Advertising and Promotion Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Advertising and Promotion explores the principles, strategies, and tactics used to communicate persuasive messages about products, services, and ideas to target audiences. The course covers the fundamentals of advertising, including message development, media selection, creative execution, and campaign planning, as well as the integration of promotional tools such as sales promotion, public relations, direct marketing, and digital media. Through case studies and real-world examples, students gain insight into consumer behavior, branding, and the regulatory and ethical issues surrounding advertising practices. The goal is to equip students with practical skills for developing effective, integrated marketing communications that build brand awareness, engagement, and loyalty.
Recommended Textbook
Exploring Marketing Research 11th Edition by Barry J. Babin
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Chapter 1: The Role of Marketing Research
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Q1) Which approach focuses on using knowledge and evidence to reach objective conclusions about the real world?
A)qualitative method
B)integrated analysis
C)scientific method
D)production analysis
Answer: C
Q2) Asking target market members to compare the performance of a prototype of a possible new product to the performance of a competitor's product is an example of which type of research?
A)distribution research
B)copy testing
C)promotion research
D)product testing
Answer: D
Q3) The term ____________________ is sometimes used to refer to a channel of distribution.
Answer: supply chain
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Chapter 2: Information Systems and Knowledge Management
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Q1) A party that maintains Web sites on the World Wide Web is called a content provider.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Timeliness means that the data are not more than a few years old.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) An organization's mailing list of current customers is an example of a ____.
A)cookie
B)script
C)database
D)hyperlink
Answer: C
Q4) Data files in cloud storage can only be accessed through a company's Intranet.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Marketing Research Process
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Q1) Concomitant variation is sufficient evidence to determine causality in experiments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which type of research is being conducted when a researcher conducts an experiment to answer the question,"Will consumers purchase more of our brand if we change the package design?"
A)causal research
B)exploratory research
C)pilot study research
D)descriptive research
Answer: A
Q3) A market opportunity is a situation that makes some potential competitive advantage possible.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A formal statement explaining some outcome is called a(n)____________________.
Answer: hypothesis
Page 5
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Chapter 4: The Human Side of Marketing Research:
Organizational and Ethical
Issues
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Q1) 3-M Corporation puts together teams of employees from various disciplines such as engineering,production,finance,and marketing who share a common purpose,such as new-product development.These types of teams are referred to as ____.
A)cross-functional teams
B)syndicated teams
C)synergistic teams
D)focus groups
Q2) Telemarketing is conducted under the "guise" of a research study is called ____________________.
Q3) Often the term "doer" is used by the research department to refer to line management for whom services are being performed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define marketing ethics and explain how it applies to marketing research.
Q5) One advantage of conducting research in-house is cheaper costs.
A)True
B)False
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Q6) ____________________ means that information involved in the research will not be shared with others.
Chapter 5: Qualitative Research Tools
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Q1) Betsy and six other women are participating in a research study that is an unstructured,free-flowing interview.The researcher asked the group their feelings about hair care products in general and asked them to discuss these freely.Betsy is participating is ____.
A)case study
B)grounded research study
C)depth interview
D)focus group interview
Q2) Which approach to probing asks respondents to compare differences between brands at different levels?
A)interrogating
B)elaborating
C)linking
D)laddering
Q3) All of the following are qualitative research orientations EXCEPT ____.
A)phenomenology
B)grounded theory
C)case studies
D)regression analysis
Q4) The typical ethnographic approach involves the use of
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Chapter 6: Secondary Data Research in a Digital Age
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Q1) Using secondary data to study relationships between two variables is an example of ____________________.
Q2) Explain the three broad objectives that can be achieved using secondary data and give an example of each.
Q3) Marketing researchers frequently use internal accounting data to generate sales forecasts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a researcher compares secondary data from one source with data from another source,the researcher is doing a(n)____.
A)data transformation
B)cross-check
C)data mining
D)data enhancement
Q5) A disadvantage to secondary data is that they were not designed specifically to meet the objectives of the current project.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Identify various internal and proprietary sources of secondary data.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Survey Research
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Q1) Comparing the sample demographics with the demographics of the target population provides one means of checking for potential response bias.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of bias occurs when respondents tend to answer questions with a certain slant?
A)interviewer bias
B)self-selection bias
C)self-preservation bias
D)response bias
Q3) Which type of bias is occurring when a respondent tells the interviewer that he reads The Wall Street Journal on a daily basis so that he can impress the interviewer?
A)interviewer bias
B)auspices bias
C)administrative bias
D)acquiescence bias
Q4) Define surveys and describe the type of information that may be gathered in a survey.
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Chapter 8: Observation
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Q1) Researchers can observe people or events with human observers or with machines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are directly observable phenomena EXCEPT ____.
A)attitudes
B)verbal behavior
C)spatial relations and locations
D)neurological activity
Q3) _____ are things that people made and consumed within a culture that signal something meaningful about the behavior taking place at the time of consumption.
A)Trace elements
B)Artifacts
C)Inventories
D)Physiological responses
Q4) A mechanical device that measures the electrical resistance of the skin is called a(n)____________________.
Q5) Observation that involves watching and recording what naturally occurs,without creating an artificial situation,is called ____________________ observation.
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Chapter 9: Conducting Marketing Experiments
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Q1) Experimental treatments are administered to the control group.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are demand characteristics and why are they a concern for researchers? Discuss four ways of reducing demand characteristics.
Q3) Salespeople are tested one year after a sales training program and perform better on the exam,not because of the training program,but because they have gained one year's experience in sales.Which type of effect has occurred?
A)selection effect
B)maturation effect
C)history effect
D)cohort effect
Q4) When the person administering experimental procedures influences the subjects' behavior or sways them to slant their answers to cooperate with him or her,____ has occurred.
A)experimenter bias
B)response bias
C)Type I error
D)Type II error
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Chapter 10: Measurement and Attitude Scaling
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Q1) Correspondence analysis is the process of identifying scale devices that correspond to properties of a concept involved in a research process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Interval scales are able to represent absolute quantities including a meaningful absolute zero.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Semantic differential scales can be scored using the following values,in order: -3,-2,-1,0,+1,+2,+3
A)True
B)False
Q4) Measures that assign values anywhere along some scale range in a place that corresponds to the intensity of some concept are called ____________________ measures.
Q5) Discriminant validity is another way of expressing internal consistency.
A)True B)False
Q6) What is reliability and how is it assessed?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Questionnaire Design
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Q1) There exists a step-by-step process for ensuring accuracy in the wording of questions in surveys.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When respondents think that recent events took place longer ago than they really did,what type of error is occurring?
A)telescoping
B)squishing
C)faltering
D)misredemption
Q3) A question that "screens out" respondents because they do not qualify to answer a subsequent question (e.g.asking "Do you own a DVD player?" before asking the brand of DVD player)is called a(n)____________________ question.
Q4) "Should Dillard's keep its excellent department store credit card program? ____ Yes
____ No" is an example of ____.
A)using a branching question
B)making an assumption
C)a double-barreled question
D)using a checklist
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Chapter 12: Sampling Designs and Sampling Procedures
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Q1) When an Internet user gives permission to Southwest Airlines to e-mail special price promotions as they are announced,the user has decided to ____________________ for this type of database communication.
Q2) Which probability sampling technique is economically efficient and uses a group of elements as the primary sampling unit?
A)simple random
B)snowball
C)cluster
D)quota
Q3) Systematic sampling can,under certain conditions,yield a random sample.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name and describe the types of nonprobability sampling.
Q5) Larger samples allow conclusions to be drawn with more confidence that they truly represent the population.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast random sampling and systematic (nonsampling)errors.
Q7) Judgment sampling is a type of ____________________ sampling.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Big Data Basics: Describing Samples and Populations
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Q1) An estimate of the population mean in the form of a single value,usually the sample mean,is called a ____.
A)confidence interval estimate
B)standard deviation
C)point estimate
D)variant
Q2) Measured characteristics of a specific population are called ____________________.
Q3) The ____ is a measure of dispersion.
A)mean
B)proportion
C)range
D)mode
Q4) Which of the following eliminates the drawback of having the measure of dispersion in squared units rather than in the original measurement units?
A)standard deviation
B)variance
C)deviation
D)mean
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Chapter 14: Basic Data Analysis
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Q1) The researcher who uses a sample rather than the entire population runs the risk of committing two types of errors: primary errors and secondary errors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Scores or observations recalibrated to indicate how they relate to a base number are called ____________________ numbers.
Q3) The number of respondents or observations (in a row or column)used as a basis for computing percentages in a contingency table is referred to as the ____.
A)reference point
B)moderator
C)statistical base
D)analytical point
Q4) The process of changing data from its original form to a format that more closely matches the research objectives of the study is called data
Q5) What is a contingency table and how is it useful in marketing research?
Q6) What are descriptive statistics and why are they used in marketing research?
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Chapter 15: Testing for Differences Between Groups and for
Predictive Relationships
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Q1) A researcher hypothesizes that males and females differ with respect to attitude toward sports sponsorships.To investigate this hypothesis that these two groups' attitudes differ,the researcher will use a ____.
A)bivariate test of differences
B)univariate test of differences
C)multivariate test of differences
D)cluster analysis
Q2) In using the Z-test for comparing two proportions,the null hypothesis is typically stated as ____.
A) = .
B) .
C) x = 1
D) - = 1
Q3) The F-test partitions total variance into ____________________ variance and ____________________ variance.
Q4) One way to test the significance of the relationship shown in a contingency tables is by means of the chi-square test.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Communicating Research Results
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Q1) The ____________________briefly explains why the research project was conducted,what aspects of the problem were considered,what the outcome was,and what should be done.
Q2) In general,a pie chart should have,at most,six "slices."
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a researcher uses pictures,tables,or charts to clarify complex points or emphasize a message in a research report,he or she is using ____.
A)verbal elements
B)medium elements
C)graphic aids
D)formalizers
Q4) Thorough preparation and practice for an oral presentation of a research report is one of the keys to an effective presentation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The diagrams included in the research report that are used to clarify complex points are known as ____________________.
Q6) Discuss what is included in the body of a research report.
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Chapter 17: Beyond the Basics in Basic Data Analysis
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Q1) Explain how planned comparisons are different from post-hoc comparisons.
Q2) The total sum of squares minus the within-group sum of squares is equal to the between-group sum of squares.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which procedure tests that statistical significance of all possible group differences between means even when no hypothesis about such differences exists?
A)internal comparison
B)non-experimental comparison
C)planned comparison
D)post-hoc comparison
Q4) Which comparison tests differences between specific cells in an experimental design that is based on some specific hypothesized condition corresponding to that contrast?
A)internal comparison
B)non-experimental comparison
C)planned comparison
D)post-hoc comparison
Q5) Explain how a factorial design is different from a one-way ANOVA.
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Chapter 18: Advanced Topics in Linear Analytics
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Q1) A(n)____________________ relationship exists when the value of one variable goes up while the value of the other variable goes down.
Q2) The ordinary least-squares method of regression analysis is based on the logic of how much better a regression line can predict values of Y compared to simply using the mean as a prediction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which VIF value would cause a researcher to suspect multicollinearity?
A)0.0
B)0.5
C)1.0
D)5.0
Q4) Standardized variables are generated by subtracting the mean of a variable from each observation and multiplying the result by the standard deviation of that variable.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The square of the correlation coefficient is called the ____________________.
Q6) Discuss the steps in regression analysis when a researcher's goal is to explain.
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Chapter 19: Testing Hypotheses With Glm Procedures
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Q1) Which process examines the change in a models' predictive power at each step?
A)moderation
B)bootstrapping
C)hierarchical regression
D)slopes testing
Q2) A multiple regression containing the independent variable,moderator,and interaction term could present problems with multicollinearity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A direct effect assesses the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable where the hypothesis suggests that the relationship depends on some other variable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which term refers to a relationship with two parts?
A)tautology
B)direct effect
C)indirect effect
D)partial mediation
Q5) Explain when partial mediation versus complete mediation occurs.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Introducing Multivariate Data Analysis
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Q1) A discriminant score provides a way of assigning observations to groups.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which formula is the correct formula for a logit?
A)Logiti = ln(probability of success/probability of failure)
B)Logiti = ln(probability of success*probability of failure)
C)Logiti = ln(probability of success/probability of failure)2
D)Logiti = ln(1/probability of failure)2
Q3) Interval and ratio scales are referred to as nonmetric scales.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In logistic regression,the dependent variable takes on a value of zero to indicate
A)success
B)occurrence
C)failure
D)frequency
Q5) MANCOVA is a variation of MANOVA that can include interval or ratio covariates.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Multivariate Data Analysis: Analytics With
Interdependence Techniques
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Q1) A(n)____ is a number of observations sharing characteristics associated with some outcome of interest.
A)factor loading
B)dimension
C)segment
D)factor
Q2) A number of observations sharing characteristics associated with some outcome of interest is referred to as a(n)____________________.
Q3) Which variance is indicated for the composite scale of four items with the following loadings: 0.7,-0.7,0.8,0.9?
A)0.61
B)0.73
C)1.72
D)3.48
Q4) In cluster analysis,each cluster should have low internal homogeneity and high external heterogeneity.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) A(n)____________________ graphs eigenvalues against the number of factors.
Chapter 22: Primer on Structural Equations Modeling
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Q1) SEM uses the term moment to represent a unique piece of information that serves as input to the model.
A)True
B)False
Q2) SEM conventionally uses maximum likelihood estimation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ____ is a unique piece of information that serves as input to a SEM model.
A)LISREL
B)AMOS
C)moment
D)fit
Q4) Which CFI value indicates that a model is a relatively poor fit?
A)0.01
B)0.5
C)0.75
D)0.98
Q5) Multidimensional scaling is a type of dependence method. A)True
B)False
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