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Advanced Project Management delves into the sophisticated methodologies and tools necessary for managing complex projects in dynamic environments. The course explores advanced topics such as strategic project selection, risk analysis, portfolio and program management, agile and hybrid methodologies, and effective stakeholder engagement. Emphasis is placed on integrating project management frameworks with organizational strategy, leveraging data-driven decision-making, and mastering leadership skills required for guiding cross-functional teams. Through case studies, simulations, and real-world scenarios, students develop the ability to anticipate challenges, implement best practices, and deliver successful project outcomes in a competitive global landscape.
Recommended Textbook
Information Technology Project Management 8th Edition by Kathy Schwalbe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ of project management includes quality, scope, time, and cost constraints.
Answer: quadruple constraint
Q2) Projects should be developed in increments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A difference between strategic and tactical goals is that:
A)strategic goals are more specific than tactical goals.
B)tactical goals encompass broader dimensions than strategic goals.
C)tactical goals are more important for a project than strategic goals.
D)strategic goals are long-term in nature whereas tactical goals are short-term.
Answer: D
Q4) _____ is "the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements."
Answer: Project management
Q5) A(n) _____ is "a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually."
Answer: program
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of the agile approach to software development?
A)In the agile method, requirements and?solutions evolve through collaboration.
B)An agile approach sets scope goals, but leaves time and cost goals flexible.
C)Agile is a predictive model of software development.
D)In the agile approach, requirements must be clearly expressed early in the life cycle.
Answer: A
Q2) The _____ life cycle model is suitable for projects in which changes can be incorporated with reasonable cost increases or acceptable time delays.
Answer: spiral
Q3) In a(n) _____ organizational structure, project managers have little or no authority. Answer: functional
Q4) Project managers must take adequate time to identify, understand, and manage relationships with all project stakeholders.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _____ is an important Scrum artifact used to graphically display progress on each sprint during the monitoring and controlling process.
A)WBS
B)sprint backlog
C)burndown chart
D)product backlog
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is true about the agile method?
A)It is often used when a project team can express the scope early in the product life cycle.
B)It is used when a project team wants to provide a potentially shippable product earlier rather than later.
C)It uses several iterations or deliveries of software instead of waiting until the end of the project to provide a product.
D)It is used when project teams want to use the predicative approach to a project.
Answer: C
Q3) A risk register is the output of _____.
Answer: risk identification planning
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Q1) _____ involves identifying and controlling the functional and physical design characteristics of products and their support documentation, and ensures that the descriptions of the project's products are correct and complete.
A)NPV analysis
B)Project management information systems
C)Configuration management
D)Project time management
Q2) Projects that address broad organizational needs are likely to fail.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ involves coordinating all of the other project management knowledge areas throughout a project's life cycle.
Q4) An IT company revises its process parameters in response to complaints from vendors that products were not ready on time. This would be an example of _____.
A)cost forecasting
B)a preventive action
C)defect repairs
D)a corrective action
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) _____ is a document that describes detailed information about each WBS item.
Q2) What is a work breakdown structure? What are the inputs and tools used for creating one?
Q3) The main outputs of _____are the project scope statement and updates to project documents.
Q4) PMI uses the term "_____" to describe each level of work in the WBS.
Q5) _____ involves developing a working replica of the system or some aspect of the system.
Q6) A work package represents one component of the product that the project aims to deliver.
A)True B)False
Q7) The main outputs of scope definition are the _____ and project document updates.
Q8) The scope of a project is clear and specific from the start. A)True B)False
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Q9) A(n) _____ is a table that lists requirements, their various attributes, and the status of the requirements to ensure that all are addressed.

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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ for an activity is the latest possible time an activity might begin without delaying the project finish date.
A)early finish date
B)late finish date
C)late start date
D)early start date
Q2) Which of the following processes in project time management involves identifying the specific tasks that the project team members and stakeholders must perform to produce the project deliverables?
A)Defining activities
B)Sequencing activities
C)Developing the schedule
D)Estimating activity durations
Q3) _____ occurs when a resource works on more than one task at a time.
Q4) A backward pass through the network diagram determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are milestones? Describe.
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Q1) In addition to providing input for budgetary estimates, the process of _____ provides a cost baseline.
Q2) _____ are revenues minus expenditures.
Q3) Budgetary estimates are made even before a project is officially started.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The main outputs of the _____ process are activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates.
Q5) _____ costing helps to see a big-picture view of the cost of a project throughout its life cycle.
Q6) Analogous estimates are the most accurate technique to estimate costs.
A)True
B)False
Q7) If cost variance is a positive number, it means that performing the work costs more than planned.
A)True
B)False
Q8) The _____ index is the ratio of earned value to planned value.
Q9) A cost management plan is a subsidiary of the _____ plan.
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer's intended use.
A)Reliability
B)Performance
C)Maintainability
D)Functionality
Q2) _____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions.
Q3) _____ are the system's special characteristics that appeal to users.
A)Features
B)Outputs
C)Yields
D)Metrics
Q4) The quality assurance process involves taking responsibility for quality throughout the project's life cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____ diagrams trace complaints about quality problems back to the responsible production operations.
Q6) In the DMAIC process, the letter "C" stands for _____.
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Q1) Covey, like Maslow, believes that people have the ability to be _____ and choose their responses to different situations.
Q2) _____ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance.
A)Developing the human resource plan
B)Developing the project team
C)Acquiring the project team
D)Managing the project team
Q3) According to Thamhain and Wilemon, _____ is the ability to improve a worker's position.
A)penalty
B)assignment
C)expertise
D)promotion
Q4) Extrinsic motivation causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____ power is getting people to do things based on a position of authority.
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Q6) What are the five main types of power? Briefly describe each type.
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Q1) Describe the concepts of informal methods for distributing information. How do they compare to formal methods for distributing information?
Q2) Many experts agree that the greatest threat to the success of any project, especially information technology projects, is a failure to _____.
Q3) Many information technology professionals work on _____ projects where they never meet their project sponsors, other team members, or other project stakeholders.
Q4) While trying to assess commitment of project stakeholders, a(n) _____ meeting or a Web conference might be the most appropriate medium to use.
Q5) ____ predict future project status and progress based on past information and trends.
A)Progress reports
B)Status reports
C)Forecasts
D)Project updates
Q6) Rarely does the receiver interpret a message exactly as the sender intended.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Risk utility rises at a decreasing rate for a(n) _____ person.
Q2) _____ risks are risks that remain after all of the response strategies have been implemented.
Q3) What is the first step in a Monte Carlo analysis?
A)Determine the probability distribution of each variable.
B)For each variable, such as the time estimate for a task, select a random value based on the probability distribution for the occurrence of the variable.
C)Assess the range for the variables being considered.
D)Run a deterministic analysis or one pass through the model using the combination of values selected for each one of the variables.
Q4) _____ is the product of a risk event probability and the risk event's monetary value.
Q5) Unknown risks can be managed proactively.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A(n) _____ documents the procedures for managing risk throughout the project.
Q7) A(n) _____ is a list of risks that are low priority, but are still identified as potential risks.
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Q1) _____ management includes the processes required to acquire goods and services for a project from outside the performing organization.
Q2) A key factor in evaluating bids, particularly for projects involving information technology, is the past performance record of the bidder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An FP-EPA contract carries the least risk for a supplier.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ are oral or written acts or omissions by someone with actual or apparent authority that can be construed to have the same effect as a written change order.
Q5) From the buyer's perspective, the _____ is the least desirable among all contracts because the supplier has no incentive to decrease costs.
A)CPIF
B)CPFF
C)CPAF
D)CPPC
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Q1) The project team must take corrective action if stakeholders with _____ are categorized as resistant or unaware.
A)high interest/low power
B)high interest and high power
C)low interest/ low power
D)low interest/high power
Q2) The main output of the _____ process is the stakeholder register.
A)Planning stakeholder management
B)Identifying stakeholders
C)Managing stakeholder engagement
D)Controlling stakeholder engagement
Q3) Stakeholders might change during a project due to employee turnover, partnerships, and other events.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Government officials and concerned citizens would be classified as _____ project stakeholders.
Q5) The stakeholder management plan should not be accessible to all stakeholders.
A)True
B)False
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