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Advertising and Society examines the multifaceted relationship between advertising, culture, and social values. This course explores how advertising both reflects and shapes societal norms, attitudes, and behaviors, analyzing its impact on consumer identity, gender roles, ethics, and public discourse. Through case studies and critical frameworks, students assess the influence of advertisements on contemporary issues such as body image, consumerism, and digital media, developing a nuanced understanding of advertising as a social force within global and historical contexts.
Recommended Textbook M Advertising 1st Edition by William Arens1
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Q1) Which of the following factors occurred near the end of the nineteenth century and was one of the most responsible reasons for accelerating the usage of print ads by manufacturers who wished to sell their products?
A)The nation had not been in a war for over thirty years
B)The advertising agency had become a reality
C)Newspaper ads were relatively inexpensive
D)The nation had reached a 90 percent literacy rate
E)English was the established language of the United States
Answer: D
Q2) To differentiate its candy from that produced by other candy manufacturers,the manufacturer of Green & Black brand confections advertises that it is the only company to make its chocolate organically.This commitment to market only organic chocolate is an example of a(n):
A)perceptual value.
B)unique selling proposition.
C)economic differential.
D)economic advantage.
E)differential value.
Answer: B
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Q1) Much of the state legislation that deals with advertising is based on the:
A)constitution of Great Britain.
B)self-regulation codes published by the advertising profession.
C)"truth-in-advertising" model developed by Printer's Ink,the industry trade paper for many years.
D)U.S.Supreme court's "code of commercial speech."
E)federal government's "General Code of Advertising Ethics."
Answer: C
Q2) Define comparative advertising and describe how the FTC controls its misuse.
Answer: Comparative advertising is advertising in which one company claims its product is superior to another in some respect.The ads must compare some objectively comparable measurable characteristic.Anyone guilty of misrepresentations about a competitor's product is vulnerable to a civil suit.(The previous law made no such mention of misrepresentation.)
Q3) Distinguish between primary demand and selective demand?
Answer: Primary demand: Consumer demand for a whole product category. Selective demand: Consumer demand for the particular advantages of one brand over another.
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Q1) _____ must have the skill to condense all that can be said about a product into a few salient and pertinent points.
A)Account directors
B)Advertising supervisors
C)Copywriters
D)Communication specialists
E)Advertising planners
Answer: C
Q2) An ad agency's traffic department:
A)maintains the agency's position as a facilitating intermediary.
B)develops of the client's channel of distribution.
C)coordinates all phases of ad production.
D)negotiates media deals.
E)makes sure there is no unplanned replication of the advertising effort.
Answer: C
Q3) The traffic department coordinates all phases of production and makes sure everything is completed before their deadlines.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) What do you understand by the term 'product element'?
Q2) The target market for Fulla,a doll designed to embody the image of a proper Muslim woman is Arab parents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The basic goal of a positioning strategy is to:
A)own a word that established the product in the prospect's mind.
B)create a long-term market for a product category.
C)correlate the total product concept with the product's position in its product life cycle.
D)minimize product differentiation.
E)create and maintain primary demand for a product.
Q4) While you cannot find DVD players at every retail outlet,you can find them at discount stores,electronic stores,appliance stores and department stores.What kind of distribution is used for DVD players?
A)Exclusive
B)Pioneering
C)Selective
D)Intensive
E)Direct
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Q1) In the special bride edition of Martha Stewart's Living magazine,its editors describe the latest trends in weddings and give advice on how to create the perfect wedding.In this situation,the editors of the magazine could be considered:
A)opinion leaders.
B)reinforcers.
C)a reference point.
D)selective communicators.
E)negative motivators.
Q2) Tina is a new student at a private academy.She values the opinions of her new classmates and tries to dress just like them.She watches the same television shows they watch and tries to copy their hair style and the way they stand.For Tina,her new classmates are a(n):
A)approval center.
B)focus group.
C)standard bearer.
D)cultural norm.
E)reference group.
Q3) Define consumer behavior.
Q4) What are the three positively originated (transformational)motives?
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Q1) _____ provides the advertiser with useful guidelines for future advertising by evaluating the effectiveness of an individual ad or an entire ad campaign after it runs.
A)Pretesting
B)A trailer test
C)A clutter test
D)Post-testing
E)A galvanometer
Q2) To increase the likelihood of preparing the most effective advertising messages,companies use:
A)pretesting.
B)inquiry tests.
C)attitude tests.
D)post-testing.
E)unaided recall.
Q3) In the observation method,researchers monitor people's actions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Distinguish between direct questioning and experimental method.
Q5) What are the four types of questions most commonly used in surveys?
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Q1) _____ is the third section of the marketing plan and explains how the company plans to accomplish its marketing objectives.
A)The control process
B)Implementation
C)The stakeholder analysis
D)The marketing strategy
E)The marketing mix
Q2) What are the four sources of brand messages? Briefly describe each source.
Q3) Within a timeframe of five to seven years Orco Construction Supply,a regional distributor of tools and hardware to framing and foundation contractor markets,plans to hit a revenue mark of $500 million which will more than double its 2006 gross sales.This would be an example of a(n)_____ objective.
A)sales-target
B)target market
C)need-satisfying
D)market tracking
E)environmental
Q4) Define the term 'synergy.'
Q5) Distinguish between corporate objectives and marketing objectives.
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Q1) What are the three components of the message strategy?
Q2) In the creative process,the big idea:
A)is defined as a bold,creative initiative.
B)joins the product benefit with the consumer desire in a recognizable,familiar way.
C)allows the audience to stop,look,and listen if they want to.
D)is almost never expressed through a combination of art and copy.
E)describes the direction the message should take.
Q3) In 2008,Mars Snack Foods' Dove brand launched a line of dark chocolates called Dove Vitalize that support cardiovascular health.At the creation of the ad campaign designed to show the nutritional value of the new Dove Vitalize bars,the ad copywriter and art director met and wrote down as many possible creative ideas for an ad as they could think of.There was no criticism of any idea allowed during the session even when the art director suggested showing a Dove Vitalize bar as a substitute for broccoli.The creatives were engaged in:
A)idea swiping.
B)lateral thinking.
C)brainstorming.
D)collaborating.
E)critical thinking.
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Q1) Effective Web sites should always offer:
A)an Internet Service Provider sponsor.
B)interactivity.
C)a toll-free number.
D)a PayPal option.
E)a mission statement explaining privacy policies.
Q2) After conceptualization,the primary responsibility of the art director is to:
A)supervise the ad's progress to completion.
B)prepare possible visuals for the ad.
C)write the body copy and the headline(s).
D)introduce creativity to a prosaic process.
E)organize the various elements of an ad into a proposed layout.
Q3) Gevalia makes an expensive brand of coffee.What advertising term would you use to describe Gevalia's collect call number,which is 1-800-GEVALIA?
Q4) What kind of headline is used in the Quaker Instant Grits ad that tells readers to "Ham and Cheese It Up?"
Q5) The best ads focus on one big idea.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What are the three phases in the process of producing a recorded radio commercial?
Q2) Last night,Barry used his computer to watch last night's episode of "Prison Break."
During the show,he saw ads for other FOX programs and was shown clips which were not included in the original broadcast.This is an example of digital media in a(n):
A)private audience venue.
B)personal audience venue.
C)mass audience venue.
D)interactive network.
E)multimedia network.
Q3) _____ is the art of selecting and setting type.
A)Graphic printing
B)Typography
C)Wordsmithing
D)Typecasting
E)Print design
Q4) In CYMK printing,the K stands for "strikeover."
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The cost of a classified ad in a newspaper is typically based on:
A)the number of lines the ad occupies.
B)the amount of creativity required for the ad design.
C)desired reach.
D)anticipated response rates.
E)the number of ROPs it requires.
Q2) The preferred position for a newspaper ad is lengthwise across the bottom of the page.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Newspapers may be classified according to:
A)organizational structures.
B)method of gathering marketing research data.
C)type of audience.
D)subscription rates.
E)percentage of advertisements.
Q4) Yellow Pages are only useful to local advertisers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the two basic newspaper size formats?
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Q1) What is a synonym for cume persons?
Q2) DTV sends and receives moving images and sound by analog signals rather than the digital signals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An advertiser that wanted to make certain that the station would run a percentage of its spots in the better day parts-and not just late at night-should buy:
A)co-sponsorship production package.
B)radio organized sales (ROS)package.
C)cume audience plan.
D)total audience plan (TAP)package.
E)targeted day part plan.
Q4) First-run syndication is also called barter syndication.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List three disadvantages that are associated with cable television advertising.
Q6) List four disadvantages of radio as an advertising medium.
Q7) On what basis do most advertisers on network television buy their advertising?
Q8) List three advantages that are associated with cable television advertising.
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Q1) When Taylor accessed a Web site called FindArticles.com,he noticed at the top of his computer screen an ad for Ford Focus.The ad invited him to click on it and learn more about the automobile and SYNC,which it will be offering on 2008 models.What type of ad did Taylor see at the top of his screen when he was using the Web site?
A)A Web site ad
B)An interstitial
C)A banner ad
D)An Internet classified ad
E)A sponsored Web page
Q2) What are the disadvantages of Internet?
Q3) What is the difference between a corporate Web site and a commerce Web site?
Q4) _____ is a method of delivering ads from one central source,or server,across multiple Web domains,allowing advertisers the ability to manage the rotation and distribution of their advertisements.
A)Broadbanding
B)Narrowbanding
C)Third party ad servers
D)Behavioral targeting
E)Rich media advertising
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Q1) The most common form of direct-mail is the:
A)statement stuffer.
B)brochure.
C)self-mailer.
D)broadside.
E)sales letter.
Q2) You have been hired to design a billboard for a golf tournament that will be a major fundraiser for the local Lion's Club.Which of the following color combinations should you use to insure contrast and readability at outdoor viewing distances?
A)Pink and orange
B)Blue and green
C)Violet and yellow
D)Orange and red
E)Lime green and lemon yellow
Q3) Variations of painted bulletins include those with electronic time and temperature units called digital displays.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why are eight-sheet posters preferred over 30-sheet posters?
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Q1) Advertisers should use the same media vehicles that their primary competitors use.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Many factors go into developing an effective media strategy.These factors are often referred to as the five Ms.What are the five Ms?
Q3) List and define the three principles methods for scheduling media.Give an example of a product that would benefit from the use of each method.
Q4) Gross rating points (GRPs)are calculated by adding the ratings of several media vehicles.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The two major components of media objectives are audience objectives and: A)message-distribution objectives.
B)continuity objectives.
C)mission objectives.
D)environmental objectives.
E)marketing mix objectives.
Q6) What are the two major components of media objectives?
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Q1) Telemarketing costs a lot less money that personal selling.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about direct marketing is true?
A)Direct marketing is a measurable system of marketing.
B)Direct marketing is static.
C)Direct marketing is often called reminder advertising.
D)Direct marketing does not typically produce feedback.
E)Direct marketing as a form of promotion is ineffective in generating immediate sales.
Q3) Explain the main function of loyalty programs.
Q4) Which of the following statements about sales promotion is true?
A)Sales promotion is a deceleration tool.
B)Sales promotion normally involves an indirect inducement.
C)Sales promotion is usually considered to be complementary.
D)Sales promotion may be used anywhere along the marketing route.
E)Sales promotion adds intangible immediate value to the brand.
Q5) How are forward buying and diverting different? How are they similar?
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Q6) What are the various challenges that direct marketers have to face in foreign markets that limit the growth of direct marketing efforts?

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Q1) Corporate identity advertising is used when a company changes its name or its logo.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To be picked up by the media,publicity must be:
A)non-controversial.
B)unplanned.
C)non-political in nature.
D)newsworthy.
E)contentious.
Q3) _____ refers to informing and persuading government officials to promote or thwart administrative action or legislation in the interest of the client.
A)Persuasive communication
B)Lobbying
C)Informative communication
D)Consumerism
E)Press gentry
Q4) What is the primary role of public relations?
Q5) Why are video news releases considered controversial?
Q6) What is the function of corporate identity advertising?
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