Advanced Respiratory Care
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Advanced Respiratory Care is designed for students and practicing professionals seeking a deeper understanding of complex respiratory therapies and critical care interventions. The course covers advanced topics such as invasive and non-invasive mechanical ventilation, management of patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), pulmonary diagnostics, hemodynamic monitoring, and advanced airway management. Emphasis is placed on patient assessment, evidence-based practice, and collaborative care in diverse clinical environments. Students will develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills essential for managing patients with severe respiratory failure, integrating current research, technology, and clinical guidelines into care strategies.
Recommended Textbook
Mosbys Respiratory Care Equipment 9th Edition by J. M. Cairo
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Chapter 1: Basic Physics for the Respiratory Therapist
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Sample Questions
Q1) If temperature is constant,which pressure results in the largest volume?
A) 15 mm Hg
B) 760 mm Hg
C) 1520 mm Hg
D) 2000 mm Hg
Answer: A
Q2) The least amount of kinetic energy is possessed by which one of the following?
A) Air
B) Iron
C) Water
D) Plastic
Answer: B
Q3) The surface tension of a liquid:
A) does not vary with temperature.
B) increases as temperature increases.
C) increases as temperature decreases.
D) decreases as temperature increases.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Principles of Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is useful in identifying which family of microorganisms?
A) Streptococci
B) Mycobacterium
C) Staphylococci
D) Pseudomonas
Answer: B
Q2) An oxygen atom can be added to acetic acid to form an excellent disinfectant with sterilization capabilities.This disinfecting agent is:
A) peroxide.
B) peroxidic acid.
C) peracetic acid.
D) acetic peroxide.
Answer: C
Q3) Opportunistic fungal infections are typically caused by which of the following?
A) Pneumocystis carinii
B) Aspergillus fumigatus
C) Histoplasma capsulatum
D) Haemophilus haemolyticus
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Manufacture, Storage, and Transport of Medical Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following type(s)of air compressors is (are)used in bulk supply systems?
1)Piston
2)Rotary
3)Liquid air
4)Diaphragm
A) 1 and 4
B) 1 and 3
C) 1 and 2
D) 2
Answer: C
Q2) A cylinder has "DOT 3AL 2015" stamped on it.What does the 3AL stand for?
A) Manufacturer's initials
B) Constructed of heat-treated, high-strength steel
C) Required to undergo hydrostatic testing every 3 years
D) Constructed of specially prescribed seamless aluminum alloys
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Administering Medical Gases: Regulators,
Flowmeters, and
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Sample Questions
Q1) In theory,a nasal cannula can deliver what amount of F O to a patient?
A) 0.24 to 0.60
B) 0.24 to 0.36
C) 0.24 to 1.00
D) 0.24 to 0.44
Q2) The total flow for a 35% air-entrainment mask running at 10 L/min is _____ L/min.
A) 43
B) 53
C) 60
D) 65
Q3) Which of the following are advantages of nasal cannula use?
1)They are cost-effective.
2)They deliver precise F O .
3)The patient can eat,speak,and drink with the cannula in place.
4)Pressure necrosis will not occur.
A)1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 3 and 4
6
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Chapter 5: Airway Management Devices and Advanced
Cardiac Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inability to maintain an adequate mask seal during manual ventilation will cause:
A) gastric distention.
B) pressures to exceed 40 cm H O.
C) lower tidal volumes to be delivered.
D) tidal volumes to exceed 800 mL.
Q2) Two cuffs are incorporated into which of the following artificial airways?
A) Combitube
B) Berman airway
C) Endotracheal tube
D) Laryngeal mask airway
Q3) High positive airway pressure can be maintained with which of the following airways?
A) Guedel airway
B) Laryngeal mask airway
C) Nasopharyngeal airway
D) Endotracheal tube airway
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Chapter 6: Humidity and Aerosol Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about the delivery of warm,humidified gas to the lungs?
A) The gas delivered to the nose or mouth contains 95% relative humidity and has an absolute humidity of 28 mg/L to 34 mg/L at 29° C to 32° C.
B) The gas delivered to the hypopharynx contains 50% relative humidity and has an absolute humidity level of 10 mg/L at 22° C.
C) The gas delivered to the midtrachea contains 50% relative humidity and has an absolute humidity level of 36 mg/L to 40 mg/L at 31° C to 35° C.
D) The gas delivered to the midtrachea contains 100% relative humidity and has an absolute humidity level of 36 mg/L to 40 mg/L at 31° C to 35° C.
Q2) A patient reports a dry nose and throat.He is receiving 6 L of O through a nasal cannula. Which of the following is most appropriate to address the patient's dry nose and throat?
A) Decrease the oxygen flow rate to 3 L.
B) Add a low-flow bubble humidifier.
C) Suggest an aerosol treatment with a mucolytic agent.
D) Take no action.
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Chapter 7: Lung Expansion Therapy Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients undergoing positive expiratory pressure therapy must have a high enough expiratory flow to generate pressure in the range of _____ cm H O.
A) 5 to 10
B) 10 to 20
C) 20 to 25
D) 25 to 30
Q2) Which of the following uses magnetism versus gas pressure as its basic principle of operation?
A) Bird Mark 14 ventilator
B) Puritan Bennett PR-2 ventilator
C) The Vest Airway Clearance System (also known as the ThAIRapy Vest)
D) Percussionaire Intrapulmonary Percussive Ventilator (IPV-1)
Q3) At the beginning of inspiration,gas flow to the patient from a Bird Mark 7 or 8 set on "air-mix" comes from which of the following?
A) Venturi device
B) Flow controller
C) Diluter regulator
D) Pneumatic cartridge
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Chapter 8: Assessment of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a volume-collecting device?
A) Turbine flowmeter
B) Thermal anemometer
C) Dry rolling seal spirometer
D) Pressure pneumotachograph
Q2) Which of the following values is not measured directly?
A) FEV
B) Airway resistance (Raw)
C) Peak expiratory flows
D) Maximum inspiratory pressure
Q3) Measuring the energy needs of patients is known as which of the following?
A) Oximetry
B) Calorimetry
C) Capnography
D) Spectroscopy
Q4) The expected respiratory quotient of a patient with severe sepsis is:
A) 0.7.
B) 0.8.
C) 1.0.
D) >1.0.
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Chapter 9: Assessment of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a type of pressure transducer that uses a metal bellows and a Wheatstone bridge?
A) Resistive (or resistance)
B) Strain gauge
C) Variable inductance
D) Variable capacitance
Q2) The ability of certain specialized cells of the heart to depolarize spontaneously is known as which of the following?
A) Diastasis
B) Excitability
C) Automaticity
D) Conductivity
Q3) The heart block that causes "dropped" beats and that is often the result of increased parasympathetic tone is called _____ block.
A) Sinoatrial
B) Mobitz type I
C) First-degree atrioventricular
D) Left bundle branch
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11
Chapter 10: Blood Gas Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) A blood sample is analyzed within a Sanz electrode.The voltage difference = 44.90 mV.What is the resultant pH of this blood?
A) 7.11
B) 7.34
C) 7.57
D) 8.18
Q2) Standard bicarbonate is calculated by use of which of the following?
A) Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
B) Two-point calibration method
C) Lambert-Beer law equation
D) Levy-Jennings chart
Q3) Renal failure will cause what acid-base disorder?
A) Respiratory alkalosis
B) Respiratory acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Metabolic acidosis
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Chapter 11: Sleep Diagnostics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea would have which of the following polysomnographic testing results?
A) 8 apnea periods, of 4 to 8 seconds' duration, per hour of sleep and an SpO of 90% to 93%
B) 20 apnea periods, of 5 to 9 seconds' duration, per hour of sleep, with no arousals
C) 15 apnea periods, of 15 to 20 seconds' duration, per hour of sleep and bradycardia
D) 5 apnea periods, of approximately 8 seconds' duration each, per hour of sleep, with snoring
Q2) When monitoring nasal airflow,what is the most common problem associated with the use of the pneumotachograph?
A) Change in temperature of expired gas
B) Variability in expiratory flow rates
C) Requirement to reposition the probe
D) Recalibration of the sensor
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Ventilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the flow rate if the set volume is 550 mL and the inspiratory time is 1.2 second?
A) 27.5 L/min
B) 45.8 L/min
C) 55 L/min
D) 66 L/min
Q2) The ventilator mode that is either patient triggered or time triggered and allows the patient to breathe spontaneously between mandatory ventilator breaths is known as:
A) Pressure-support ventilation
B) Pressure-controlled ventilation
C) Intermittent mandatory ventilation
D) Continuous mandatory ventilation
Q3) Which of the following is a mode of ventilation that is time triggered or patient triggered as well as pressure limited and time cycled?
A) Pressure-support ventilation
B) Pressure-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation
C) Pressure-controlled continuous mandatory ventilation
D) Dual control continuous mandatory ventilation
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14
Chapter 13: Mechanical Ventilators: General-Use Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the maximum pressure limit in the CareFusion AVEA?
A) 80 cm H O
B) 90 cm H O
C) 100 cm H O
D) 120 cm H O
Q2) What mode of ventilation is used on the Dräger V500 to provide a minimum expired volume?
A) Minimum minute volume
B) Augmented ventilation
C) Mandatory minute volume ventilation
D) Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation
Q3) Which of the following is the available range for pressure support on the Maquet Servo ?
A) 0 to (120 cm H O - positive end-expiratory pressure)
B) 0 to (100 cm H O - positive end-expiratory pressure)
C) 0 to (80 cm H O - positive end-expiratory pressure)
D) 0 to (60 cm H O - positive end-expiratory pressure)
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Chapter 14: Infant and Pediatric Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) A low battery charge alarm condition on a CareFusion SiPAP is caused by which of the following?
A) Battery charge is totally drained.
B) Battery charge fell below 75%.
C) Battery charge fell below 40%.
D) Battery voltage fell below 10 V.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning the CareFusion AirLife Nasal CPAP System Driver?
A) The internal oxygen cell analyzes fractional inspired oxygen and automatically calibrates.
B) The desired continuous positive airway pressure level is adjusted by moving a probe in 1-cm increments.
C) Bilevel airway pressure is available to ventilate newborns with apnea of prematurity.
D) The proximal pressure line of the delivery circuit attaches to the port on the front panel.
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16
Chapter 15: Transport, Home Care, and Noninvasive
Ventilatory Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true concerning the antiasphyxia valve of the Uni-Vent 750?
A) The valve opens with a -1 cm H O pressure.
B) The valve opens in the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode for spontaneous breathing.
C) The valve can open in the control mode for spontaneous breathing.
D) The valve functions as the ventilator's demand valve for breath triggering.
Q2) Which of the following is a transport ventilator that can deliver high-frequency ventilation?
A) Percussionaire Bronchotron TXP
B) Impact Uni-Vent Eagle 754
C) Pulmonetic Systems LTV 1200
D) Dräger Oxylog 3000
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning the Puritan Bennett GoodKnight 425 is true?
A) This unit has a leak alarm and a power disconnect alarm.
B) This unit can be used for noninvasive and invasive ventilation.
C) If apneic events are a significant issue, the patient should not use this unit.
D) Oxygen is supplied by a high-pressure hose attached to the back of the unit.
Page 17
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