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Advanced Practice Psychiatric Nursing Textbook Exam Questions - 203 Verified Questions

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Advanced Practice Psychiatric Nursing

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Advanced Practice Psychiatric Nursing focuses on the development of advanced clinical skills and critical thinking necessary for the assessment, diagnosis, and management of individuals with complex mental health conditions. The course integrates evidence-based psychiatric nursing interventions with concepts from neuroscience, psychopharmacology, and psychotherapy to prepare students for advanced practice roles. Emphasis is placed on therapeutic communication, interdisciplinary collaboration, cultural competence, ethical considerations, and patient-centered care across the lifespan. Students will engage in case studies, simulations, and clinical experiences to strengthen their ability to provide holistic, recovery-oriented care in diverse healthcare settings.

Recommended Textbook

Psychiatric Advanced Practice Nursing 1st Edition by Perese

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203 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Theoretical Framework of Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) Brain plasticity, which refers to the brain's capacity to change in response to an event,

A) Is the same for all individuals

B) Involves physical changes of the brain

C) Is absent in older adults

D) Is independent of genetic influence

Answer: B

Q2) The primary relevance of Bowlby's attachment theory for psychiatric advanced practice nurses is that

A) Toddlers develop primitive defense mechanisms such as denial.

B) Toddlers develop an inner working model of how adults will respond to them.

C) Toddlers face the psychosocial task of autonomy versus shame.

D) Toddlers develop a fear of engulfment and enmeshment.

Answer: B

Q3) Nobel Prize winner Eric Kandel demonstrated that the brain

A) Is plastic before birth but becomes hard-wired at birth

B) Has plasticity and can change during the first 3 years of life

C) Has plasticity that allows it to make new connections in response to learning

D) Is unable to make new connections after age 26

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Neurobiological Theory of Psychiatric Disorders:

Brain Functioning, Brain Development and Prenatal and

Perinatal Factors Disrupting Brain Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) The function of this brain structure was formerly believed to be limited to maintaining balance and learning motor skills but is now believed to be involved in learning and emotions and may be involved in autism. It is the

A) Cerebellum

B) Insula

C) Corpus callosum

D) Pons

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following structures provides for communication between the two hemispheres of the brain?

A) Lateral ventricle

B) Basal ganglia

C) Corpus callosum

D) Hypothalamus

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Postnatal Influences on Development of

Psychopathology

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Sample Questions

Q1) It is known that childhood exposure to maltreatment

A) Is associated with increased rates of physical and psychiatric disorders

B) Occurs in 10% of U.S. children

C) Is most often exposure to sexual abuse

D) Usually involves a perpetrator who is unknown to the child

Answer: A

Q2) Among children who have experienced chronic exposure to family violence, it has been found that

A) The children may lack capacity for emotional self-regulation.

B) Most of the children are able to integrate their experiences into a positive inner model of the world.

C) As adolescents, they have lower rates of aggressive behavior problems.

D) The rate of adult psychopathology is the same as that of the general population.

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Communicating, Interviewing and Assessing

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Sample Questions

Q1) The purposes of the psychiatric interview include all except

A) Gaining an understanding of the patient's illness

B) Obtaining information efficiently

C) Providing education about psychiatric disorders

D) Establishing a therapeutic alliance

Q2) Validation is a communication strategy used to

A) Let the patient know that his or her feelings are reasonable.

B) Evaluate change in symptoms or behaviors.

C) Prompt the patient to continue talking.

D) Elicit more information about a response.

Q3) To encourage the patient to talk freely during the interview, the clinician

A) Uses direct questioning

B) Explains behavior/brain interaction theory

C) Takes notes conscientiously

D) Provides empathetic response.

Q4) Open-ended questions

A) Are useful in obtaining direct responses

B) Define the focus of interest

C) Are useful in the beginning of an interview

D) Define the boundaries of the therapeutic alliance

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Chapter 5: Case Formulation and Diagnosis, Differential

Diagnoses and Developing a Biopsychosocial Plan of Care

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Q1) In a biopsychosocial case formulation, social contributions would be considered to be

A) Genetic influences and adverse circumstances of birth

B) Substance use and medical disorders

C) Cognitive deficits and dysregulation of emotions

D) Religious/cultural factors and living situations

Q2) In the problem-oriented method of case formulation, the patient's problems are defined as a solvable target of treatment. Which of the following is an example of a problem-oriented case formulation description?

A) "Lack of interpersonal communication skills"

B) "Due to early childhood conflicts"

C) "Due to use of immature defense mechanisms"

D) "Caused by stigma and discrimination"

Q3) A predisposing event would be all of the following except

A) Early prolonged separation from the mother

B) Having been born unwanted

C) Recent arrests or incarcerations

D) History of childhood neglect or abuse

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Chapter 6: Psychopharmacotherapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Among the following statements, which best describes the action of older typical antipsychotic medications such as Haldol?

A) They block dopamine receptors in all four dopamine pathways.

B) They decrease available amounts of serotonin and norepinephrine.

C) They decrease the metabolism of dopamine in the synaptic cleft.

D) They selectively block reuptake of dopamine.

Q2) A patient has been treated for the past several years with fluphenazine (Prolixin). You notice that he is drooling and has a tremor and slight pill-rolling movement of the fingers. These are the extrapyramidal symptoms known as

A) Anticholinergic effects

B) Pseudoparkinsonism

C) Tardive dyskinesia

D) Dystonic reaction

Q3) Which class of antidepressants has the most anticholinergic side effects?

A) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

C) Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

D) Serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

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Chapter 7: Psychotherapies

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Q1) Which of the following statements provides the most appropriate comment about therapists' sharing of personal information with patients?

A) Sharing may be used to enhance trust or show interest.

B) Sharing may be used to show that the therapist has similar difficulties.

C) Sharing may include offering friendship outside of sessions.

D) Sharing may be used to reduce therapists' discomfort with silence in the session.

Q2) In supportive therapy, the focus is on

A) Strengthening self-esteem and ego functioning

B) Promoting insight

C) Remediating cognitive functioning

D) Exposure and response prevention

Q3) Among the following disorders, which one would most likely be amenable to brief dynamic therapy?

A) Bipolar disorder

B) Substance dependence

C) Psychotic disorder

D) Avoidant personality disorder

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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Interventions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Effective interventions to build social networks have been found to include all of the following except

A) Participating in groups that focus on adherence to medication

B) Building new relationships

C) Strengthening existing networks

D) Using ready-made friends or companions

Q2) Support groups differ from self-help groups by

A) Use of a drop-in approach

B) Professional leadership

C) Theory of empowerment

D) Emphasis on mastery

Q3) It can be said of social rhythms therapy that

A) It is involved in establishing regular patterns of sleep.

B) It has been found to be effective for major depressive disorder but not for bipolar disorder.

C) It is involved in establishing regular patterns of sleeping, eating, exercising, and engaging in other daily activities.

D) It has not been found to be effective as adjunctive treatment in obesity.

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Chapter 9: Response to Stressors: Bridging Normal

Responses and Psychiatric Disorders

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Q1) The process of allostasis includes

A) Mobilization of energy, activation of cognition, and behavioral changes

B) Reduction of production of cortisol

C) Decreased levels of norepinephrine

D) Development of a state of exhaustion

Q2) The fear/anxiety circuit of the brain includes which of the following brain structures?

A) Reticular activating system

B) Amygdala and hippocampus

C) Parietal lobe and cerebellum

D) Corpus callosum

Q3) The response of exposure to stressors

A) Is the same response in all humans

B) Is the same for males and females

C) Is followed by homeostasis

D) Is buffered by the presence of three or more social contacts

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Chapter 10: Phobias, Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Social

Anxiety Disorder and Panic Disorder

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Q1) Medical disorders that should be considered as differential diagnoses of panic disorder include all of the following except

A) Hyperthyroidism

B) Hypothyroidism

C) Mitral valve prolapse

D) Hyperparathyroidism

Q2) Regarding generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which of the following is true?

A) GAD is rare in older adults.

B) Comorbidity for major depression and other anxiety disorders is not common.

C) GAD is considered to be a chronic condition.

D) GAD is characterized by seasonal cycles.

Q3) For a patient with GAD and a history of substance abuse, one of the primary reasons for choosing buspirone (Buspar) is because it

A) Inhibits reuptake of serotonin

B) Is effective for somatic complaints-sweaty palms, shortness of breath, etc.

C) Does not cause dependency

D) Has a strong antidepressant effect

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Chapter 11: Acute Stress Disorder and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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Q1) Which mental status variation are you most likely to expect for a client diagnosed as having post-traumatic stress disorder?

A) Thought: delusions of grandeur

B) Perceptual: derealization and depersonalization

C) Memory: impaired recent memory

D) Mood: inappropriate, silly

Q2) Which one of the following exposure treatments for post-traumatic stress disorder has been found to be effective among veterans with chronic post-traumatic stress disorder that has not responded to other forms of treatment?

A) Cognitive behavioral therapy

B) Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing therapy

C) Structured writing therapy

D) Virtual reality exposure therapy

Q3) The brain structure that is involved with encoding the time and place of a trauma is the

A) Amygdala

B) Thalamus

C) Hippocampus

D) Hypothalamus

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Obsessive-Compulsive

Spectrum Disorders

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Q1) Which of the following tricyclic antidepressants is most effective in the treatment of OCD?

A) Imipramine

B) Amitriptyline

C) Desipramine

D) Clomipramine

Q2) Nonpharmacological treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) would most likely include which of the following?

A) Electroconvulsive therapy

B) Cognitive behavioral therapy

C) Milieu therapy

D) Dialectical behavioral therapy

Q3) In obsessive-compulsive disorder, patients are likely to experience

A) Obsessions as ego-syntonic

B) Extreme worrying about everyday concerns such as being late

C) Specific worries about the sight of blood

D) Obsessions of symmetry and need to have things just right

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Chapter 13: Depressive Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Electroconvulsive therapy has been found to be effective in which of the following conditions?

A) Depression with melancholic features

B) Dysthymia

C) Seasonal affective disorder

D) Atypical depression

Q2) Which of the following is a frontline treatment for insomnia in depressed elderly individuals?

A) Sleep hygiene

B) Benzodiazepines

C) Zolpidem

D) Trazodone

Q3) Core symptoms of complicated grief include experiencing which of the following symptoms more than 6 months after the death?

A) Feeling that life has no meaning without the deceased

B) Prominent self-blaming thoughts for not having prevented the death

C) Dissociative states in which the deceased is believed to be present

D) All of the above

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Chapter 14: Bipolar Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) Manic episodes of bipolar disorder are thought be related to A) Changes in diet

B) Disruption of sleep-wake cycles

C) Female gender

D) Advanced age, over 60 years

Q2) Disruptions of social rhythms

A) Are related to changes of zeitgerbers (time givers)

B) Occur after the onset of bipolar disorder

C) Are related to anticipation

D) Occur rarely in the general population

Q3) In treatment of the acute phase of mania, the focus is on

A) Protecting the patient's biopsychosocial safety

B) Educating the patient about social rhythms theory

C) Interventions that address impairment of vocational functioning

D) Interventions for self-management of finances

Q4) The course of bipolar disorder is characterized by

A) Difficulty achieving good vocational functioning

B) Patient adherence to treatment

C) Infrequent recurrences

D) Good interpersonal and social functioning

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Chapter 15: Schizophrenia and Schizoaffective Disorder

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Q1) Abnormalities of motor function characterized by a marked lack of motion or remaining in one posture are most characteristic of which subtype of schizophrenia?

A) Paranoid

B) Catatonic

C) Disorganized

D) Undifferentiated

Q2) Which of the following features is associated with positive outcome among patients with schizophrenia?

A) Younger age of onset

B) Male gender

C) Living in an industrialized country

D) Having positive symptoms

Q3) A patient who is being evaluated in the emergency room says that she is a mother deity, the earth mother god who is all-powerful. The psychiatric advanced practice nurse states that the patient is

A) Experiencing a delusion

B) Experiencing a hallucination

C) Experiencing impaired impulse control

D) Experiencing an acute stress reaction

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Chapter 16: Delirium and Dementia

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regarding alcohol withdrawal delirium or delirium tremens, which of the following is true?

A) Symptoms may include hypersomnia and lack of energy.

B) Symptoms may include agitation and abnormal perceptions.

C) Symptom onset often begins with elevated mood.

D) Symptoms often begin within 12 hours of cessation of drinking.

Q2) In mild cognitive impairment there is likely to be

A) Social and vocational disability

B) Impairment of activities of daily living

C) Deficits of memory

D) Wandering and disorientation

Q3) The most significant finding that suggests a diagnosis of delirium is

A) Rapid onset of symptoms that differ from baseline functioning

B) Slow, progressive onset of symptoms that differ from baseline

C) Difficulty in finding the right word to express an idea

D) Delusions of grandiosity

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Chapter 17: Dual Diagnosis

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Q1) It is known that high levels of alcohol consumption

A) Exacerbate psychiatric symptoms

B) Improve circulation

C) Reduce the risk for developing dementia

D) Reduce the risk of suicide among older adults

Q2) The action produced by cocaine that can cause symptoms of paranoia and hallucinations similar to symptoms of schizophrenia is related to

A) Increase of dopamine

B) Decrease of dopamine

C) Increase of norepinephrine

D) Decrease of glutamate

Q3) The area of the brain that is involved in substance abuse is the reward center of the brain, which includes the A) Brainstem

B) Thalamus

C) Cerebellum

D) Ventral tegmental area

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19

Chapter 18: Personality Disorders

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Q1) Avoidant personality disorder is distinguished from schizoid personality disorder by which of the following characteristics?

A) Desire to socialize with others but fear of rejection

B) Lack of desire to socialize with others

C) Disregard for social norms and the rights of others

D) Focus on rules, orderliness, and perfectionism

Q2) Patients with schizoid personality disorder are likely to

A) Desire relationships but avoid them because of fear of rejection

B) Have perceptual and cognitive distortions

C) Be suspicious, be jealous, and hold a grudge

D) Appear to be cold, aloof, and a loner

Q3) Narcissistic personality disorder is more likely to occur in families that

A) Teach children to put family and community ahead of personal desires.

B) Encourage children to develop problem-solving skills.

C) Teach children that they are special and entitled to the best in life.

D) Encourage resilience in the face of adversity.

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Chapter 19: Prevention of Psychiatric Disorders

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Q1) Among older adults, evidence suggests that the risk for developing dementia can be reduced by which of the following interventions?

A) Cognitive remediation

B) Identifying and treating hearing loss

C) Cognitive restructuring

D) Identifying and treating symptoms of depression

Q2) Among adults, promoting daily reward experiences that create positive emotions has been found to be associated with

A) Reexperiencing of traumatic memories

B) Reduction of symptoms of depression

C) Improvement of cognition

D) Reduction of sleep disturbances

Q3) At this time, in the prevention of schizophrenia, the focus is on

A) Preventing adverse circumstances of birth

B) Promoting childhood resilience

C) Preventing prodromal symptoms from converting to schizophrenia

D) Preventing late-onset schizophrenia

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