Advertising and Promotion Management
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Advertising and Promotion Management explores the strategic and operational aspects of creating, implementing, and evaluating advertising and promotional programs in contemporary organizations. The course covers foundational concepts such as the role of integrated marketing communications, target audience analysis, budgeting, media selection, creative design, and the coordination of promotional tools including advertising, sales promotion, public relations, and digital marketing. Students will analyze real-world case studies, develop campaign strategies, and learn to measure the effectiveness of promotional efforts in achieving brand and organizational objectives. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, cultural implications, and adapting strategies within rapidly changing media environments.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Advertising Promotion and Marketing
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Page 2
Communications 7th Edition by Kenneth E. Clow
Chapter 1: Integrated Marketing Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define GIMC. Why is GIMC important?
Answer: GIMC is globally integrated marketing communications. It is important because most companies compete in an international arena.
Q2) Noise is anything that distorts or disrupts a message and can occur at any stage in the communication process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Consumer promotions include incentives, vendor support programs, and other fees and discounts that help the manufacturer push the product through the channel. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) An integrated marketing communications program should be viewed as an overall organizational process rather than a marketing plan or marketing function. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Corporate Image and Brand Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Procter & Gamble introduces a new laundry detergent with a different brand name, it is an example of creating a(n):
A) family brand.
B) cooperative brand.
C) co-brand.
D) flanker brand.
Answer: D
Q2) Brand equity offers the following benefits, except:
A) allows manufacturers to charge more for their brands.
B) creates higher gross margins.
C) shields companies from lawsuits.
D) captures additional shelf space in retail stores.
Answer: C
Q3) A product's package is the first opportunity for a brand to make an impression on a consumer before a purchase is made.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) What are the four types of brand names?
Answer: Overt names, implied names, conceptual names, iconoclastic names.
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Buyer Behaviors
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Q1) If a consumer has sufficient information from an internal search, he or she moves on to the next step of the decision-making process, evaluating alternatives, without engaging in an external search for additional information.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) An inert set is a series of brands that are viewed as being negative because of past buying experiences.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The two components of the consumer decision-making process that are most critical to developing an integrated marketing communications program are:
A) problem recognition and information search.
B) information search and evaluation of alternatives.
C) evaluation of alternatives and purchase decision.
D) problem recognition and evaluation of alternatives.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: The IMC Planning Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) The payout-planning method of developing a marketing communications budget establishes a ratio of advertising to sales or market share, and then reduces the ratio as the product reaches the threshold level and diminishing returns begin to occur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In using the payout planning method of developing a marketing communications budget, the larger amounts of dollars would be spent on marketing communications:
A) in the early years to build brand awareness and brand equity.
B) in the middle years to build brand equity and brand preference.
C) in the later years to maintain market share.
D) when the market share is the lowest.
Q3) Communication objectives are derived from corporate objectives.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify the various methods that can be used to develop a communications budget.
Q5) What are the methods of segmenting business-to-business markets?
Q6) What is the first step in the IMC planning process? Describe the components.
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Chapter 5: Advertising Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Means-end theory provides the basis of the MECCAS approach to advertising.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The means-end chain approach suggests that an advertisement should contain a message or means that:
A) leads the consumer to a desired end state.
B) changes a consumer's attitude.
C) modifies a consumer's beliefs.
D) stimulates some type of behavior.
Q3) In the past, creatives designing business-to-business ads relied heavily on:
A) a blend of visual and verbal elements.
B) the visual component of the ad.
C) the verbal or written component of the ad.
D) conative-oriented ads.
Q4) If a company's media budget numbers are 85-10-5 and uses an external ad agency, this means the company:
A) is spending too much money on creative work.
B) should continue using an external advertising agency.
C) should discontinue using an external agency and perform the work in-house.
D) is spending too much money on media buys.
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Chapter 6: Advertising Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ad that is targeted toward stay-at-home moms, which begins with this phrase, "Since I stopped working, I have more time for my kids," emphasizes:
A) likeability.
B) similarity.
C) consistency.
D) continuity.
Q2) The cognitive message strategy approach that is most likely to require substantiation of claims to prevent potential lawsuits made would be:
A) hyperbole.
B) preemptive.
C) unique selling proposition.
D) comparative.
Q3) Resonance advertising attempts to connect a product with a consumer's past experiences and is a form of affective message strategy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name the executional frameworks advertisers can utilize.
Q5) What are the advantages and disadvantages of comparative ads?
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Chapter 7: Traditional Media Channels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cost per rating point is calculated as:
A) cost of media buy divided by the vehicle's rating.
B) cost of media buy multiplied by the number of viewers.
C) ratings divided by gross exposures.
D) cost of media buy divided by gross exposures.
Q2) In terms of media, local retailers tend to spend the most dollars on:
A) newspaper ads.
B) radio ads.
C) television ads.
D) billboards.
Q3) A media strategy, media schedule, justification, and summary are components of a media planning strategy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An advertisement on television will have the biggest impact:
A) at the beginning or end of a set of ads.
B) in the middle of a set of ads.
C) during an infomercial.
D) when the ad is 15 seconds rather than 30 or 45.
Q5) Describe the roles of the media planner and the media buyer.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Digital Marketing
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Sample Questions
Q1) To be successful in using financially-based incentives to encourage online purchases, the incentives:
A) must match the target market of the website.
B) should offer something free.
C) apply to all customers, not just first time purchasers.
D) should be meaningful to those visiting the website and be changed periodically.
Q2) Spencer Pools' marketing team has created a blog. To be effective, experts suggest that the blog be updated with new material at least 5 to 6 times per week.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An example of a value-added incentive to attract people to an e-commerce site is a customized shopping experience.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The click-through rate for banner ads on major destinations is less than 1 percent. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Social Media
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Sample Questions
Q1) The negative reaction to the Cheerios ad featuring a mixed-race couple illustrates the importance of social listening.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Social media marketing is the utilization of social media and/or social networks to market a product, company, or brand.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Give a broad overview of Twitter and its appeal to marketers.
Q4) Social media is any digital tool or venue that allows individuals to socialize on the web or in person.
A)True
B)False
Q5) While a large number of consumers post videos on YouTube, few consumers have their own YouTube channel.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the social media marketing strategies being used by brands today.
Q7) Give a broad overview of Facebook and its appeal to marketers.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Alternative Marketing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Word of Mouth Marketing Association encourages companies that use their employees to generate buzz marketing through posing as customers to be honest and share both their positive and negative thoughts about the company's products.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The future use of product placements and branded entertainment will depend on:
A) the level of clutter in the placements.
B) the costs.
C) viewer acceptance.
D) the measured impact on sales.
Q3) Facial recognition technology offers an innovative new form of alternative media advertising.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Forms of alternative media programs include all of the following except:
A) buzz marketing.
B) digital marketing.
C) product placement.
D) guerilla marketing.
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Chapter 11: Database and Direct Response Marketing and Personal Selling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Customers cite all of the following benefits to being a member of frequency or loyalty programs except:
A) better deals and offers.
B) entertaining content.
C) discounts and savings.
D) recognition and appreciation.
Q2) A frequency program provides incentives that are designed to encourage customers to make repeat purchases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Kathy is getting ready to close her sales call. She is not sure the prospect is quite ready so she goes over the benefits of the product and how it meets the customer's needs prior to asking for the order. This is an example of the ________ close.
A) continuous "yes"
B) trial method
C) summarization
D) assumptive
Q4) What is a data warehouse and what type of data should it contain?
Q5) Identify and define the four types of sales presentation.
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Chapter 12: Sales Promotions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Participants may win a prize without performing any type of activity with a:
A) contest.
B) sweepstakes.
C) premium.
D) price-off program.
Q2) A calendar promotion may result in a retailer using:
A) forward buying.
B) slotting fees.
C) exit fees.
D) cooperative advertisements.
Q3) A self-liquidating premium is one in which the consumer pays a small amount money for the gift or item.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A coupon placed on a package to be used during the purchase of that product is called a(n) ________ coupon.
A) freestanding
B) bounce-back
C) instant redemption
D) rebate
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Chapter 13: Public Relations and Sponsorship Programs
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Q1) Proactive damage control strategies include entitlings, enhancements, and crisis management.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Labor unions and shareholders are external stakeholders.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The public relations department is the area in a company that:
A) manages publicity and other communications with all groups that have contact with a firm.
B) manages advertising and promotions.
C) monitors quality control and operations.
D) handles in-bound telemarketing calls.
Q4) The key to cause-related marketing is finding a cause that resonates with consumers, whether or not that cause matches a particular company's business.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Who are the major internal stakeholders for a public relations department to consider?
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Chapter 14: Regulations and Ethical Concerns
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Q1) The agency that monitors advertising on food packages and advertisements for medicines is the:
A) Federal Trade Commission.
B) Federal Communications Commission.
C) United States Postal Service.
D) Food and Drug Administration.
Q2) Stealth marketing occurs when:
A) firms intentionally design advertising or marketing campaigns to capitalize on a major sporting event.
B) a brand is associated with a major sporting event without any intentional or indirect effort on the part of the brand.
C) a brand suggests or hints it is associated with a major sporting event when it is not.
D) consumers are enticed to look at a particular brand without them realizing the person making the sales pitch is being paid or compensated by the brand.
Q3) Terms normally associated with puffery include "best," "greatest," and "finest."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Evaluating an Integrated Marketing Program
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to copytesting, many advertising research firms such as Millward Brown also provide advertising agencies with emotional reaction charts that show how viewers feel about an advertisement as they are watching it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When evaluating advertising or IMC campaigns, examples of long-term measures would include all of the following except brand:
A) sales.
B) awareness.
C) loyalty.
D) equity.
Q3) The principles of position advertising copytesting (PACT) state that tests should be conducted within laboratory settings and not in field settings.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What behavioral measures of advertising effectiveness are possible?
Q5) What makes measuring the effectiveness of advertisements problematic?
Q6) What objectives can be used to measure an overall IMC program?
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