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Advertising and Promotion Exam Preparation Guide - 1550 Verified Questions

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Advertising and Promotion Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

Advertising and Promotion explores the fundamental principles and practices of communicating with target audiences to influence attitudes and behaviors. The course examines the roles of advertising, sales promotion, public relations, and direct marketing in the context of integrated marketing communications. Students learn to develop and evaluate promotional strategies, create effective advertising messages, and understand media planning and budgeting decisions. Through case studies and practical projects, the course provides insights into consumer psychology, branding, regulatory and ethical considerations, and the impact of digital and emerging technologies on promotional activities.

Recommended Textbook

Basic Marketing Research 7th Edition by Gilbert A. Churchill

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Chapter 1: The Role of Marketing Research

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Q1) Marketing research

A)Generates information in the firm's environment.

B)Transmits information from the environment to the firm.

C)Interprets feedback information.

D)All of the above.

E)None of the above.

Answer: D

Q2) Which of the following is TRUE?

A)Marketing researchers often know more about the customers,industry,and competitors than anyone in the company with the same years of experience.

B)Marketing researchers must develop an understanding of business in general and marketing processes specifically.

C)Researchers working in smaller companies tend to have more specialized tasks than employees working in large firms.

D)Researchers working in European firms tend to have more specialized tasks than employees working in U.S.firms.

E)Both a and b above are true.

Answer: E

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Chapter 2: Gathering Marketing Intelligence: The Systems Approach

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Q1) DSS and MIS differ in all but which of the following ways?

A)Non-computer people find DSS easier to use personally than MIS.

B)DSS is focused more on ill-structured decision situations than MIS.

C)MIS combines models and analytic techniques with more traditional data access and retrieval functions in greater detail than DSS.

D)MIS is less flexible and adaptable than DSS.

E)DSS responds to managers with answers faster than MIS.

Answer: C

Q2) Discuss at least four common reasons that have restricted the adoption of a MIS.

Answer: The adoption of Marketing Information Systems (MIS)have tended to be restricted by (1)managers' reluctance to disclose their decision processes, (2)lack of enthusiastic support of high-level management, (3)cost of such systems,and (4)underestimation of time necessary to complete the system.

Q3) A problem with the systems approach is that managers are limited to the data available in the system.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: Gathering Marketing Intelligence: The Project Approach

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Q1) The sampling frame deals with

A)how information will be gathered from the sample.

B)the form of the sample.

C)the list of population elements from which the sample will be selected.

D)the size of the sample.

E)the type of sample,i.e. ,probability or nonprobability.

Answer: C

Q2) If the research problem was defined as "what attributes do car buyers today prefer in our U.S.manufactured cars?" the most appropriate type of research would be A)exploratory research.

B)descriptive research.

C)causal research.

D)basic research.

E)applied Research.

Answer: B

Q3) ____________________ is data that has already been collected for some other purpose.

Answer: Secondary data

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Chapter 4: Problem Formulation

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Q1) The two sources of marketing problems,and consequently research problems,are ____________________ and ____________________.

Q2) Sugging is a blatantly unethical use of marketing research.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The research proposal

A)is used primarily to summarize the problem definition process.

B)does not include proposed research methods.

C)provides the researcher another opportunity to make sure that the proposed research will provide information needed to address the decision problem.

D)should be no longer than two (2)pages.

E)cannot be changed once it has been accepted by the manager.

Q4) The two fundamental sources of marketing research problems are A)planned change and unplanned change.

B)Ineffective advertising and change.

C)poor sales and ineffective advertising.

D)Poor management and unplanned change.

E)technological advancement and customer suggestions.

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Chapter 5: Types of Research Design and Exploratory Research

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Q1) Which of the following is FALSE?

A)It is important to record all relevant data in the case analysis approach.

B)The goal in the case analysis approach is to gain insights.

C)The goal in the case analysis approach is to test explanations.

D)The success of the case analysis approach depends upon the researchers ability to interpret the diverse mass of information that is collected across cases.

E)Case analysis involved the study of selected examples or cases of the phenomenon about which insights are needed.

Q2) Which of the following is FALSE?

A)Individuals who have previously participated in a focus group are particularly valuable to researchers because they will have a more relaxed attitude than first-time members.

B)Focus group moderators typically attempt to cover all the objectives of the research in a single meeting while ensuring that group interaction is promoted.

C)Product and service ideas can drop "out of the blue" in focus group sessions.

D)Ideas from one focus group member can stimulate responses and ideas from other group members.

E)They are all false.

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Chapter 6: Descriptive and Causal Research Designs

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Q1) You have been called in as a consultant for the purpose of advising what sales volume quotas for Brand A mouth wash should be established for each of ten sales districts that collectively cover the continental United States.The quotas are to be set for the next calendar year.This is PRIMARILY a(n)

A)exploratory study.

B)descriptive study.

C)lab experiment.

D)field experiment.

E)turnover analysis.

Q2) Which of the following is capable of providing more convincing evidence of causal relationships?

A)An exploratory design

B)A descriptive design

C)An experiment

D)Turnover analysis

E)Cross-sectional analysis

Q3) A test market in which the company sells the product through its normal distribution channels is called a(n)____________________.

Q4) Compare and contrast descriptive and causal research designs.

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Chapter 7: Secondary Data

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Q1) Which of the following is TRUE?

A)Primary data is gathered by the researcher's organization and secondary data is gathered by some other organization.

B)The researcher should attempt to gather secondary data before initiating a search for primary data.

C)Secondary data in a secondary source is just as accurate as secondary data in a primary source.

D)If a researcher obtains secondary data from the party who collected them,he or she is using a secondary source of secondary data.

E)They are all false.

Q2) Once the research problem is defined and clearly specified,

A)the research effort turns to data analysis.

B)data collection takes place.

C)researchers should begin designing a survey immediately.

D)survey data becomes necessary.

E)All of the above are true.

Q3) Name at least one of the key sources researchers should keep in mind in conducting a search process: ____________________.

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Chapter 8: Standardized Marketing Information Services

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Q1) The main concern of the Starch Readership Service is to

A)provide information on the demographic characteristics of a particular publication's readership.

B)link magazine readership with certain lifestyle characteristics.

C)determine which magazines carry the most advertising.

D)evaluate the fit between a magazine's geographic distribution patterns and the type of advertising it carries.

E)provide advertisers with data concerning the effectiveness of their ads.

Q2) A ____ is the geographic area surrounding a store where the vast majority of its customers come from.For example,over 50% of the customers to a typical McDonalds come from within 5 miles from the store.

A)Block Group

B)Trade Area

C)PRIZM Group

D)Geocode

E)None of the above.

Q3) The availability of demographic,consumer-behavior,and lifestyle data by arbitrary geographic boundaries that are typically quite small is called

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Chapter 9: Collecting Primary Data

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Q1) The approach towards motivation taken in the text

A)insists that motives are different from drives.

B)suggests that motives involve the determination of how people behave.

C)suggests that motives may refer to a need,a drive,or an urge,but not to a wish,a desire,an impulse,or any other feeling.

D)suggests that motives involve the determination of why in human behavior.

E)states that motives are inner states that may energize but do not direct or move behavior toward a goal.

Q2) Researchers believe that motives tend to be less stable than behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A general advantage of the questionnaire approach over the observational approach is its versatility or wide scope.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A motive is any inner state that directs or channels behavior toward goals.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Discuss the two basic means of obtaining primary data.

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Chapter 10: Collecting Information by Communication

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Q1) Which statement does NOT accurately describe depth interviews?

A)The interviewer enjoys considerable freedom in how he or she conducts the interview.

B)It can be difficult to secure the cooperation of respondents.

C)Interviewers are relatively easy to find and inexpensive to hire.

D)The greater the number of interviewers,the less reliable the data.

E)The services of skilled psychologists may be required to interpret the responses.

Q2) Which of the following affords the researcher the most sample control with respect to getting cooperation from the respondent?

A)Phone interviews

B)Personal interviews

C)Mail questionnaires

D)Questionnaires published in newspapers

E)Warranty information cards

Q3) Compare and contrast the main methods of administering questionnaires.

Q4) The degree of structure in a questionnaire is the degree of standardization imposed on it.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Collecting Information by Observation

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Q1) In a(n)____________________ setting,subjects are observed in the environment where the behavior normally takes place.

Q2) The electrical resistance of the skin associated with sweating that accompanies emotional arousal is measured by a(n)

A)a galvanometer.

B)an eye camera.

C)an opthalomograph.

D)an audiometer.

E)None of the above

Q3) In indirect observation,the researcher is observing A)behavior.

B)intentions.

C)results of behavior.

D)consumers,without their knowing it.

E)attitudes.

Q4) Voice pitch analysis attempts to assess the loudness with which people answer specific questions.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Asking Good Questions: Measurement Basics

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Q1) If s/he wanted to use the highest level of measurement possible,the researcher measuring respondent age would most likely suggest using ____ and a(n)____ scale.

A)an open-ended item;interval

B)an open-ended item;ratio

C)age range categories;ordinal

D)age range categories;interval

E)an open-ended item;nominal

Q2) Which of the following is an example of an interval scale?

A)Female/Male

B)Attitude toward an advertisement

C)Social class

D)Income

E)Number of purchasers

Q3) Which of the following statements about content validity is TRUE?

A)It is sometimes called face validity.

B)It is the most difficult type of validity to establish

C)It lies at the heart of scientific progress.

D)Both a and b.

E)a,b,and c.

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Chapter 13: Measuring Attitudes and Other Variables

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Q1) The most common approach taken by marketing researchers to measure attitude is ____________________ measures.

Q2) Which of the following is TRUE?

A)Likert and semantic differential scales are examples of itemized rating scales.

B)An advantage of graphic rating scales is that they allow a researcher to make fine distinctions in attitude measurement.

C)The distinguishing feature of an itemized scale is that the possible response categories are limited in number,compared with the graphic rating scale.

D)For graphic scales to be effective,it is advisable to avoid extreme end statements and to have descriptive statements close to their numerical points.

E)All of the above are true.

Q3) When using the semantic-differential technique,researchers

A)watch for observable responses from subjects.

B)ask subjects to memorize facts for future recall.

C)utilize word-association and sentence completion tests.

D)generate a list of bipolar adjectives or phrases.

E)calculate a total score for each subject by averaging the scores across items.

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Chapter 14: Designing the Questionnaire or Observation

Form

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Sample Questions

Q1) The statement "Do you believe wholesalers or retailers are responsible for the high cost of meat in supermarkets today" is an example of a(n)____ question.

A)double-barreled question

B)leading question

C)open-ended question

D)ambiguous question

E)All of the above.

Q2) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to the randomized-response model?

A)The respondent answers one of several paired questions at random.

B)The interviewer knows which question is being answered by the respondent.

C)It is not possible to link responses to the paired questions with other responses such as demographic characteristics.

D)The respondent is less likely to refuse to answer or to answer untruthfully if the randomized-response model is used.

E)Answers to sensitive questions are more likely to be truthful.

Q3) Information that the respondent has forgotten creates a type of error called

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Chapter 15: Developing the Sampling Plan

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Q1) In proportionate stratified sampling,the size of each stratum is the basis for allocating the total sample across the population strata.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A(n)____ statistic is one whose ____ value from all possible distinguishable samples under the sampling plan is equal to the parameter it estimates.

A)biased,median

B)efficient,average

C)unbiased,mean

D)sample,biased

E)unbiased,extreme

Q3) A(n)____________________ is a form of cluster sampling in which areas such as census tracts or blocks serve as the primary sampling units.

Q4) Nonprobability sampling is an objective procedure in which the probability of selection for the population units can be determined.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Compare and contrast probability and nonprobability sampling.

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Chapter 16: Determining Sample Size

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Q1) In a study of the U.S.labor force to determine its attitudes and opinions,a research company interviews 5,000 persons on a street corner in Manhattan,NY.In order to get more accurate results,they decide to increase the sample size to 10,000.Which of the following would be true?

A)Increase the sample size will increase the representativeness of the sample.

B)Increase the sample size would still not increase the representative of the sample.

C)Since a convenient sample was used,sample representativeness is impossible.

D)Both b and c.

E)None of the above is correct.

Q2) When the sample size will represent more than 5-10% of the population,the calculated sample size should be increased by the finite population correction factor.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Precision refers to the degree to which one can feel confident that an estimate approximates the true value.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Collecting the Data: Nonsampling Errors and

Response Rate Calculation

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Q1) While collecting data by conducting personal interviews in homes,Jake interviews the most accessible individual within the household,rather than using random selection.This increases the potential of

A)sampling error.

B)response bias.

C)nonresponse error.

D)office error.

E)Both a and b.

Q2) If we define our population as all households in the city of Chicago,Illinois,and we use the Chicago telephone directory from which to draw our sample units,we would likely have a

A)representative survey.

B)survey containing error.

C)survey with a poorly defined master list.

D)survey with sample frame error.

E)survey with no error.

Q3) Random nonsampling errors tend to cancel each other out.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Discuss at least five (5)ways in which response rates might be improved.

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Chapter 18: Data Analysis: Preliminary Steps

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Q1) If a respondent indicates that he drives a foreign car,then later,in the same questionnaire,identifies it as a Ford,the editor should

A)change the "Ford" identification to "unknown foreign."

B)change the "foreign" identification to "domestic."

C)throw out both responses.

D)determine which of the responses is correct.

E)Any of the above may be correct.

Q2) Which of the following statements about open-ended questions is FALSE?

A)Precoding is not necessary.

B)Response categories are provided for respondents.

C)There are multiple legitimate responses.

D)When categorizing open-ended responses,it is often necessary to include an "other" category.

E)All of the above statements about open-ended questions are true.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a step in coding open-ended responses?

A)Identify separate responses given by each individual.

B)Specify categories into which the responses can be placed.

C)Place each response into as many categories as possible.

D)Assess the degree of agreement between multiple coders.

E)All of the above are steps in the process of coding open-ended responses.

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Chapter 19: Data Analysis: Analyzing Individual Variables

and Basics of Hypothesis Testing

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Q1) For which of the following types of measures does the mean NOT provide a meaningful value?

A)Ratio

B)Equal-interval scales

C)Interval

D)Ordinal

E)Continuous measures

Q2) Discuss the most commonly used descriptive statistics.

Q3) The one-tailed test is commonly used in marketing research because

A)there is typically some hypothesized or preferred direction to the outcome.

B)it is more powerful statistically than the two-tailed alternative.

C)it is easier to calculate than the two-tailed alternative.

D)Both a and b.

E)a,b,and c.

Q4) In using percentages for reporting results it is reasonable to report percentages to two decimal places.

A)True

B)False

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Q5) The hypothesis that a proposed result is not true for the population is called the ____________________ hypothesis.

Chapter 20: Data Analysis: Analyzing Multiple Variables

Simultaneously

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Q1) Which of the following statements about regression/correlation analysis is FALSE?

A)Correlation analysis involves the measurement of the closeness of the relationship between two or more variables.

B)Regression analysis involves the derivation of an equation that relates the criterion variable to one or more predictor variables.

C)Regression analysis can establish the causal relationship between two or more variables.

D)The regression line minimizes the sum of the squared deviations about the line.

E)It is much more common to conduct regression analyses using a computer.

Q2) A factorial design is an ANOVA analysis that includes two or more dependent variables.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A statistical technique used with a continuous dependent variable and one or more categorical independent variables is called a(n)____________________.

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Chapter 21: The Research Report

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Q1) Pie charts are useful for illustrating trend relationships.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Completeness of the research report should be evaluated from the perspective of the A)researcher.

B)data collected.

C)reader.

D)data analyst.

E)report writer.

Q3) When preparing an oral/verbal presentation,the first task of the presenter should be to

A)determine who will be in the audience.

B)develop graphical presentation aids.

C)decide on the organization of the presentation.

D)test the sound system where the presentation will take place.

E)write the verbal portion of the presentation.

Q4) Distinguish between a conclusion and a recommendation.

Q5) Completeness of the research report should be evaluated from the perspective of the ____________________.

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