Advertising and Promotion Management
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Advertising and Promotion Management provides students with an in-depth understanding of how organizations plan, implement, and evaluate advertising and promotional campaigns. The course explores the integration of traditional and digital media, strategic development of creative messaging, budget allocation, and the coordination of marketing communications to effectively reach target audiences. Students learn to analyze market environments, select appropriate promotional tools, and measure campaign effectiveness, while also considering the ethical and legal aspects of advertising. Case studies and practical projects prepare students to manage real-world advertising and promotional challenges in diverse business contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Marketing Research An Applied Orientation 6th Edition by Naresh K Malhotra
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Marketing Research
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Q1) Define and discuss problem identification and problem-solving research. Discuss how the two types of research are related. Develop an example showing the relationship between these two types of research.
Answer: Problem identification research is undertaken to help identify problems that are perhaps not apparent on the surface and yet exist or are likely to exist in the future. Problem-solving research is undertaken to arrive at a solution. Problem identification research and problem-solving research go hand in hand because once a problem or opportunity has been identified, problem-solving research can be undertaken. A given marketing research project may combine both types of research.This was illustrated in the chapter opening Boeing example.The consumer surveys identified potential demand for smaller planes (problem identification). Subsequent research led to the introduction of the new version of the Boeing 737, which caters to the 100 to 215 seat market (problem solving). The student should supply his/her own similar examples.
Q2) Most marketing research is conducted for clients representing commercial firms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Defining the Marketing Research Problem and Developing an Approach
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Q1) The ________ is a broad statement of the general problem and identification of the specific components of the marketing research problem.
A)problem audit
B)management problem
C)problem definition
D)none of the above
Answer: C
Q2) To formulate a marketing research problem of appropriate scope, it is necessary to take into account both the resources available, such as money and research skills, and the constraints on the organization, such as cost and time. These considerations refer to which of the factors related to the environmental context of the problem?
A)resources and constraints
B)buyer behavior
C)legal environment
D)economic environment
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Research Design
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Q1) One reason to conduct causal research is to determine the degree to which marketing variables are associated.For example, to what extent is shopping at department stores related to eating out?
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A major advantage of longitudinal design over the cross-sectional design is the ability to detect change as a result of repeated measurement of the same variables on the same sample.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Specifying the measurement and scaling procedures is one of the components involved in research design.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Exploratory Research Design: Secondary Data
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Q1) Published external secondary data sources may be broadly classified as ________ or ________ sources (Figure 4.2 in the text).
A)public business; government
B)general business; government
C)general business; federal
D)public business; federal
Q2) Syndicated services data are not collected for the purpose of marketing research problems specific to individual clients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ are databases composed of citations to articles in journals, magazines, newspapers, marketing research studies, technical reports, government documents, and the like.
A)Offline databases
B)Bibliographic databases
C)Online databases
D)Internet databases
Q4) Discuss the advantages and uses of secondary data.
Q5) Discuss the disadvantages of different types of scanner data.
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Chapter 5: Exploratory Research Design: Qualitative Research
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Q1) Discuss the five themes qualitative research has uncovered about baby boomers. Why is this type of research important?
Q2) One advantage of focus groups is synergism which results because the participants' feelings are similar to those of other group members; they feel comfortable and therefore willing to express their ideas and feelings.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There are fewer people in an online focus group than in a traditional focus group (Table 5.3 in the text).
A)True
B)False
Q4) A disadvantage of focus groups is that the unstructured nature of the responses makes coding, analysis, and interpretation difficult.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Focus groups can be misused and abused by considering the results as conclusive. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Descriptive Research Design: Survey and Observation
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Q1) Personal interviews conducted at central locations (mall intercept and CAPI)offer the least degree of environmental control.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When Canon Cameras was losing market share in the United States to Minolta, Canon decided that its distributor, Bell & Howell, was not giving adequate support. Canon sent Tatehiro Tsuruta to the United States to look into the problem. On entering a camera store, he would act just like a customer. He would note how the cameras were displayed and how the clerks served customers. Canon utilized ________, ________ observation in a ________ setting.
A)unstructured; disguised; contrived
B)unstructured; disguised; natural
C)structured; undisguised; natural
D)structured; undisguised; contrived
Q3) Content analysis could be profitably employed in the analysis of structured questions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the personal interviewing methods.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Causal Research Design: Experimentation
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Q1) ________ means that the factor or variable being investigated should be the only possible causal explanation.
A)The time order of occurrence of variables
B)The role of evidence
C)Concomitant variation
D)The absence of other possible causal factors
Q2) The everyday meaning of causality is more appropriate to marketing research than is the scientific meaning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ involves measuring the extraneous variables and adjusting for their effects through statistical analysis.
A)Design control
B)Statistical control
C)Randomization
D)Matching
Q4) Explain laboratory and field environments. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of laboratory experiments compared to field experiments.
Q5) Briefly define internal and external validity.
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Chapter 8: Measurement and Scaling: Fundamentals and Comparative Scaling
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Q1) All statistical techniques can be applied to ratio data.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ scaling is a comparative scaling technique that uses a rank order procedure to sort objects based on similarity with respect to some criterion.
A)Constant sum
B)Q-sort
C)Paired comparison
D)Rank order
Q3) Paired comparison data can be analyzed in several ways. One way is for the researcher to calculate the percentage of respondents who prefer one stimulus to another. The researcher can also perform all of the following analyses on paired comparison data except
A)simultaneous evaluation of all the stimulus objects
B)convert paired comparison data to a rank order
C)derive an interval scale from paired comparison data
D)order a set of objects into an internally consistent, uni-dimensional scale
Q4) Discuss measurement and scaling. What are they and how are they related?
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Q5) Why is there confusion over whether constant sum data are ordinal or metric?
Chapter 9: Measurement and Scaling: Noncomparative Scaling Techniques
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Q1) Although the mean is most often used as a summary statistic with semantic differential scale data, there is some controversy as to whether the data obtained should be treated as an interval scale.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Typically, each Likert scale item has seven response categories, ranging from "strongly disagree" to "strongly agree."
A)True
B)False
Q3) In ________ the degree of similarity between two measurements is determined by computing a correlation coefficient. The higher the correlation coefficient, the greater the reliability.
A)test-retest reliability
B)internal consistency reliability
C)coefficient alpha
D)coefficient beta
Q4) An advantage of the Stapel scale is it can be administered over the telephone.
A)True
B)False
11
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Chapter 10: Questionnaire and Form Design
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Q1) ________ is information that relates directly to the research problem.
A)Qualifying information
B)Identification information
C)Basic information
D)Classification information
Q2) Which of the following statements is correct about implicit alternatives?
A)Making an implied alternative explicit may increase the percentage of people selecting that alternative.
B)When alternatives are close in preference or large in number, the alternatives at the end of the list have a greater chance of being selected.
C)The split ballot technique should be used to rotate the order in which a list of alternatives appear.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Respondents for the pretest and for the actual survey should not be drawn from the same population.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the guidelines for the placement of branching questions?
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Chapter 11: Sampling: Design and Procedures
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Q1) Only the nonprobability sampling techniques can be implemented using both types of Internet panels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the factors listed below favor the use of probability sampling except (Table 11.5 in the text)________.
A)nonsampling errors are likely to be an important factor
B)the nature of the research is conclusive
C)the population is heterogeneous with respect to variables of interest
D)highly accurate estimates of population characteristics are required
Q3) ________ requires a detailed specification of how the sampling design decisions with respect to the population, sampling frame, sampling unit, sampling techniques, and sample size are to be implemented.
A)Determination of the sampling frame
B)Selection of a sampling technique(s)
C)Determination of the sample size
D)Execution of the sampling process
Q4) Discuss the advantages of systematic sampling.
Q5) Discuss the uses of nonprobability and probability sampling.
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Chapter 12: Sampling: Final and Initial Sample Size
Determination
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Q1) Prior notification increases response rates for samples of the general public because it reduces surprise and uncertainty and creates a more cooperative atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which method of improving response rate involves use of the foot-in-the-door or door-in-the-face technique?
A)motivating the respondents
B)follow-up
C)incentives
D)prior notification
Q3) The ________ is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean or proportion.
A)standard error
B)standardized variate
C)variance
D)standard deviation
Q4) Discuss four of the methods of reducing refusals to participate in a survey.
Q5) Discuss what can be done to reduce not-at-homes.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Fieldwork
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Q1) Which statement is correct about terminating the interview?
A)Any spontaneous comments the respondent offers after the formal questions have been asked should be recorded.
B)The interviewer should answer the respondent's questions about the project.
C)The respondent should be left with a positive feeling about the interview.
D)All of the above statements are correct.
Q2) When recording respondents' answers, interviewers should include all probes and comments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List the guidelines for asking questions.
Q4) In their guidelines on interviewing, the Council of American Survey Research Organizations suggests that interviewers keep a tally on each terminated interview and the reason for each termination.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Fieldwork is the sixth step in the marketing research process.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss four of the probing techniques.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Data Preparation
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Q1) ________ are suitable for analyzing data when there are two or more measurements of each element and the variables are analyzed simultaneously.
A)Interdependence techniques
B)Dependence techniques
C)Multivariate techniques
D)Univariate techniques
Q2) ________ utilizes questions that appear on a computerized gridpad. The responses are recorded directly into the computer using a sensing device.
A)CATI or CAPI
B)Computerized sensory systems
C)Mark sense forms
D)Optical scanning
Q3) SPSS Missing Values Analysis can assist in diagnosing missing values and replacing missing values with estimates. The missing values can also be treated within the context of the SPSS Base module.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Give a brief overview of the data-preparation process.
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Chapter 15: Frequency Distribution, Cross-Tabulation, and Hypothesis Testing
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Q1) An asymmetrical lambda value of 1 happens when each independent variable category is associated with a single category of the dependent variable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ is a skewed distribution whose shape depends solely on the number of degrees of freedom. As the number of degrees of freedom increases, the distribution becomes more symmetrical.
A)t distribution
B)frequency distribution
C)chi-square distribution
D)F distribution
Q3) ________ is a measure of the percentage improvement in predicting the value of the dependent variable, given the value of the independent variable in contingency table analysis.
A)Tau b
B)Symmetric lambda
C)Asymmetric lambda
D)Tau c
Q4) Discuss the relationship between cross-tabulation and frequency distribution.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Analysis of Variance and Covariance
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Q1) Analysis of variance and analysis of covariance are tests of differences between two means or median.
A)True B)False
Q2) Contrasts are used in ANOVA to determine which of the means are statistically different.
A)True B)False
Q3) Explain SS<sub>between</sub>, SS<sub>within</sub>, and SS<sub>y</sub> and their relationship.
Q4) The Kruskal-Wallis one-way analysis of variance also examines the difference in medians.
A)True B)False
Q5) In analysis of variance, it is assumed that all the groups have the same variation in the population.
A)True B)False
Q6) What are the general steps involved in performing an ANCOVA?
Q7) List the procedure for conducting one-way analysis of variance.
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Chapter 17: Correlation and Regression
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Q1) r<sup>2</sup><sup> </sup>measures ________.
A)the proportion of variation in one variable that is explained by the other
B)the proportion of error variation
C)the proportion of variation in Y related to the variation of the categories of X
D)the proportion of variation in Y due to the variation within each of the categories of X
Q2) The product moment correlation is also known as the Pearson correlation coefficient and as ________.
A)simple correlation
B)bivariate correlation
C)correlation coefficient
D)all of the above
Q3) When determining the correlation coefficient, r, it does matter which variable is considered to be the dependent variable and which is the independent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In what ways can regression analysis be used?
Q5) Briefly explain how a scatter diagram benefits the researcher?
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Chapter 18: Discriminant and Logit Analysis
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Q1) The binary logit model commonly deals with the issue of how likely an observation is to belong to each group. It estimates the probability of an observation belonging to a particular group
A)True
B)False
Q2) In discriminant analysis, there is no multicollinearity in the predictor variables. Therefore, there is no ambiguous measure of the relative importance of the predictors in discriminating between groups.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In two-group discriminant analysis it is possible to derive only one discriminant function.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The null hypothesis in discriminant analysis, that in the population, the means of all discriminant functions in all groups are not equal, can be statistically tested.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Factor Analysis
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Q1) The unrotated factor matrix seldom results in factors that can be interpreted because the factors are correlated with many variables.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ is the last step in factor analysis.
A)Interpret the factors
B)Determine the model fit
C)Rotate the factors
D)Determine the number of factors
Q3) Factor loadings represent the correlations between sets of variables.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A factor model that provides a good fit to the data has many large residuals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the process of selecting surrogate variables. Also discuss how the researcher should decide on which variable to choose in complex situations.
Q6) List at least four of the procedures used for determining the number of factors.
Q7) Under what general circumstances is factor analysis used?
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Chapter 20: Cluster Analysis
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Q1) To use cluster analysis for clustering variables to identify homogeneous groups, the researcher could do all of the following except ________.
A)using the variables as the units of analysis
B)using the correlation coefficient as a measure of similarity between variables
C)inserting communalities in the diagonal of the correlation matrix
D)A and B
Q2) The TwoStep cluster analysis procedure can automatically determine the optimal number of clusters by comparing the values of a model-choice criteria across different clustering solutions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you are performing cluster analysis on the same data using different distance measures and then comparing the results across measures to determine stability of the solutions, you are at which stage of the cluster analysis process?
A)interpreting and profiling the clusters
B)assessing reliability and validity
C)deciding on the number of clusters
D)selecting a clustering procedure
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Chapter 21: Multidimensional Scaling and Conjoint Analysis
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Q1) In conjoint analysis, the dependent variable is usually preference or intention to buy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement is true about the full-profile approach to constructing conjoint analysis stimuli?
A)It is possible to reduce the number of paired comparisons by using cyclical designs.
B)The number of stimulus profiles can be greatly reduced by means of fractional factorial designs.
C)The advantage of pair-wise is that it is easier for the respondents to provide judgments on the paired comparisons.
D)The disadvantage of pair-wise is that it requires more evaluations than the full-profile approach.
Q3) Conjoint analysis assumes that consumers evaluate the choice alternatives in terms of the important attributes and make trade-offs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the steps involved in conducting multidimensional scaling?
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Chapter 22: Structural Equation Modeling and Path Analysis
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Q1) Which is a way to help make sure that the model is identified?
A)have at least three observed variables for each latent construct
B)have all formative indicators
C)a GFI of .95 or higher
D)a large sample size
E)none of the above
Q2) A proposed structural model involves four constructs, two of which are exogenous. X1 and X2 together cause Y1, which in turn causes Y2. This model is recursive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When two constructs are theoretically unrelated to each other, the path between those two constructs should be "fixed."
A)True
B)False
Q4) SEM can be thought of as a combination of MANOVA and ANOVA.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the process of conducting SEM and explain the various steps involved.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Report Preparation and Presentation
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Q1) The histogram is a horizontal bar chart in which the width of the bars represents the relative or cumulative frequency of occurrence of a specific variable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A letter of transmittal authorizes the researcher to proceed with the project.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the United Airlines example given in your text, it was stated that all departments of the company used the results of its in-flight customer satisfaction survey. Which department used the customer satisfaction report to evaluate the performance of United, both internally in achieving its goals, and externally compared to the competition?
A)the marketing department
B)the airport department
C)the executive management
D)the finance department
Q4) Discuss why the report and its presentation are important parts of the marketing research project.
Q5) Define the "Tell 'Em" principle and the "KISS 'Em" principle.
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Chapter 24: International Marketing Research
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Q1) Which of the statements below is not one of the United Kingdom's Data Protection Act (DPA)guidelines?
A)Personal data will be held only for specified and lawful purposes.
B)Personal data will be accurate and will be kept current.
C)Data users must take appropriate security measures against unauthorized access, alteration, disclosure, destruction, or loss of personal data.
D)All of the above statements are DPA guidelines.
Q2) Explain why back translation and parallel translation are needed.
Q3) Electronic surveys are not very popular in ________.
A)United States
B)Eastern Europe
C)Western Europe
D)Canada
Q4) In the framework for international marketing research, the extent of a country's telephone usage would be an informational and technological environment consideration.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define direct translation, back translation, and parallel translation.
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