about account planning is true?
A)Account planners conduct only quantitative research.
B)Account planners work with the client as well as other agency personnel.
C)Account planners conduct only qualitative research.
D)With account planning, the agency takes a permanent leadership role in the development of creative strategy.
E)The knowledge gained during account planning can only be used during the planning period because of its proprietary nature.
Q3) Focus group interviews bring creative people and others involved in creative strategy development into contact with customers.
A)True B)False
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Q1) _____ are catchy songs about a product or service that usually carry the advertising theme and a simple message.
A)Headlines
B)Taglines
C)Voiceovers
D)Jingles
E)Needledrops
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of feature appeals?
A)They present attributes that can be the basis of rational purchase decisions.
B)They are used mainly for low-involvement products.
C)They can be used for advertising a product but not a service.
D)They are used primarily for nontechnical products.
E)They point out the number of consumers who have switched to a particular brand.
Q3) Only 20 percent of readers go beyond an ad's headline and read the body copy.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a media vehicle?
A)a television set
B)a fashion magazine
C)direct marketing
D)newspaper advertising
E)an outdoor billboard
Q2) The concept of _____ is based on the assumption that one exposure to an ad may not be enough to convey a desired message.
A)average frequency
B)average reach
C)effective reach
D)GRP
E)effective frequency
Q3) The first step in developing a media plan is to A)create a media plan committee.
B)set the media objectives.
C)determine the reach, frequency, and coverage of all available media.
D)select broad media classes.
E)develop advertising campaigns.
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Q1) Which of the following is true of television as an advertising medium?
A)Television advertising is highly expensive and typically not cost efficient.
B)Television has often been criticized for being a nonselective medium.
C)Television as an advertising medium is typically not intrusive.
D)Television advertising is considered to be highly inflexible.
E)Television offers a greater range of geographic selectivity.
Q2) Which of the following statements about commercial length is true?
A) Fifteen-second spots are the most common commercial length.
B) Increasing media costs have resulted in advertisers preferring shorter commercials.
C) Most advertisers believe shorter commercials cannot deliver a message as effectively as longer commercials.
D) Fifteen-second spots typically sell for about the same amount as 30-second spots.
E) Most 15-second commercials are being converted to 5-second commercials that are known as split commercials.
Q3) Radio has evolved into a primarily local advertising medium.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) One drawback of online magazines is that they do not provide advertisers with the opportunity for sponsorships.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A magazine ad for Savor Raisins contains a swirl of dark chocolate with a top layer of raisins.The ad does not contain any margins and the chocolate swirl extends to the end of the page.This ad is an example of a(n)
A)gatefold.
B)bleed page.
C)diecut.
D)overrun.
E)heavy card stock.
Q3) Until recently, magazines focused on increasing their circulation under the assumption that higher circulation meant higher advertising rates.
A)True B)False
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Q1) While traveling on a commuter bus, Lauren notices an ad for Flare deodorant above her seat.This is an example of a(n) _____ used in transit advertising.
A)outside poster
B)aerial banner
C)spectacular
D)inside card
E)terminal poster
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of movie theater advertising?
A)Absolute and relative costs per exposure are quite high in movie theater advertising.
B)Movie theater ads offer low emotional attachment to moviegoers.
C)Movie theater advertising does not provide demographic segmentation.
D)Advertising in movie theaters offers lack of clutter as the number of ads is limited.
E)CPM in movie theater advertising is lower than that of any other media.
Q3) Support media are also known as measured media because they are easy to measure.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about direct marketing?
A)Direct marketing is suitable only for consumer-to-consumer advertising.
B)Direct marketing involves marketing research, segmentation, and evaluation.
C)Direct marketing has the same objectives as that of other promotional-mix tools.
D)Direct marketing as a promotional media is suitable only for small retailers.
E)Rapid increase in dual income families in America has led to a reduction in the use of direct marketing as a promotional media.
Q2) In direct-marketing situations, when it is necessary to screen or qualify potential buyers, it is advisable to use
A)the two-step approach.
B)the one-step approach.
C)direct mail rather than telemarketing.
D)direct-response television.
E)SMRB's data on direct-marketing purchasers.
Q3) Direct mail is often called "junk mail"-the unsolicited mail you receive.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The Clement Network, a satellite television channel that broadcasts weather forecasts, pays money in return for its name association with Nahla.com, an Internet portal.The Clement Network also provides weather information for the site.Which of the following methods of advertising on the Internet is Clement Network using?
A)interstitials
B)regular sponsorship
C)push technology
D)pop-unders
E)content sponsorship
Q2) Companies can make use of both "brick-and-mortar" stores as well as the Internet for generating sales.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Web 1.0 ended with the "bursting of the dot-com bubble."
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A _____ is a promotion where consumers compete for prizes and/or money on the basis of skills or ability.
A) sweepstakes
B) contest
C) refund
D) rebate
E) sample
Q2) Promotion programs cannot be developed to coincide with peak sales periods for certain products and services.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Planet Beverage's heavy financial involvement with freestyle skiing competitions and support of beach volleyball tournaments are examples of A)premiums.
B)field marketing.
C)exhibitions.
D)event marketing.
E)contests.
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Q1) Which of the following is true of corporate advertising?
A)It portrays the image that a firm is in trouble.
B)It is typically used to generate greater sales of a particular product.
C)It generates high levels of interest among consumers.
D)It is usually used to promote a service as opposed to a product.
E)It usually brings a significant return on investment.
Q2) Which of the following is one of the important reasons for the high power of publicity as a form of promotion?
A)its ability to eliminate the problem of clutter
B)its ability to eliminate the problem of economies of scale
C)its news value and the frequency of exposure it generates
D)its lack of ability to generate word of mouth information
E)its lack of credibility
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of publicity?
A)high control over the information being conveyed
B)control over the timing of information release
C)accuracy of the information being publicized
D)control over any inappropriate word-of-mouth marketing
E)perception of being endorsed by the media
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Q1) One major disadvantage of field tests is the lack of realism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Physiological measures of advertising effectiveness
A)are the most common methods for evaluating finished commercials in a laboratory setting.
B)indicate a receiver's involuntary responses to ads.
C)measure the effects of subliminal advertising.
D)are only used for pretesting broadcast advertising.
E)are neither valid nor reliable.
Q3) One of the weaknesses associated with a focus group research is that the results are
A)inaccurate.
B)difficult to obtain.
C)not directly observable.
D)not immediate.
E)not quantifiable.
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Q1) Creative strategy development for international advertising is different in process and procedure from that for domestic advertising.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE of the international use of the Internet?
A)The Internet cannot be efficiently used with an IMC program in the global marketplace.
B)Many companies hope word-of-mouth advertising will encourage greater use of the Internet.
C)The Internet is an important IMC tool for both large and small companies around the world.
D)Though English is the native language for only 8 percent of the world's population, English is the language used in close to 20 percent of all e-commerce websites.
E)During its formative years, the Internet was largely an Asian phenomenon.
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Q1) Which of the following is an important early development in state regulation that is used in 44 states as a basis for advertising regulation?
A)the model statutes
B)the Better Business Bureau guidelines
C)the Wheeler-Lea Amendment
D)Consortium of Trade Association's regulations
E)Fifth Amendment rectifications
Q2) Which of the following is a federal agency that controls advertising?
A)the National Advertising Review Board
B)the Better Business Bureau
C)the National Advertising Review Council
D)the Food and Drug Administration
E)the National Association of Attorneys General
Q3) Puffery is as an illegal, deceptive practice.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The Children's Advertising Review Unit (CARU) guidelines urge that care should be taken to incorporate minority and other groups in advertisements
A)to encourage racial and ethnic stereotypes.
B)in order to project a nonracial image of the United States.
C)as a means of controlling the number of advertisements that are shown on TV channels.
D)in order to present positive and pro-social roles and role models wherever possible.
E)as a means to promote appeals to prejudice toward gender roles.
Q2) Most critics of advertising tolerate informative advertisements better than persuasive advertisements.Which of the following reasons best explains why it is hard to engage in only informational advertising?
A)Customers also want to obtain information from sources other than advertising.
B)Information presented in advertisements often lacks credibility.
C)It is difficult to separate informational advertising from persuasive advertising.
D)Customers would not buy products or services without being persuaded.
E)Advertisements should create needs for marketers to reach their profit objectives.
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Q1) Adoption of a customer relationship management (CRM) approach will require sales managers to
A)reduce the role of direct marketing.
B)decrease their reliance on websites as strategic marketing tools.
C)decrease the use of traditional sales strategies.
D)focus less on building long-term collaborations.
E)focus less on building relationships based on trust.
Q2) Unlike advertising, personal selling does not provide the sender with the opportunity to determine the impact of the message.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A sales force is a major part of an organization's integrated marketing communications (IMC) mix when
A)the channel system is very long and indirect to the end users.
B)product trial by customers is unnecessary to make purchase decisions.
C)the purchase decision is not a major one for the buyer.
D)channel intermediaries need product and service training.
E)selling price or quality provides an inadequate margin.
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