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Advanced Practice Nursing explores the expanded roles and responsibilities of nurses who have attained advanced clinical education and expertise, such as nurse practitioners, clinical nurse specialists, nurse anesthetists, and nurse midwives. This course emphasizes evidence-based practice, clinical decision-making, leadership, collaborative healthcare delivery, and health policy advocacy. Students will develop skills in comprehensive assessment, diagnostics, treatment planning, and patient management for diverse populations across the lifespan, with a focus on improving outcomes, advancing healthcare quality, and meeting the complex challenges of modern healthcare systems.
Recommended Textbook
Primary Care Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing 4th Edition by Dunphy
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21 Chapters
549 Verified Questions
549 Flashcards
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75851
Sample Questions
Q1) Endemic is the term used when the presence of an event is constant.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A pandemic affects many communities in a short period of time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) "There are 1,185,000 cases of HIV/AIDS in the United States" is an example of the morbidity rate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
Answer: A
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Q1) Practice guidelines are designed to:
A)Be inflexible
B)Be utilized in every circumstance
C)Provide a reference point for decision making
D)Be created by a professional organization to guide the practice of a profession
Q2) Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level VII evidence?
A)Well-designed controlled trials without randomization
B)Opinion of authorities and expert committees
C)Well-designed case control or cohort studies
D)Single descriptive or qualitative study .
Q3) Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level V evidence?
A)Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies
B)Well-designed controlled trials without randomization
C)Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies
D)Single descriptive or qualitative study
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?
A)Epidural hematoma
B)Subdural hematoma
C)Subarachnoid hematoma
D)Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
Q2) Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?
A)MRI
B)CT
C)Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
D)EEG
Q3) Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?
A)Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.
B)After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
C)Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.
D)These persons may drive but never alone.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prevalence of psoriasis is highest in which group?
A)Scandinavians
B)African Americans
C)Asians
D)Native Americans
Q2) Which scalp problem can be caused by a fever and certain drugs?
A)Telogen effluvium (TE)
B)Trichotillomania
C)Psoriasis
D)Alopecia areata
Q3) Josh, aged 22, has tinea versicolor.Which description is the most likely for this condition?
A)There are round, hypopigmented macules on his back.
B)Josh has red papules on his face.
C)There are crusted plaques in Josh's groin area.
D)There are white streaks on his neck.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7 °F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy.The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative.What would the next step be?
A)The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
B)Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
C)A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
D)The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.
Q2) Heart valve damage resulting from acute rheumatic fever is a long-term sequelae resulting from infection with which of the following pathogens?
A)Coxsackievirus
B)Cytomegalovirus
C)Francisella tularensis
D)Group A streptococcus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patients would you expect to have a decreased response to TST?
A)Julie, a 50-year-old postal worker
B)Sandy, a 40-year-old patient who recently survived a fire that left 40% of her total body surface covered in burns
C)Jill, a 16-year-old cheerleader
D)Mark, a 29-year-old tennis player
Q2) A patient with hypertension comes in and insists that one of his new medications is causing him to cough.When looking at his list of medications, you think the cough must be from:
A)Metoprolol
B)Clopidogrel
C)Tadalafil
D)Captopril
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding TST is true?
A)Tests should be read 48 hours after the injection.
B)The size of the TST reaction has nothing to do with erythema but is based solely on induration.
C)It is a type V T cell-mediated immune response.
D)The diameter of the induration is measured in centimeters.
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:
A)Stage 2 hypertension
B)Hypertensive
C)Normal in healthy older adults
D)Acceptable if the patient has DM
Q2) Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?
A)B-type natriuretic peptide
B)C-reactive protein
C)Serum albumin
D)Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Q3) In the CHADS2 Index for the stroke risk score for AF, the "A" stands for:
A)Anticoagulation
B)Autoimmune disease
C)Age
D)Antihypertension
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is seen with dark-colored urine, and the urine dipstick reveals a high level of bilirubin.Which of the following could be a cause of this problem?
A)Increased breakdown of red blood cells
B)Inadequate hepatocyte function
C)Biliary obstruction
D)All of the above
Q2) The nurse practitioner (NP) suspects a patient has a peptic ulcer.Which of the following items on the history would lead the NP to this conclusion?
A)Use of NSAIDs
B)Cigarette smoker
C)Ethanol consumption
D)All of the above
Q3) A 46-year-old patient is seen in the clinic with abdominal pain.Which of the following tests is essential for this patient?
A)CBC with differential
B)Urine human chorionic gonadotropin
C)Barium enema
D)Computed tomography of the abdomen
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30 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 86-year-old woman is seen in the clinic for recurrent hematuria.The provider suspects bladder cancer.Which of the following data from the history is considered a risk factor for this type of cancer?
A)History of alcoholism
B)Sedentary lifestyle
C)Obesity
D)65-year smoking history
Q2) A 34-year-old patient was treated for a UTI and has not responded to antibiotic therapy.Which of the following actions should be taken next?
A)Send a urine specimen for microscopy and evaluate for fungal colonies.
B)Increase the dose of antibiotic.
C)Order a cytoscopy.
D)Order a different antibiotic.
Q3) Which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with a patient in ARF?
A)Pruritis
B)Glycosuria
C)Irritability
D)Hypotension
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer.What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
A)An enlarged rubbery gland
B)A hard irregular gland
C)A tender gland
D)A boggy gland
Q2) A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE).Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
A)Testicular cancer
B)Inguinal hernia
C)Varicocele
D)All of the above
Q3) What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
A)Radical orchidectomy
B)Lumpectomy
C)Radiation implants
D)All of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old woman is seen because of irregular menstrual periods.Her follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level is 48 mIU/mL, and her luteinizing hormone (LH) level is elevated.She asks the clinician what this means.Which would be the best response?
A)"You are approaching menopause."
B)"You have a hormonal imbalance."
C)"Your FSH is normal, but your pituitary is making too much LH."
D)"There is an imbalance between your ovaries and pituitary."
Q2) A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass.Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
A)"It is probably just a cyst because that is the most common breast mass."
B)"We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis."
C)"We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure."
D)"Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer."
Q3) Most breast cancer cases are in women with a family history of breast cancer. A)True
B)False
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75840
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?
A)There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.
B)Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.
C)Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following tests is considered the gold standard for definitively diagnosing osteoporosis?
A)Bone alkaline phosphatase levels
B)Urinary N-telopeptide assay
C)Bone mass density measurement by densitometry
D)Magnetic resonance imaging
Q3) Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are common signs of type 2 DM?
A)Anorexia
B)Recurrent yeast infection
C)Weight gain
D)Elevated HDL cholesterol
Q2) Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
A)Insulin
B)Metformin
C)Glucotrol
D)Precose
Q3) A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of "my feet feel like they are on fire." He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel.Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
A)Tricyclic antidepressants
B)Capsaicin cream
C)Vitamin <sub>B12</sub> injections
D)Insulin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of the following is characterized by fatigue on awakening that may improve with exercise?
A)Functional fatigue
B)Fatigue with an organic origin
C)Fatigue of chronic anemia
D)Fatigue of depression and anxiety
Q2) Early rheumatoid disease is characterized by:
A)Pain and swelling in both small and large peripheral joints
B)Rigid joints with diminished range of motion
C)Joint swelling and immobility on rising
D)A cardiac rub or pulmonary friction rub
Q3) Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?
A)Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B)White blood cell count
C)Polymorphonuclear cells
D)C-reactive protein (CRP)
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is experiencing extrapyramidal side effects from his antipsychotic medications.The clinician would most likely take which of the following approaches to treating these side effects?
A)Give the patient a "drug holiday" until the symptoms resolve and then restart the medication.
B)Switch the patient to a different antipsychotic.
C)Treat the patient with anticholinergics.
D)Treat the patient with anticonvulsants.
Q2) Women in abusive relationships have a greater chance of being killed by their batterers when they leave the relationship than women who stay.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a laboratory finding commonly found in patients with anorexia nervosa?
A)Hypercholesterolemia
B)Hypermagnesmia
C)Leukocytosis
D)Decreased TRH
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cerebellar function may be assessed by performing which examination/test?
A)Gag reflex
B)Pupillary response
C)Romberg's test
D)Apley's test
Q2) In which type of burn is the injury more extensive than it appears, and the cardiac conduction system may be affected, leading to sudden death or arrhythmias?
A)Chemical burns
B)Electrical burns
C)Radiation burns
D)Thermal burns
Q3) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may leak through the cribriform plate region of the skull following a head injury and cause which of the following?
A)Ear CSF otorrhea
B)Leakage of CSF from the eye
C)Nasal CSF rhinorrhea
D)Leakage of CSF from the mouth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient had a transdermal fentanyl patch placed 2 hours ago and is not getting any pain relief.What would be the most appropriate intervention?
A)Remove the current patch and replace with a new fentanyl patch at a higher dose.
B)Prescribe a short-acting opioid for breakthrough pain.
C)Remove the patch and switch to a different intravenous opioid.
D)Tell the patient not to worry, as it takes about 12 hours for the patch's effects to be felt, and he will have relief at that time.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding pain?
A)If a patient complains of pain but has no physical signs, he or she is most likely exhibiting drug-seeking behaviors.
B)Acute pain is more intense and severe than chronic pain.
C)Pain is a subjective experience related to actual or potential tissue damage.
D)All of the above
Q3) Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish it from dementia?
A)Abrupt onset
B)Impaired attention
C)Affective changes
D)Delusions
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Q1) Three components must be present to establish malpractice.Which one does NOT apply?
A)The APRN must be paid for the services in question.
B)The provider must have a duty to the patient.
C)The standard of care must have been deviated from or breached.
D)Harm or damages must have occurred as a result of the duty and a breach of the standards of care.
Q2) Which board administers and defines advanced nursing practice in all states?
A)The Board of Nursing
B)The Board of Medicine
C)The Board of Pharmacy
D)It is different for each state.
Q3) The Nurse Practice Act of each state is responsible for:
A)Establishing the legal standards
B)Promoting high-quality nursing care
C)Protecting the public from unethical nursing practice
D)Exceeding the requirements of the Code of Ethics for Nurses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify one of the primary reasons for an APRN to develop a business plan?
A)To monitor monthly actual expense to budgeted expense
B)To reduce the likelihood of litigation action
C)To identify the marketing needed to grow the APRN practice
D)To assure accreditation standards are met
Q2) Each state has criteria defining the level of collaboration required between the APRN and an oversight physician.Which is among the questions an APRN should seek when selecting a practice setting?
A)List of practice limitations as an APN
B)Standard hourly rate as office staff
C)Expectation for net revenue generation
D)Standard benefit package offered to office staff
Q3) Medicare advantage plans, also called Medicare HMO Plans, are plans approved by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) as alternative carriers for Medicare beneficiaries.Which of the following is not a characteristic of these plans?
A)Offer additional benefits
B)Offer lower copayments
C)Follow Medicare benefit rules
D)Follow the Commercial Carriers rules
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Sample Questions
Q1) One benefit of BATHEing a patient is that:
A)It allows providers an in-depth exploration of patient's presenting problems.
B)It assumes that ambivalence is a normal part of the change process.
C)It utilizes the therapeutic relationship to help patients in a time-sensitive approach.
D)It can be done only with extensive training in therapeutic technique.
Q2) Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates the relationship between physical health and distress?
A)A patient's high calorie diet contributes to his diagnosis of type 2 diabetes.
B)A patient with an elevated HbA<sub>1</sub>C reports that he was recently evicted from his home.
C)A patient with depression reports an increase in suicidal thoughts.
D)A patient reports feeling "numb" after learning her malignant tumor is inoperable.
Q3) Basic human needs are identified as:
A)Autonomy and feeling valued by others
B)Exhilaration and productivity
C)Spirituality
D)Career success and material rewards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compassion fatigue is another side-effect of today's health-care delivery system.This term means :
A)The APRN feels sudden guilt and distress when he or she cannot rescue or save an individual, such as when bad health habits persist despite the best efforts of the APRN.
B)This happens over time related to the need to see increasing numbers of patients in busy primary care practices.
C)This may persist over time, even when the APRN transfers to a new and different setting.
D)Patients' problems and circumstances can be so overwhelming that the APRN needs to set severe boundaries to maintain safe function.
Q2) APRNs need to develop their own self-management plans.Two key elements of self-management plans are:
A)Taking vacations and keeping up with new knowledge and developments in medicine
B)Resilience and positive intentionality
C)Family support and a healthy diet
D)Being physically and emotionally "fit"
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