Advanced Surgical Technology
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Surgical Technology explores the latest innovations and techniques in the field of surgical practice, focusing on the integration of cutting-edge devices, minimally invasive procedures, and digital tools in the operating room. This course examines the principles and application of robotic surgery, computer-assisted interventions, and advanced imaging modalities, alongside discussions of surgical equipment sterilization, safety protocols, and workflow optimization. Students will gain an in-depth understanding of how technology enhances precision, patient outcomes, and efficiency in modern surgical environments, and will critically analyze ethical considerations and the future trajectory of surgical technology.
Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Classification of cell saver, medical lab, radiology, EEG, and orthopedic technicians, and other hospital employees
A)Resume
B)Surgical assistant
C)Job description
D)Organizational structure
E)Career ladder
F)Role
G)Allied Health
H)Feedback
I)Intraoperative case management
J)Problem-solving skills
Answer: G
Q2) Which federal regulatory agency is dedicated to enforcing workplace safety and preventing worker injuries?
A) ANSI
B) EPA
C) FDA
D) OSHA
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is establishing a neutral zone designed to do?
A) diffuse potential violence in high-stress situations
B) prevent sharps injuries during surgical procedures
C) reduce cross-contamination in the OR suite
D) quarantine patients with airborne diseases
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an intentional tort pertaining to surgical patient care?
A) A patient suffers a burn due to hot instruments.
B) Restraints are used on a patient who threatens to leave.
C) A tissue specimen is misplaced by a transporter.
D) A retained surgical sponge is discovered in subsequent procedure.
Answer: B
Q3) A special consent form would be required for which of the following situations during a hospital admission?
A) chest x-ray
B) phlebotomy
C) respiratory therapy
D) surgical procedure
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a form of advance directive?
A) do not resuscitate (DNR)
B) durable power of attorney
C) donation after cardiac death
D) document of self-actualization
Answer: D
Q2) SIDS (formerly known as "crib death") is categorized as which general category of cause of death?
A) accidental
B) prolonged
C) sudden
D) terminal
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following diagnoses is currently used in most jurisdictions of the world to define a state of irreversible death?
A) higher brain death
B) myocardial infarction
C) respiratory arrest
D) whole brain death
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with developmental delays may suffer cognitive disabilities, but may also exhibit normal intelligence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Multiple sclerosis, lupus erythematosus, and rheumatoid arthritis are examples of:
A) autoimmune diseases
B) congenital anomalies
C) demyelinating processes
D) hereditary disorders
Q3) High- or low-velocity projectiles are factors in which type of injuries?
A) blunt
B) electrical
C) hypothermia
D) penetrating
Q4) Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of which body system?
A) cardiovascular
B) endocrine
C) genitourinary
D) integumentary
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Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristic of surgical overhead lights allows the surgeon to differentiate between the colors of arterial and venous blood or subtle color changes in tissues?
A) lightbulbs that give fluorescent light
B) lightbulbs that approximate sunlight
C) adjustable tracks for repositioning lights
D) spot focus with dark center to prevent glaring
Q2) Frozen section biopsies are sent to which hospital department for analysis?
A) CT scan
B) nuclear medicine
C) pathology
D) sterile processing
Q3) The post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) was previously often referred to as:
A) holding
B) isolation
C) outpatient
D) recovery
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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the device that has right and left buttons and a roller, and may be a wired or wireless part of a computer used to point and click to items on the monitor?
A) keyboard
B) mouse
C) processor
D) scanner
Q2) Which of the following terms is defined as the number of ways that a robotic manipulator can move?
A) degrees of freedom
B) resolution
C) sensitivity
D) telepresence
Q3) During routine robotic surgery procedures, where is the surgeon?
A) sitting on the contralateral side of the OR table from the surgical site
B) standing on the operative side of the OR table
C) sitting at the robotic console separate from the OR table
D) standing between the patient's legs, which are in low-lithotomy stirrups
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Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contamination caused by passage of microorganisms through a sterilized package by way of moisture wicking is termed:
A) saturation
B) strike-through
C) solubilization
D) sequestration
Q2) The Bowie-Dick test is performed for which sterilization method?
A) ethylene oxide gas
B) activated glutaraldehyde
C) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
D) prevacuum air removal steam
Q3) When nested basin sets are being sterilized, how should they be placed in the steam sterilizer?
A) fold side down with a towel used to separate them
B) fold side down with tape holding them together securely
C) facing upright with a towel used to separate them
D) facing upright with tape holding them together securely
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Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 20101 AHA Guidelines for CPR stress activation of the ERS and follow:
A) CAB (chest compressions, airway, breathing)
B) ABC (airway, breathing, chest compressions)
C) BCA (breathing, chest compressions, airway)
D) none of the above
Q2) Which of the following substance is least likely to cause an anaphylactic reaction:
A) certain antibiotics
B) insulin
C) contrast media
D) benadryl
Q3) Which of the following accounts for up to 90% of contamination and should be removed as soon as possible after exposure to a radiological disaster?
A) ash
B) clothing
C) dust
D) hair
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Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which governmental regulatory agency has oversight of pharmaceutical companies?
A) EPA
B) FDA
C) NIH
D) OSHA
Q2) Which drug is an anticoagulant antagonist used to reverse the effects of heparin?
A) naloxone HCl
B) dantrolene sodium
C) sodium bicarbonate
D) protamine sulfate
Q3) Drugs used for prophylaxis relieve pain or other symptoms of a disease process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Extreme caution should be exercised when using which of the following for localized anesthesia of fingers, toes, or the penis, or in neonates?
A) bupivacaine
B) epinephrine
C) hyaluronidase
D) mepivacaine
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Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Instruments should be handed to the surgeon in a functional manner that allows the surgeon to use it without repositioning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The three lumens of a three-way Foley catheter are used for balloon inflation, urinary drainage, and:
A) continuous irrigation
B) decompression of the urethra
C) extraction of calculi
D) insufflation of carbon dioxide
Q3) What do Broviac and Hickman catheters do?
A) decompress the bladder
B) instill contrast media into the biliary system
C) monitor central venous pressure changes
D) provide access for peritoneal dialysis
Q4) By what action does a "cigarette" drain remove fluid from a wound?
A) active
B) capillary
C) suction
D) wicking
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which internal stapling device fires a circular double row of staples to reanastomose the colon?
A) intraluminal stapler
B) linear cutter
C) linear stapler
D) ligating clip applier
Q2) Which of the following sutures has comparatively inconsistent tensile strength and rapid absorption rate in vivo with moderate tissue reaction?
A) plain surgical gut
B) poliglecaprone
C) polyglyconate
D) polydioxanone
Q3) Tourniquets provide permanent mechanical hemostasis and enhance visualization by creating a bloodless field.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Avitene, Gelfoam, and Surgicel are examples of mechanical methods of hemostasis.
A)True
B)False
13
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) An assistant may be needed to properly perform which type of surgical skin prep?
A) circumferential extremity
B) midline vertical abdominal
C) two-step prep with scrub and paint
D) vaginal/perineal prep in lithotomy position
Q2) When turning the sterile gown, what is handed to the circulator that completes the gowning process?
A) gloved hand
B) glove wrapper
C) gown tab or card
D) gown wrapper
Q3) Which of the following are NOT considered countable items for potential of retained foreign objects?
A) dressings
B) instruments
C) sharps
D) sponges
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Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a common component of many contrast media that may be a contraindication for use in allergic patients?
A) iodine
B) sodium
C) calcium salts
D) radionuclides
Q2) Difference of optical density in a radiograph that results from a difference in radiolucency or penetrability
A)Fluoroscopy
B)Rad
C)Pulse oximeter
D)Signs
E)Digital subtraction
F)Palpation
G)Retrograde
H)Urinalysis
I)CAT scan
J)Contrast
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15
Chapter 14: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hepatic and splenic flexures are located proximally and distally in which part of the large intestine?
A) ascending
B) descending
C) sigmoid
D) transverse
Q2) In which of the following abdominal incisions would the linea alba be opened down to the peritoneum?
A) Kocher subcostal
B) McBurney
C) median vertical
D) transverse
Q3) Which type of hernia occurs below the abdominocrural crease and more frequently in females?
A) femoral
B) epigastric
C) direct inguinal
D) indirect inguinal
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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vaultlike recess in the upper part of the vagina caused by the protrusion of the uterine cervix into the vagina
A)LEEP
B)Fornix
C)Resectoscope
D)Primipara
E)Leiomyoma
F)Eclampsia
G)Cannulation
H)Meconium
I)Pouch of Douglas
J)Dyspareunia
Q2) In which of the following procedures would the patient be left without a vagina or any of the female reproductive organs and have a permanent colostomy and ileostomy?
A) cerclage
B) colporrhaphy
C) exenteration
D) marsupialization
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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hereditary, progressive, noninflammatory disease of the anterior surface of the eye; diagnostic indication for keratoplasty
A)Diopter
B)Beaver
C)Aperture
D)Canthus
E)Vitrector
F)Split
G)Diplopia
H)Corneal dystrophy
I)Tarsal plate
J)Trabecular meshwork
Q2) Which structure has four layers: epithelial cells, substantia propria, elastic lamina, and endothelial cells?
A) cornea
B) crystalline lens
C) macula
D) retina
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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the sharp-tipped, handheld retractor that can be either single or double and often is found in nasal trays?
A) Aufricht
B) Joseph
C) Senn
D) Weitlaner
Q2) The process of cutting up tissue into small pieces to extract it through a small opening
A)Morcellatioin
B)Hypertrophy
C)Audiography
D)Oval window
E)Lukens tube
F)Electronystagmography
G)Organs of Corti
H)Hyperextension
I)Choanal atresia
J)Eustachian tube
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19
Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hemostatic agent is used during oral and maxillofacial procedures that requires advising the anesthesia provider of its use?
A) absorbable collagen
B) bone wax
C) epinephrine
D) topical thrombin
Q2) Odontectomy procedures are given a wound classification of Class II.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are configurations of fixation plates for maxillofacial fracture reduction EXCEPT:
A) H
B) L
C) W
D) Y
Q4) Tapping of bone is done in fixation procedures to reduce:
A) number of screws needed
B) torque pressure on screws
C) size of fixation plate used
D) need to strip periosteum first
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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding routine prepping for skin graft procedures is CORRECT?
A) Donor site is prepped first and considered clean.
B) Donor site is prepped last and considered contaminated.
C) Recipient site is prepped first and considered contaminated.
D) Recipient site is prepped last and considered clean.
Q2) Which of the following bones make up the palm of the hand?
A) carpals
B) metacarpals
C) phalanges
D) radii
Q3) Which type of grafted tissue would have skin sensation preserved?
A) free flap
B) full thickness
C) pedicle flap
D) split thickness
Q4) Patients with cleft palates may have difficulty sucking, swallowing, or forming sounds.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which surgical approach would the latissimus dorsi, internal and external oblique muscles be transected for access to the operative site?
A) inguinal oblique
B) suprapubic
C) subcostal flank
D) transverse abdominal
Q2) Dialysis and kidney transplant are the only two treatments for which of the following?
A) end-stage renal disease
B) testicular carcinoma
C) type I diabetes mellitus
D) Wilms' tumor
Q3) Surgical technologists are not required to be proficient in endoscopic genitourinary procedures, only open cases because there are cystoscopy specialists who will do them.
A)True
B)False
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22
Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Liston knife, Gigli saw, and Satterlee saw are examples of instruments used for which type of procedure?
A) ACL repair
B) amputation
C) arthroplasty
D) arthroscopy
Q2) What is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint?
A) acromium
B) acetabulum
C) tuberosity
D) trochanter
Q3) The proximal end of the radius and C1 on C2 vertebrae are examples of which type of diarthrosis?
A) gliding
B) hinge
C) pivot
D) saddle
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Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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Q1) What is the name of the device used for patients who are unable to be weaned off of cardiopulmonary bypass?
A) intra-aortic balloon pump
B) left ventricular vent
C) cardiac pacemaker
D) vena cava filter
Q2) Where is the apex of the heart located within the mediastinum?
A) superiorly on the right side
B) inferiorly on the right side
C) superiorly on the left side
D) inferiorly on the left side
Q3) In which procedure would an incision NOT be required for insertion of the endoscope?
A) bronchoscopy
B) mediastinoscopy
C) pectus excavatum via VATS
D) video-assisted thoracic surgery
Q4) The ventricles of the heart have thicker myocardium than the atria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the artery is responsible for vasoconstriction and vasodilation?
A) tunica adventitia
B) tunica intima
C) tunica media
D) vasa vasorum
Q2) What is the name of the condition that manifests by deep aching pain in the lower extremity during rest periods?
A) capitation
B) coarctation
C) claudication
D) contraction
Q3) Into which vessel is a double-lumen Groshong catheter routinely inserted?
A) right carotid artery
B) right femoral artery
C) right jugular vein
D) right subclavian vein
Q4) Suture pledgets are used to bolster anastomosis sites when tissue is friable.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Q1) Cannulated instrument designed to provide passage for distal catheter in V-P or V-A shunt procedures
A)Paraplegia
B)Brain stem
C)Exothermic
D)Radiculopathy
E)Collateral flow
F)CUSA
G)Bipolar
H)Tunneler
I)Brain abscess
J)Stereotaxis
Q2) Which of the following bilateral paired nerves are the largest in the body and innervate the buttocks and lower extremities?
A) peroneal
B) sciatic
C) trigeminal
D) vagus
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