Advanced Rehabilitation Studies
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Advanced Rehabilitation Studies explores comprehensive approaches to the assessment, planning, and implementation of rehabilitation programs for individuals with complex health conditions or disabilities. The course delves into interdisciplinary theories and evidence-based practices, emphasizing advanced evaluation techniques, therapeutic interventions, and patient-centered care. Students will critically analyze case studies, learn to coordinate care across diverse healthcare teams, and address ethical, cultural, and technological considerations in modern rehabilitation settings. Through applied learning and research-focused assignments, participants gain the expertise required to lead and innovate in rehabilitation science and practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles
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37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1007
D. Ciccone
Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Principles of Pharmacology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19949
Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding drug development and approval,an "orphan drug" is a drug that is A) used exclusively in children
B) prescribed for conditions other than those approved by the FDA
C) given special funding for development because it is used in a small patient population with a relatively rare disease
D) available directly to consumers without a prescription
E) only available in countries outside the United States
Answer: C
Q2) In general,the greater the value of the _______,the safer the drug is considered to be.
A) median effective dose
B) threshold dose
C) therapeutic index (TI)
D) ceiling effect
E) potency index
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics IDrug
Administration,Absorption,and
Distribution
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19950
Sample Questions
Q1) When crossing cell membranes,drugs will diffuse more readily through the lipid layer if they are
A) non-lipid soluble
B) in a neutral, nonionized form
C) in a charged, ionized form
D) large proteins
Answer: B
Q2) The extent to which a drug reaches the systemic circulation is referred to as A) bioequivalence
B) biotransformation
C) bioavailability
D) biodistribution
E) last pass metabolism
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics II: Drug Elimination
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19951
Sample Questions
Q1) Drug oxidation occurs when ______ the original compound.
A) oxygen is added to
B) hydrogen is removed from
C) an endogenous substance such as acetyl coenzyme is coupled to
D) all of the above are true
E) only A and B are true
Answer: E
Q2) The amount of time required for 50 percent of the drug remaining in the body to be eliminated is known as the
A) median effective dose
B) median toxic dose
C) median efficacy
D) median threshold dose
E) half-life
Answer: E
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5
Chapter 4: Drug Receptors
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19952
Sample Questions
Q1) The acetylcholine receptor located on the postsynaptic membrane of the skeletal neuromuscular junction is an example of a membrane receptor that
A) is linked directly to an intracellular enzyme
B) is linked directly to a regulatory G protein
C) functions as an ion channel or pore
D) moves (translocates) to the cell's nucleus when stimulated E) none of the above are true
Q2) Some drugs affect the function of the adenylate cyclase,an enzyme located on the inner surface of the cell membrane.This enzyme is responsible for hydrolyzing adenosine triphosphate (ATP)into _____,which acts as a second messenger that activates other enzymes (i.e.,protein kinases)throughout the cell.
A) adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
B) cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
C) acetylcholine
D) norepinephrine
E) adrenaline
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Chapter 5: General Principles of Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19953
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that must cross the blood brain barrier and enter the brain to exert therapeutic effects will be clinically useful if
A) they are lipophilic
B) they are hydrophilic but are able to enter the brain by active transport or facilitated diffusion
C) they are not subject to active transport enzymes (efflux pumps) that move the drug out of the brain and back into the systemic circulation
D) all the above
E) none of the above
Q2) All of the following substances are considered central nervous system neurotransmitters EXCEPT
A) monoamines such as norepinephrine
B) second messengers such as cyclic AMP
C) amino acids such as glycine
D) hormones such as vasopressin
E) acetylcholine
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Chapter 6: Sedative Hypnotic and Anti-anxiety Agents
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19954
Sample Questions
Q1) When used to treat anxiety disorders,buspirone (BuSpar)acts by increasing the effects of _________ in certain areas of the brain,whereas more traditional antianxiety drugs such as Valium increase the inhibitory effects of _______ in the CNS.
A) GABA; serotonin
B) serotonin; GABA
C) GABA; acetylcholine
D) acetylcholine; serotonin
E) serotonin; dopamine
Q2) Benzodiazepines such as diazepam (Valium)act by increasing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter
A) acetylcholine
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
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8
Chapter 7: Drugs to Treat Affective Disorders Depression and Bipolar Syndrome
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19955
Sample Questions
Q1) Tricyclic antidepressants work by ______ the reuptake of ______ into the presynaptic terminal of certain CNS neurons.
A) increasing; amine neurotransmitters
B) inhibiting; amine neurotransmitters
C) increasing; amino acids
D) inhibiting; amino acids
E) increasing; acetylcholine
Q2) Aside from their antidepressant effects,tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline and nortriptyline may be useful in treating
A) chronic pain syndromes
B) hypertension
C) viral infections
D) bacterial infections
E) gastric ulcers
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Chapter 8: Antipsychotic Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19956
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients taking relatively high doses of the more potent antipsychotics may experience catatonia,stupor,rigidity,tremors,and fever.These symptoms comprise a serious disorder known as
A) Horner's syndrome
B) Brown-Sequard syndrome
C) Charcot's syndrome
D) neuroleptic malignant syndrome
E) general adaptation syndrome
Q2) In addition to their ability to affect dopamine receptors,newer "atypical" antipsychotics also exhibit strong ability to ____ certain CNS _____ receptors.
A) block; serotonin
B) stimulate; serotonin
C) block; norepinephrine
D) stimulate; norepinephrine
E) block; dopamine
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10
Chapter 9: Antiepileptic Drugs
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) It appears that antiseizure medications can be successfully discontinued in a large percentage of people with seizure disorders,especially if these patients
A) have been free of seizures for at least 2 years while on medications
B) have a normal neurologic examination prior to withdrawal
C) were relatively young when the seizures started
D) all the above are true
E) antiseizure drugs can never be discontinued under any circumstances
Q2) Neuropathic pain and certain other chronic pain syndromes may respond to treatment with _____,presumably because these drugs reduce excitation in specific pain pathways in the CNS.
A) amphetamines such as dextroamphetamine
B) antiseizure drugs such as gabapentin (Neurontin) and pregabalin (Lyrica)
C) anticholinergic drugs such as atropine
D) all the above
E) none of the above
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Chapter 10: Pharmacologic Management of Parkinson Disease
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19958
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following characteristics of dopamine agonists are true EXCEPT
A) dopamine agonists cross the blood brain barrier
B) all clinically useful dopamine agonists must be given by parenteral (nonoral) routes
C) the half-life of a dopamine agonist is typically longer than the half-life of levodopa
D) dopamine agonists tend to have a lower risk of dyskinesias and other motor side effects compared to levodopa
E) some dopamine agonists can be administered transdermally by a patch
Q2) To prevent premature conversion of L-dopa to dopamine in the bloodstream,L-dopa is often administered with carbidopa because carbidopa is
A) a dopamine antagonist
B) an anticholinergic drug
C) a cholinesterase inhibitor
D) a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor
E) an antioxidant
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Chapter 11: General Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19959
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about general anesthesia is (are)true?
A) Certain general anesthetics such as propofol can be used to sedate patients in the intensive care unit who are mechanically ventilated
B) most modern anesthetics seems to act on CNS neurons by binding to a specific receptor on that neuron
C) IV and inhaled agents can be used in various combinations to provide "balanced anesthesia" throughout surgery.
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Which of the following general anesthetics is typically administered by inhalation?
A) barbiturate drugs such as thiopental, thiamylal
B) volatile liquids such as desflurane, enflurane,
C) benzodiazepines such as diazepam, lorazepam, and midazolam
D) opioid analgesics such as fentanyl, morphine, and meperidine
E) ketamine
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Chapter 12: Local Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to provide symptomatic relief of minor surface irritation and injury (minor burns,abrasions,and so forth),local anesthetics are typically applied
A) intravenously
B) intrathecally
C) topically
D) by inhalation
Q2) Intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier block)is achieved by
A) injecting a local anesthetic into a peripheral vein located in a selected limb
B) injecting a general anesthetic into a peripheral vein located in a selected limb
C) injecting a local anesthetic into the superior vena cava
D) injecting a local anesthetic into the inferior vena cava
Q3) Local anesthetics can be administered via all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) transdermally
B) subcutaneous infiltration
C) direct injection into the epidural space
D) direct injection into the third ventricle of the brain
E) direct injection into the subarachnoid space
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Chapter 13: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19961
Sample Questions
Q1) Centrally-acting antispasm drugs such as cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)and carisoprodol (Soma)were originally thought to inhibit polysynaptic reflexes in the spinal cord (polysynaptic inhibitors)but these drugs most likely work by producing
A) decreased acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction
B) decreased calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) generalized sedation in the CNS
D) inhibition of myosin ATPase activity
E) increased vasodilation of skeletal muscle vasculature
Q2) Diazepam (Valium)appears to work as a muscle relaxant by increasing the inhibitory effect of ____ on alpha motor neuron activity in the spinal cord.
A) norepinephrine
B) epinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) gamma amino-butyric acid (GABA)
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Chapter 14: Opioid Analgesics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19962
Sample Questions
Q1) Morphine and many other powerful opioids exert their primary analgesic effects by binding to the
A) alpha adrenergic receptor
B) beta adrenergic receptor
C) beta opioid receptor
D) alpha opioid receptor
E) mu opioid receptor
Q2) Methadone is often used to treat opioid addiction because methadone
A) is a strong opioid antagonist
B) has much more severe withdrawal symptoms than other opioids
C) has opioid-like effects even though methadone is not an opioid
D) methadone does not cross the blood-brain barrier
E) none of the above are true
Q3) The source of the naturally occurring opioid (narcotic)analgesics is
A) the foxglove plant
B) the opium poppy
C) St Johns wort
D) leaves from the gingko tree
E) opioid analgesics cannot be derived from natural sources
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19963
Sample Questions
Q1) It has been suggested that aspirin and other NSAIDs _______ be used to treat pain following surgeries such as spinal fusion because these drugs may ______.
A) should not; inhibit bone healing
B) should; inhibit bone healing
C) should not; enhance bone healing
D) should; enhance bone healing
E) should not; cause excessive sedation and psychotropic effects (hallucinations, etc.)
Q2) Which of the following conditions is not normally treated with aspirin or other NSAIDs?
A) mild to moderate pain
B) mild to moderate inflammation
C) fever in adults
D) asthma
E) recurrent heart attacks
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Chapter 16: Pharmacologic Management of Rheumatoid
Arthritis and Osteoarthritis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19964
Sample Questions
Q1) Because they may supply key ingredients needed for the production of articular cartilage and synovial fluid,dietary supplements such as _________ are used by some patients with osteoarthritis.
A) aspirin and acetaminophen
B) prednisone and methylprednisone
C) chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine
D) ibuprofen and ketoprofen
E) glucosamine and chondroitin
Q2) Because of its ability to decrease pain with minimal side effects such as gastric irritation,________ is often considered the drug of choice in mild-to-moderate osteoarthritis.
A) aspirin
B) acetaminophen
C) prednisone
D) cortisone
E) methotrexate
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18
Chapter 17: Patient Controlled Analgesia
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of drug that is self-administered by the patient each time he or she activates a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)device is known as the
A) loading dose
B) demand dose
C) background infusion rate
D) minimal dosage rate
E) maximal dosage rate
Q2) When opioids (e.g.,morphine,meperidine)are administered via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA),a low dose of ____ can be administered along with the opioid to reduce the amount of opioid needed to produce an adequate analgesic effect.
A) an NSAID such as toradol
B) a general anesthetic such as ketamine
C) an antipsychotic such as droperidol
D) an opioid receptor antagonist (blocker) such as naloxone
E) all the above
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19
Chapter 18: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alpha and beta receptors are the two primary subcategories of
A) muscarinic cholinergic receptors
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors
C) dopamine receptors
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) adrenergic
Q2) In most peripheral tissues,sympathetic postganglionic neurons release ____ that binds directly to ____ receptors.
A) epinephrine; adrenergic
B) epinephrine; cholinergic
C) norepinephrine; adrenergic
D) norepinephrine; cholinergic
E) acetylcholine; adrenergic
Q3) A drug that inhibits muscarinic cholinergic receptors will selectively
A) increase sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
B) decrease sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
C) increase parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
D) decrease parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
E) increase responses in all tissues innervated by the autonomic nervous system
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cholinergic Drugs
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholinergic antagonists can be useful in the treatment of the following conditions
EXCEPT
A) motion sickness
B) irritable bowel syndrome
C) overactive urinary bladder
D) tachycardia
E) Parkinson disease
Q2) Because Alzheimer disease is associated with loss of cortical neurons that release acetylcholine,_____ may be helpful in improving cognition and memory during the early stages of this disease.
A) direct cholinergic stimulants
B) indirect cholinergic stimulants
C) direct adrenergic stimulants
D) indirect adrenergic stimulants
E) there are no drugs that are useful during any stage of Alzheimer disease
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21
Chapter 20: Adrenergic Drugs
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adrenergic antagonists that are selective for the beta-1 subtype (i.e.,beta-1 blockers)can be useful in the treatment of
A) high blood pressure
B) heart failure
C) certain cardiac arrhythmias
D) recovery from myocardial infarction
E) all the above are true
Q2) To increase cardiac output,a drug should selectively _____ receptors on the heart.
A) stimulate; alpha-1
B) inhibit; alpha-1
C) stimulate; alpha-2
D) inhibit; alpha-2
E) stimulate; beta-1
Q3) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause
A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
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22
Chapter 21: Antihypertensive Drugs
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19969
Sample Questions
Q1) A sudden severe,life-threatening increase in blood pressure (autonomic crisis)should be treated with A) diuretics
B) alpha-1 agonists
C) alpha-2 antagonists
D) beta-agonists
E) ganglionic blockers
Q2) Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitors can help _____ blood pressure by _____ the formation of angiotensin II.
A) increase; increasing
B) increasing; decreasing
C) decreasing; increasing
D) decrease; decreasing
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Calcium channel blockers can help reduce high blood pressure by
A) stimulating the sinoatrial node in the heart
B) stimulating the atrioventricular node in the heart
C) inhibiting the vasomotor control center in the brainstem
D) inhibiting vascular smooth muscle contraction
E) increasing renal sodium and water excretion
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Angina Pectoris
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aspirin and other antiplatelet drugs are often administered to people with angina pectoris to
A) prevent headache
B) decrease myocardial oxygen demand
C) prevent coronary artery infarction
D) all the above are true
Q2) Variant angina that is caused by coronary artery vasospasm (known also Prinzmetal's ischemia)is best treated with
A) nitrates such as nitroglycerin
B) beta blockers
C) calcium channel blockers
D) alpha-1 agonists
E) alpha-2 antagonists
Q3) To avoid the first pass effect,nitroglycerin can be administered
A) sublingually
B) buccally
C) via transdermal patches
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Treatment of Cardiac Arrhythmias
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7 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcium channel blockers are useful in treating certain cardiac arrhythmias because they
A) decrease the rate of discharge of the SA node
B) increase conduction velocity through the AV node
C) block the effects of catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine) on cardiac tissues
D) inhibit the ability of sodium to excite cardiac membranes
E) none of the above are true; calcium channel blockers are not used to treat arrhythmias
Q2) While attempting to control one type of arrhythmia,antiarrhythmic drugs can exert "proarrhythmic" effects,which are indicated by
A) a delay of 4 to 6 weeks before these drugs become effective
B) common musculoskeletal abnormalities such as skeletal muscle fasciculations
C) their ability to aggravate or initiate other cardiac rhythm abnormalities
D) their ability to aggravate the proton pump in the stomach, resulting in gastric ulcers
E) their ability to increase body temperature and cause fever
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25
Chapter 24: Treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
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11 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In people with heart failure,the best drugs for reducing fluid accumulation and congestion in the lungs and peripheral tissues are
A) alpha blockers
B) beta blockers
C) angiotensin II receptor blockers
D) calcium channel blockers
E) diuretics
Q2) Digitalis and the other cardiac glycosides increase the mechanical pumping ability of the heart by bringing about an increase in _________ concentration.
A) extracellular potassium
B) intracellular potassium
C) extracellular calcium
D) intracellular calcium
E) extracellular sodium
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Coagulation Disorders and Hyperlipidemia
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in the process of having a heart attack due to the sudden formation of an arterial thrombus in his coronary artery.To break up the clot and save the patient's life,the best drug to use is
A) a low-molecular weight heparin (e.g., enoxaparin)
B) a fibrinolytic drug (e.g. streptokinase or tPA)
C) a fibrinolysis inhibitor (e.g., aminocaproic acid)
D) warfarin (Coumadin)
E) vitamin K
Q2) Patient taking statins to improve plasma lipid profiles may be at increased risk for statin-induced myopathy if they
A) are elderly
B) have multiple diseases
C) have frail stature
D) are taking immunosuppressant drugs
E) all the above
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) High doses and prolonged or excessive use of nasal decongestants is potentially harmful because these drugs
A) can increase heart rate
B) can increase blood pressure
C) can mimic the effects of the sympathetic nervous system
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Drugs that decrease the viscosity of respiratory secretions are known commonly as _______,whereas drugs that facilitate the production and ejection of mucus are known commonly as ________.
A) expectorants; mucolytics
B) mucolytics; expectorants
C) antihistamines; bronchodilators
D) bronchodilators; antihistamines
E) antitussives; anticholinergics
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Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) To improve the health and well-being of people with cystic fibrosis (CF),____ can be given to ____.
A) digestant preparations that contain pancreatic enzymes and bile salts; improve digestion and absorption of nutrients
B) products that contain deoxyribonuclease enzymes; decrease the viscosity of mucous in the respiratory tract
C) glucocorticoids; decrease inflammation in the airway
D) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs; decrease inflammation in the airway E) all the above
Q2) Natural and synthetic opioid drugs _____ gastrointestinal motility,and are therefore useful in treating _____.
A) increase; diarrhea
B) decrease; diarrhea
C) increase; constipation
D) decrease; constipation
E) none of the above are true; opioids do not affect gastrointestinal motility
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Steroid hormones share a common chemical framework that is derived from
A) proteins such as insulin
B) insulin-like growth factor
C) carbohydrates such as glucose
D) glycogen
E) lipids such as cholesterol
Q2) Hormones released from the posterior pituitary are synthesized by neurons originating in the
A) anterior pituitary
B) intermediate lobe of the pituitary
C) hypothalamus
D) thalamus
E) cerebellum
Q3) A toxin that selectively destroys the alpha cells of the pancreas would impair the production of
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) somatostatin
D) digestive proteases
E) digestive lipases
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Chapter 29: Adrenocorticosteroids
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,steroids alter protein synthesis in responsive cells through a direct effect on the cell's
A) ribosomes
B) nucleus
C) golgi apparatus
D) mitochondria
E) lysosomes
Q2) Prolonged,systemic administration of glucocorticoids can produce
A) osteoporosis
B) muscle wasting
C) hypertension
D) suppression of the adrenal gland
E) all the above are true
Q3) Glucocorticoids are released from the adrenal cortex
A) on a daily basis, usually around 8:00 a.m. in most humans
B) in response to stressful stimuli (trauma, fever, and so forth)
C) in response to adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the anterior pituitary
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Male and Female Hormones
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11 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common form of oral contraceptive or birth control pill typically contains
A) only estrogen
B) only progesterone
C) a fixed amount of estrogen and progesterone in the same pill
D) a pill containing estrogen for the first half of the menstrual cycle, followed by a pill containing progesterone for the second half of the cycle
E) an antiprogestin such as mifepristone
Q2) Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)such as tamoxifen and raloxifene may offer advantages in certain women because these drugs stimulate estrogen receptors on ______ while acting as estrogen antagonists (blockers)on _______.
A) bone and vascular tissues; breast and uterine tissues
B) breast and uterine tissues; skin
C) skin; breast and uterine tissues
D) breast and uterine tissues, bone and vascular tissues
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Parathyroid Drugs: Agents
Affecting Bone Mineralization
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9 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcimimetics like cinacalcet (Sensipar)that mimic the effects of endogenous calcium can help ____ parathyroid hormone (PTH)release,thus helping to ____ excessive bone breakdown in people with parathyroid tumors or other conditions that cause parathyroid hyperactivity.
A) increase; increase
B) increase; decrease C) decrease; decrease D) decrease; increase
E) none of the above; calcium and calcimimetic drugs do not affect the release or effects of PTH
Q2) Parathyroid hormone ______ plasma calcium levels by ______ calcium resorption from bone.
A) increases; increasing B) increases; decreasing C) decreases; decreasing D) decreases; decreasing. E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 32: Pancreatic Hormones and the Treatment of
Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Certain forms of biosynthetic insulin are absorbed more rapidly than regular human insulin because
A) other substances such as acetate or protamine have been added to the insulin molecule in increase absorption
B) zinc has been added to the insulin molecule to increase absorption
C) newer forms of biosynthetic insulin can be administered orally via slow-release or sustained-release preparations
D) the amino acid sequence of the insulin molecule has been altered to allow more rapid absorption
E) none of the above are true
Q2) At the present time,insulin must be administered by parenteral (non-oral)routes because
A) insulin will irritate the stomach
B) insulin will be destroyed during "first-pass" metabolism in the liver
C) the insulin molecule is too large to be absorbed through the gastrointestinal wall
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Infections I: Antibacterial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria can become resistant to antibacterial drugs by
A) developing enzymes that destroy the drug
B) modifying or masking the site where the antibacterial drug typically binds on or within the bacterial cell
C) modifying the bacterial enzymes normally targeted by the drug
D) developing drug efflux pumps that expel the drug from the bacterial cell
E) all the above are true
Q2) To limit the development of bacteria that are resistant to drug therapy,it is encouraged that
A) a broad spectrum drug should be used instead of a narrow spectrum agent
B) antibacterial drugs should be administered even before performing culture and sensitivity tests that identify the pathogenic bacteria
C) antiviral drugs should be administered along with antibacterial agents
D) all the above
E) none of the above
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Chapter 34: Treatment of Infections II: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viral infections are often more difficult to treat than other types of infections because
A) viruses contain organelles (ribosomes, mitochondria, etc.) that are naturally resistant to antiviral drugs
B) virus particles are much larger in size than other infectious microorganisms such as bacteria
C) viruses penetrate into human cells, and cannot be easily killed without harming the human cell
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) In people infected with HIV,highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)typically consists of
A) one reverse transcriptase inhibitor at maximal dosage
B) one protease inhibitor at maximal dosage
C) two drugs, e.g. a RTI plus a protease inhibitor
D) two drugs, e.g. a nonnucleoside RTI plus a nucleoside RTI
E) three drugs, e.g. two nucleoside RTIs and one nonnucleoside RTI
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Infections III: Antifungal and Antiparasitic Drugs
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Q1) Cutaneous and mucocutaneous infections such as tinea (ringworm)infections and candidiasis are typically treated with
A) local or topical antibacterial drugs
B) local or topical antifungal drugs
C) systemic doses of antibacterial drugs
D) systemic doses of antifungal drugs
E) antiviral drugs
Q2) Antifungal drugs are relatively safe when administered _____,but the risk of liver toxicity and other severe side effects increases substantially when these drugs are given
A) topically; orally
B) orally; topically
C) subcutaneously; topically
D) intravenously; subcutaneously
E) systemically; locally
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Chapter 36: Cancer Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most anticancer drugs exert severe and potentially toxic side effects because A) these drugs have a high therapeutic index (TI)
B) most of these drugs are not approved by the FDA
C) most of these drugs do not discriminate between healthy tissues and cancerous cells
D) these drugs all have extremely long half-lives, and tend to accumulate in the body for an extended period of time
E) the threshold dose of these drugs is typically much higher than other drugs
Q2) Some of the newer cancer chemotherapy agents (e.g.,cytokines)are called biological therapies or biological response modifiers because they
A) form strong alkyl bonds within the DNA of the cancerous cell
B) act as false nucleic acid precursors during DNA biosynthesis
C) encourage the body's immune system to fight cancerous cells
D) encourage the mitotic apparatus to function more effectively
E) stimulate the supply of blood and nutrients to the developing tumor
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Chapter 37: Immunomodulating Agents
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Q1) Drugs are used to suppress the immune system
A) to prevent rejection of transplanted organs or tissues
B) to limit immune-mediated damage to the body's tissues
C) to treat autoimmune diseases
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Cyclosporine,an immunosuppressant that is commonly used to prevent organ rejection,is often modified into microemulsion capsules so that
A) the drugs disperses more easily within the GI tract
B) absorption of the drug from the GI tract is more predictable
C) it is not as toxic to the kidneys and other tissues
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Sirolimus,a relatively new immunosuppressant,is especially helpful following kidney transplants because
A) it causes sodium retention
B) it increases renin release from the kidneys
C) it does not reduce glomerular filtration and other aspects of kidney function
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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