Advertising and Promotion Management Practice Exam - 3203 Verified Questions

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Advertising and Promotion Management Practice Exam

Course Introduction

Advertising and Promotion Management explores the strategic role of advertising and promotion within the broader context of marketing communications. The course examines the processes involved in the planning, development, implementation, and evaluation of effective advertising and promotional campaigns. Topics include the formulation of promotional objectives, the selection of media channels, creative message strategies, budgeting, and the measurement of campaign effectiveness. Students gain practical insights into integrating various promotional tools such as advertising, public relations, sales promotion, and digital marketing to build strong brand identities and influence consumer behavior in competitive markets.

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Marketing Management 14th Edition by Philip T. Kotler

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22 Chapters

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Chapter 1: Defining Marketing for the 21st Century

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Q1) Relationship marketing aims to build mutually satisfying long-term relationships with key parties.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Marketers at Johnny Inc. believe in putting their customers ahead of everything else. Their products are carefully designed to meet customer requirements and the entire focus is on achieving customer satisfaction. Johnny Inc., follows the ________ concept in doing business.

A) production

B) product

C) selling

D) marketing

E) social responsibility

Answer: D

Q3) The marketing concept stresses on finding the right customers for the company's products.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: Developing Marketing Strategies and Plans

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an example of growth by diversification?

A) a company introducing its existing products in a new market

B) a company introducing new product category in a new market

C) a company increases its product line in an existing market

D) a company introducing a new product category in an existing market

E) a company integrates backward to cut costs

Answer: B

Q2) When Yahoo! began to flounder in 2001, CEO Terry Semel imposed a more conservative, buttoned-down atmosphere on the freewheeling Internet start-up. At the new Yahoo!, spontaneity is out and order is in. Identify this organizational phenomenon. Answer: This could be described as a change in corporate or organizational culture. Corporate culture has been defined as "the shared experiences, stories, beliefs, and norms that characterize an organization."

Q3) Once a SWOT analysis has been completed, the strategic planner is ready to proceed to the goal formulation stage of the strategic-planning process model.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: Collecting Information and Forecasting Demand

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Sample Questions

Q1) Prestige LLC, a small company that manufactures specialty cereals and energy bars, wants to launch a "green marketing" program in response to heightened consumer awareness about environmental issues. What should the company do to maximize the program's chances of being successful?

A) demonstrate that the products will benefit both customers and the society in the long-term

B) emphasize benefits to the consumer rather than environmental benefits

C) focus on the efforts and costs incurred by the company to bring these "green" products to consumers

D) engage in "greenwashing" to highlight the environmental benefits of the product

E) explain the rules and regulations laid out by governmental agencies to protect the environment

Answer: A

Q2) A growing portion of U.S. R&D expenditures goes to the development as opposed to the research side.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Conducting Marketing Research

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Sample Questions

Q1) The primary purpose of ________ is to identify the range of possible brand associations in consumers' minds.

A) experimental research

B) deshboarding

C) laddering

D) semantic differentials

E) word associations

Q2) ________ attached to television sets in participating homes now record when the set is on and to which channel it is tuned.

A) Tachistoscopes

B) Polygraphs

C) GPS systems

D) Audiometers

E) Galvanometers

Q3) ________ are data that were collected for another purpose and already exist.

A) Primary data

B) Secondary data

C) Primitive data

D) Cross-sectional data

E) Ordinate data

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Chapter 5: Creating Long-Term Loyalty Relationships

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not conducive to database marketing?

A) Rushbury Theater relies on the generosity of donors to keep functioning.

B) Kenilworthy retails luxury handbags and leather accessories to a select clientele.

C) 2Wheels sells its most profitable products to repeat customers.

D) Uncle Jim's sells its range of snacks in stores throughout the country.

E) PetZone offers obedience classes, a doggie daycare and other services for pets in the Manhattan area.

Q2) Frequency programs are designed to reward customers who buy frequently and in substantial amounts.

A)True

B)False

Q3) ________ is the totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs.

A) Performance

B) Value

C) Quality

D) Customer retention

E) Customer loyalty

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Chapter 6: Analyzing Consumer Markets

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Sample Questions

Q1) The associative network memory model views long-term memory as ________.

A) a subliminal perception

B) the interplay of drives

C) a strong internal stimulus impelling action

D) a temporary and limited repository of information

E) a set of nodes and links

Q2) Consumers who experience money constraints are prone to multitasking.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Explain the differences between a belief and an attitude.

Q4) Selective retention works to the advantage of strong brands.

A)True

B)False

Q5) ________ are a person's enduring favorable or unfavorable evaluations, emotional feelings, and action tendencies toward some object or idea.

A) Discriminations

B) Values

C) Beliefs

D) Feelings

E) Attitudes

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Chapter 7: Analyzing Business Markets

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Sample Questions

Q1) Framing occurs when customers are given a perspective or point of view that allows the firm to "put its best foot forward."

A)True

B)False

Q2) What do you understand by vendor-managed inventory (VMI)?

Q3) ________ refers to the decision-making process by which formal organizations establish the need for purchased products and services and identify, evaluate, and choose among alternative brands and suppliers.

A) Marketing channels

B) Organizational buying

C) Corporate retailing

D) Brand auditing

E) Inventory control

Q4) Small sellers should first concentrate their marketing efforts on reaching ________.

A) approvers

B) initiators

C) influencers

D) users

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Chapter 8: Identifying Market Segments and Targets

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Sample Questions

Q1) With respect to market offerings, if a marketer emphasizes a naked solution, he or she is emphasizing the product and service elements that all segment members value.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Establishing and communicating the distinctive benefit(s)of the company's market offering, for each target segment is called ________.

A) market research

B) market positioning

C) marketing effectiveness

D) market segmentation

E) market dominance

Q3) Identify ways in which shopping behaviors differ between men and women.

Q4) Demographic variables are popular because they are often associated with consumer needs and wants and they are easy to measure.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Assume that you have decided to use a niche strategy to advance your marketing goals. Characterize an attractive niche.

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Chapter 9: Creating Brand Equity

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Sample Questions

Q1) ________ is the differential effect that brand knowledge has on consumer response to the marketing of that brand.

A) Mission-driven brand equity

B) Customer-based brand equity

C) Product-driven brand equity

D) Service-driven brand equity

E) Function-based brand equity

Q2) According to Ries and Trout, Cadbury suffered from ________ when the company allowed its brand to become diluted by putting their name on such variants as mashed potatoes, powdered milk, and soups, apart from chocolates and candies.

A) liquidity trap

B) cognitive dissonance

C) branding fallout

D) cannibalization

E) line-extension trap

Q3) Brand equity arises from unanimity in consumer response.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Identify the three important principles for internal branding.

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Chapter 10: Crafting the Brand Positioning

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about the branding guidelines for a small business is true?

A) A small business must creatively conduct low-cost marketing research.

B) A small business must avoid leveraging secondary brand associations.

C) A small business must separate the well-integrated brand elements to enhance both brand awareness and brand image.

D) A small business must disintegrate the brand elements to maximize the contribution of each of the three main sets of brand equity drivers.

E) A small business must focus on building more than two strong brands based on a number of associations.

Q2) Industrial tools claiming to have durability, and antacids announcing their efficacy convey a brand's category membership by ________.

A) relying on the product descriptor

B) comparing to exemplars

C) announcing category benefits

D) communicating deliverability variables

E) identifying counter examples

Q3) Define leverageable advantage with an example.

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Chapter 11: Competitive Dynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The TelePizza chain, which operates in Europe and Latin America, has copied Domino's service model but maintains differentiation in terms of location. TelePizza is an example of a(n)________.

A) counterfeiter

B) adopter

C) cloner

D) imitator

E) adapter

Q2) An alternate way to increase sales volume is to expand the number of users by converting nonusers.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A frontal attacking strategy is another name for identifying shifts that are causing gaps to develop, then rushing to fill the gaps.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Who are the ideal opponents of a market challenger?

Q5) What must the firm do to sustain rapid market share growth?

Q6) What is counteroffensive defense? Explain with an example.

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Setting Product Strategy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Marketers have traditionally classified products on the basis of characteristics such as durability, tangibility, and use.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If line filling is overdone, it could result in ________ and customer confusion.

A) sales paralysis

B) manufacturing inefficiencies

C) self-cannibalization

D) disintermediation

E) ineffective management

Q3) Design can shift consumer perceptions to make brand experiences more rewarding.

A)True

B)False

Q4) You know that marketers have traditionally classified products based on characteristics of durability, tangibility, and use. You also know that each product type has an appropriate marketing-mix strategy attached. In analyzing your company's products, you decide to list each of these products and the appropriate marketing-mix strategy to understand where your products "fit." List these products and their appropriate marketing-mix strategies.

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Chapter 13: Designing and Managing Services

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true for services?

A) All services are people-based, while goods are equipment-based.

B) Service providers can be both for-profit or nonprofit.

C) All service companies follow the same process to deliver their services.

D) The client's presence is a hindrance during the service delivery process.

E) Service providers develop similar marketing programs for personal services and business services.

Q2) A hybrid consists of unequal parts of goods and services, with services being in the majority.

A)True

B)False

Q3) When customers calculate the perceived economic benefits of a continuously provided service in relationship to the economic costs, they are gauging the ________.

A) private equity

B) brand equity

C) payment equity

D) customer-service equity

E) product-service equity

Q4) Give an example of a pure service provided by a company.

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Chapter 14: Developing Pricing Strategies and Programs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the first step in setting a pricing policy?

A) selecting a pricing method

B) selecting the pricing objective

C) determining demand

D) estimating cost

E) analyzing competitors' costs, prices, and offers

Q2) Armac Ltd., is a sluice-box manufacturer based in China. A sluice-box is used for gold prospecting. Armac is interested in selling a few of its machines to an American mining company, but it wants 95 percent of the machines' price in gold and the rest in ores recovered by using the machines. This is an example of a ________.

A) buyback arrangement

B) functional discount

C) barter deal

D) compensation deal

E) sealed bid

Q3) The U.S. government often uses Dutch auctions to procure supplies.

A)True

B)False

Q4) How does the Internet help sellers discriminate between buyers and vice-versa?

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Chapter 15: Designing and Managing Integrated Marketing

Channels

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Sample Questions

Q1) Producers often shift some functions to intermediaries. Which of the following is the most significant benefit of doing this?

A) It increases customer loyalty.

B) It provides the producer with greater control over operations.

C) It reduces the amount of direct customer interaction.

D) It lowers the producer's costs and prices.

E) It ensures greater information security.

Q2) Which of the following is a major advantage of adding more channels for selling?

A) It helps the company increase its market coverage.

B) It helps the company reduce its fixed costs.

C) It reduces the likelihood of channel conflict.

D) It is the best strategy for selling low-involvement consumer products.

E) It results in economies of scale.

Q3) True Value is a retailer-owned cooperative with over 4,000 independent retail locations worldwide. Members of True Value own their individual stores and operate independently. True Value helps its members procure materials at a low cost. What kind of a marketing system is True Value? Explain briefly.

Q4) Explain the concept of a value network.

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Q5) Explain the three distribution strategies based on the number of intermediaries.

Chapter 16: Managing Retailing, Wholesaling, and Logistics

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Q1) A retailer cooperative is a retail firm that is owned by its customers.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The elapsed time between an order's receipt, delivery, and payment is called the

A) variable-costs-to-payment cycle

B) product-to-payment cycle

C) inventory-to-sale cycle

D) order-to-inventory cycle

E) order-to-payment cycle

Q3) As discount retailers improve their quality and image, consumers have been willing to trade down.

A)True B)False

Q4) The order-processing cost per unit increases with the number of units ordered because the order costs are spread over more units.

A)True

B)False

Q5) List the four categories of non-store retailing and briefly explain each.

Q6) Differentiate between brokers and agents.

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Designing and Managing Integrated Marketing Communications

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Sample Questions

Q1) An ad agency has landed an account for Savola, a brand of healthy cooking oil. Describe how the ad can incorporate negative appeals in its messages effectively.

Q2) All the response hierarchy models assume that a buyer passes through affective, cognitive, and behavioral stages, in that order.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Marketing communication strategy can be decided by conducting an image analysis by profiling the target audience in terms of ________.

A) brand knowledge

B) purchase patterns

C) demographic characteristics

D) income levels

E) psychographic characteristics

Q4) Trustworthiness is that source of a spokesperson's credibility that describes his or her attractiveness.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What are the features of an ideal advertising campaign?

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Q1) List the major objectives of events and experiences as promotion tools.

Q2) What are the four types of advertising timing patterns available to marketers when launching a new product?

Q3) What are the adjustments that marketers need to apply to the cost-per thousand measure when selecting specific media vehicles?

Q4) Researchers studying print advertisements report that the picture, headline, and copy matter in that order.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The main objective of marketing public relations is to secure editorial space in print and broadcast media to promote or "hype" a product, service, idea, place, person, or organization.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Sales promotion tools that typically are not brand building include price-off packs, contests and sweepstakes, consumer refund offers, and trade allowances.

A)True

B)False Page 20

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Page 21

Chapter 19: Managing Personal Communications: Direct and Interactive Marketing,

Word of Mouth, and Personal Selling

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Q1) Which of the following is a major advantage of using direct mails?

A) Direct mails permit target market selectivity.

B) It is the best suited tool for selling complex products.

C) Campaign testing is not needed for direct mails.

D) Direct mails have very high conversion rates.

E) It is the best method to sell industrial products.

Q2) ________ questions ask about the consequences of the buyer's problems.

A) Situation

B) Problem

C) Implication

D) Need-payoff

E) Solution

Q3) A salesperson calling on supermarkets to take repeat orders is called an order taker.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Closing signs from the buyer include physical actions, statements or comments, and questions.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Introducing New Market Offerings

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Q1) A group of young students run an Internet center. In an attempt to increase their profitability they start a cafe alongside the existing business. Explain the type of marketing used here.

Q2) GameTech International Inc. engages in the design, development, and marketing of interactive electronic bingo systems primarily in the United States. The company has plans to enter developing markets such as Brazil and India. TechToys, GameTech's major competitor has already started operations in India. GameTech decides to delay its entry to India and to closely observe Techtoy's operations in India. What is the possible rationale behind this delaying decision?

Q3) Attribute listing lists several ideas and considers each in relationship to the others.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following firms is most likely to seek radical innovation?

A) a traditional publishing company

B) a small scale FMCG company

C) a firm that procures and markets wheat

D) a high-tech firm in telecommunications

E) a firm that sells mineral water

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Page 23

Chapter 21: Tapping into Global Markets

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is one of Hofstede's four cultural dimensions that differentiate countries?

A) customer relationship management versus power distance

B) strategic management versus marketing management

C) weak versus strong uncertainty avoidance

D) total quality management versus JIT deliveries

E) marketing management versus customer relationships

Q2) Define a joint venture and list some of the advantages and disadvantages.

Q3) Some types of products travel better across borders than others. What types of products are most likely to be successful as straight extensions.

Q4) Define the internationalization process' four stages.

Q5) The main disadvantage of direct investment is that the firm loses access to the market in case the government of that country insists locally purchased goods have domestic content.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Country-of-origin perceptions, once formed, are very difficult to change.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 22: Managing a Holistic Marketing Organization for the Long Run

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Sample Questions

Q1) Operating management is most effective in controlling direct costs and traceable common costs.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What is a marketing audit? Explain the four characteristics of a marketing audit.

Q3) Which of the following is a best practice in business and marketing?

A) end-product orientation

B) reacting to competitors

C) vertical integration

D) stockholder driven

E) teamwork

Q4) Cause-related marketing is part of ________.

A) sustainability

B) corporate societal marketing

C) social media

D) global marketing

E) community marketing

Q5) Full costing allocates nontraceable common costs to marketing entities and has three major weaknesses. What are they?

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