

Advanced Placement Chemistry
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Advanced Placement Chemistry is a rigorous, college-level course designed to provide students with a thorough foundation in the principles of chemistry. The curriculum covers a wide range of topics, including atomic structure, chemical bonding, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, acids and bases, electrochemistry, and organic chemistry. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving skills, critical thinking, and laboratory techniques through hands-on experiments and inquiry-based investigations. The course prepares students for the AP Chemistry examination and provides a solid background for further study in science or engineering disciplines.
Recommended Textbook Chemistry 12th Edition by Raymond Chang
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25 Chapters
3150 Verified Questions
3150 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2995

Page 2

Chapter 1: Chemistry: The Study of Change
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175 Verified Questions
175 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Density is an intensive property.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A special flask used in the determination of densities, called a pycnometer, has a mass of 16.3179 g when empty, and it has a mass of 48.0250 g when filled with water at 20.0<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C. When this same pycnometer is filled with ethyl alcohol at 20.0<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C, it is found to have a mass of 41.3934 g. Find the density of ethyl alcohol at 20.0<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C. (Given: at 20.0<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C, the density of water is 0.9982 g/mL)
A) 0.7894 g/mL
B) 0.7923 g/mL
C) 0.7908 g/mL
D) 1.303 g/mL
E) 0.7674 g/mL
Answer: A
Q3) Ice cream is a pure substance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Atoms Molecules and Ions
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156 Verified Questions
156 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following elements is most likely to be a good conductor of electricity
A) N
B) S
C) He
D) Cl
E) Fe
Answer: E
Q2) Rutherford's experiment with alpha particle scattering by gold foil established that
A) protons are not evenly distributed throughout an atom.
B) electrons have a negative charge.
C) electrons have a positive charge.
D) atoms are made of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
E) protons are 1840 times heavier than electrons.
Answer: A
Q3) The formula of carbonic acid is HCO<sub>3</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Mass Relationships in Chemical Reactions
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194 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acetylene gas, HCCH(g), can be generated in the laboratory by adding calcium carbide to excess water, as shown in the following reaction CaC<sub>2</sub>(s) + H<sub>2</sub>O(l) \(\rarr\) HCCH(g) + CaO(s)
How many grams of CaC<sub>2</sub> would be required to generate 0.20 moles of HCCH(g)
A) 11 g of CaC<sub>2</sub> would be required
B) 13 g of CaC<sub>2</sub> would be required
C) 15 g of CaC<sub>2</sub> would be required
D) 17 g of CaC<sub>2</sub> would be required
E) None of the above are correct
Answer: B
Q2) Calculate the percent composition by mass of sodium in Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>.
A) 55.4%
B) 49.4 %
C) 43.4 %
D) 39.4 %
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Reactions in Aqueous Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the precipitate(s) formed when solutions of Ca(ClO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(aq), K<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>(aq), and NaNO<sub>3</sub>(aq) are mixed.
A) CaCO<sub>3</sub>
B) Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
C) Ca(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> and NaClO<sub>4</sub>
D) CaCO<sub>3</sub> and Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
E) KClO<sub>4</sub> and Ca(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
Q2) When 38.0 mL of 0.1250 M H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> is added to 100. mL of a solution of PbI<sub>2</sub>, a precipitate of PbSO<sub>4</sub> forms. The PbSO<sub>4</sub> is then filtered from the solution, dried, and weighed. If the recovered PbSO<sub>4</sub> is found to have a mass of 0.0471 g, what was the concentration of iodide ions in the original solution
A) 3.10 * 10<sup>-4</sup> M
B) 1.55 * 10<sup>-4</sup> M
C) 6.20 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
D) 3.11 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
E) 1.55 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
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Chapter 5: Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A particular coal sample contains 2.32% S. When the coal is burned, the sulfur is converted to sulfur dioxide gas. What volume (L) of SO<sub>2</sub>(g), measured at 25<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C and 749 mmHg, is produced by burning 2.0 * 10<sup>6</sup> lb of this coal
(1 lb = 454 g)
Q2) At standard temperature and pressure, a given sample of water vapor occupies a volume of 2.80 L. How many moles of water vapor are present
A) 0.145 mol
B) 0.135 mol
C) 0.125 mol
D) 0.115 mol
E) None of the above
Q3) Calculate the density of CO<sub>2</sub>(g) at 120<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C and 790 mmHg pressure.
A) 0.032 g/L
B) 1.4 g/L
C) 1.8 g/L
D) 3.4 g/L
E) 8.0 g/L
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Page 7

Chapter 6: Thermochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has a \(\Delta\)H<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>f</sub>= 0 kJ/mol
A) CO<sub>2</sub>(g)
B) O<sub>3</sub>(g)
C) Cl<sup>-</sup>(aq)
D) NH<sub>3</sub>(aq)
E) I<sub>2</sub>(s)
Q2) A 0.3423 g sample of pentane, C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>, was burned in a bomb calorimeter. The temperature of the calorimeter and the 1.000 kg of water contained therein rose from 20.22<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C to 22.82<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C. The heat capacity of the calorimeter is 2.21 kJ/<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C. The heat capacity of water = 4.184 J/g·<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C. How much heat was given off during combustion of the sample of pentane
A) 18.6 kJ
B) 17.6 kJ
C) 16.6 kJ
D) 15.6 kJ
E) None of the above
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Page 8

Chapter 7: Quantum Theory and the Electronic Structure of Atoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The second line of the Balmer series occurs at a wavelength of 486.1 nm. What is the energy difference between the initial and final levels of the hydrogen atom in this emission process
A) 2.44 * 10<sup>18</sup> J
B) 4.09 * 10<sup>-19</sup> J
C) 4.09 * 10<sup>-22</sup> J
D) 4.09 * 10<sup>-28</sup> J
E) 1.07 * 10<sup>-48</sup> J
Q2) A photovoltaic cell converts light into electrical energy. Suppose a certain photovoltaic cell is only 63.5% efficient, in other words, that 63.5% of the light energy is ultimately recovered. If the energy output of this cell is used to heat water, how many 520 nm photons must be absorbed by the photovoltaic cell in order to heat 10.0 g of water from 20.0<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C to 30.0<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
A) 1.32 * 10<sup>21</sup>
B) 1.52 * 10<sup>21</sup>
C) 1.72 * 10<sup>21</sup>
D) 1.92 * 10<sup>21</sup>
E) None of the above
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Chapter 8: Periodic Relationships Among the Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the electron configuration for the bromide ion
A) [Ar]
B) [Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>4p<sup>7</sup>
C) [Kr]
D) [Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>4d<sup>10</sup>5p<sup>7</sup>
E) [Xe]
Q2) The group 5A elements have relatively small electron affinities compared to the neighboring nonmetals in the corresponding rows.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a basic oxide
A) CO<sub>2</sub>
B) CaO
C) SO<sub>2</sub>
D) H<sub>2</sub>O
E) NO<sub>2</sub>
Q4) Electron affinity is always a positive quantity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Chemical Bonding I: Basic Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) The polarity of covalent bonds increases as the percent ionic character increases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Classify the O - H bond in CH<sub>3</sub>OH as ionic, polar covalent, or nonpolar covalent.
A) ionic
B) polar covalent
C) nonpolar covalent
Q3) Calculate the energy required for the gas phase process represented by Na(g) + Br(g) \(\rarr\) Na<sup>+</sup>(g) + Br<sup>-</sup> (g).
Given: Ionization energy (Na) = 496 kJ/mol
Electron affinity (Br) = 324 kJ/mol
Electron affinity (Na) = 53 kJ/mol
A) 152 kJ/mol
B) 162 kJ/mol
C) 172 kJ/mol
D) 182 kJ/mol
E) None of the above
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11
Chapter 10: Chemical Bonding II: Molecular Geometry and Hybridization
of Atomic
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following correctly lists species in order of increasing bond length
A) C<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> < C<sub>2</sub> < C<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>
B) C<sub>2</sub> < C<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup> < C<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
C) C<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> < C<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup> < C<sub>2</sub>
D) C<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup> < C<sub>2</sub> < C<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
E) C<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup> < C<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> < C<sub>2</sub>
Q2) A molecule with 2 single bonds and 2 lone pairs of electrons around the central atom is predicted to have what type of molecular geometry
A) Tetrahedral
B) Trigonal pyramidal
C) Bent
D) Trigonal bipyramidal
E) Linear
Q3) Which one of the following molecules is nonpolar
A) NH<sub>3</sub>
B) OF<sub>2</sub>
C) CH<sub>3</sub>Cl
D) H<sub>2</sub>O
E) BeCl<sub>2</sub>

Page 12
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Chapter 11: Intermolecular Forces and Liquids and Solids
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149 Verified Questions
149 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) MgO has the same crystal structure as NaCl, face-centered cubic. How many oxide ions surround each Mg<sup>2+</sup> ion as nearest neighbors
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
E) 12
Q2) Indicate all the types of intermolecular forces of attraction in He(l).
A) Dispersion and Dipole-dipole
B) Dipole-dipole and Ionic
C) Ion-dipole and Hydrogen bonding
D) Hydrogen bonding and Dispersion
E) Dispersion
Q3) Glass is classified as a/an
A) metallic crystal.
B) covalent solid.
C) molecular crystal.
D) amorphous solid.
E) ionic crystal.
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Page 13

Chapter 12: Physical Properties of Solutions
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122 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 23.0% by mass LiCl solution is prepared in water. What is the mole fraction of the water
A) 0.113
B) 0.127
C) 0.873
D) 0.887
E) 0.911
Q2) Oxygen gas makes up 21 % of the atmosphere by volume. What is the solubility of O<sub>2</sub>(g) in water at 25<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C if the atmospheric pressure is 741 mmHg The Henry's law constant for oxygen gas at 25<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C is 1.3 * 10<sup>-3</sup> mol/L·atm.
A) 2.7 * 10<sup>-4</sup> M
B) 1.3 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
C) 6.2 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
D) 9.6 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
E) 0.96 M
Q3) When sprinkled with sugar, a dish of sliced fruit will form its own juice.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Chemical Kinetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) An experimental drug, D, is known to decompose in the blood stream. Tripling the concentration of the drug increases the decomposition rate by a factor of nine. Write the rate law for decomposition ofD.
A) The rate law is rate = k[D]<sup>3</sup>
B) The rate law is rate = k[D]<sup>2</sup>
C) The rate law is rate = k[D]
D) The rate law is rate = k[D]<sup>9</sup>
E) None of the above
Q2) Appropriate units for a first-order rate constant are
A) M/s.
B) 1/M·s.
C) 1/s.
D) 1/M<sup>2</sup>·s.
Q3) It is possible for the following overall reaction to consist of a one step mechanism:
2A + B + C \(\rarr\) products
A)True
B)False
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Page 15

Chapter 14: Chemical Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider the reaction N<sub>2</sub>(g) + 3H<sub>2</sub>(g) 2NH<sub>3</sub>(g).
Using a catalyst will cause the reaction to shift to the right.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A quantity of liquid methanol, CH<sub>3</sub>OH, is introduced into a rigid 3.00-L vessel, the vessel is sealed, and the temperature is raised to 500K. At this temperature, the methanol vaporizes and decomposes according to the reaction CH<sub>3</sub>OH(g) CO(g) + 2 H<sub>2</sub>(g), K<sub>c</sub>= 6.90*10<sup>-2</sup>.If the concentration of H<sub>2</sub> in the equilibrium mixture is 0.426M, what mass of methanol was initially introduced into the vessel
A) 147 g
B) 74.3 g
C) 33.9 g
D) 49.0 g
E) 24.8 g
Q3) The conditions used in the Haber process to enhance the yield of ammonia are low pressure and high temperature.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16

Chapter 15: Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arrange the acids HOCl, HClO<sub>3</sub>, and HClO<sub>2</sub> in order of increasing acid strength.
A) HOCl < HClO<sub>3</sub> < HClO<sub>2</sub>
B) HOCl < HClO<sub>2</sub> < HClO<sub>3</sub>
C) HClO<sub>2</sub> < HOCl < HClO<sub>3</sub>
D) HClO<sub>3</sub> < HOCl < HClO<sub>2</sub>
E) HClO<sub>3</sub> < HClO<sub>2</sub> < HOCl
Q2) The hydrolysis of NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>2</sub> will result in which of the following types of solutions given: (K<sub>a</sub>(NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>) = 5.6 x 10<sup>-10</sup>, K<sub>b</sub>(NO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>) = 2.2 x 10<sup>-11</sup>)
A) acidic, pH < 7
B) basic, pH > 7
C) neutral, pH = 7
Q3) Which solution will have the lowest pH
A) 0.25 M HClO
B) 0.25 M HClO<sub>2</sub>
C) 0.25 M HClO<sub>3</sub>
D) 0.25 M HClO<sub>4</sub>
E) 0.25 M NaClO<sub>4</sub>
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Chapter 16: Acid-Base Equilibria and Solubility Equilibria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following compounds is more soluble in a 0.10 M NaCN solution than in pure neutral water
A) Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub>
B) Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
C) CaCO<sub>3</sub>
D) AgBr
E) NH<sub>4</sub>ClO<sub>4</sub>
Q2) Calculate the pH at the equivalence point for the titration of 0.22 M HCN with 0.22 M NaOH. (K<sub>a</sub> = 4.9 * 10<sup>-10</sup> for HCN)
A) 10.58
B) 10.78
C) 10.98
D) 11.18
E) None of the above
Q3) The percent ionization of a weak acid HA is greater in a solution containing the salt NaA than it is in a solution of the weak acid only.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18

Chapter 17: Entropy Free Energy and Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the free energy change for the reaction SiO<sub>2</sub>(s) + Pb(s) \(\rarr\)PbO<sub>2</sub>(s) + Si(s)
\(\Delta\)G<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>f</sub> (PbO<sub>2</sub>) = -217 kJ/mol
\(\Delta\)G<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>f</sub> (SiO<sub>2</sub>) = -856 kJ/mol
A) 619 kJ/mol
B) 639 kJ/mol
C) 659 kJ/mol
D) 679 kJ/mol
E) None of the above
Q2) The heat of vaporization of water is 2.27 kJ/g. What is \(\Delta\)S<sub>vap</sub> per mole at the normal boiling point
A) 170. J/K·mol
B) 150. J/K·mol
C) 130. J/K·mol
D) 110. J/K·mol
E) None of the above
Q3) The entropy of a perfectly ordered crystalline substance at 0 K is 0 J/mol.
A)True
B)False
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Electrochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A galvanic cell has the overall reaction:
Zn(s) + 2Eu(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>(aq) \(\rarr\)
Zn(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(aq) + 2Eu(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(aq)
Which is the half reaction occurring at the anode
A)NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq) + 4H<sup>+</sup>(aq) + 3e<sup>-</sup> \(\rarr\) NO(g) + 2H<sub>2</sub>O(l)
B)NO<sub>2</sub>(g) + H<sub>2</sub>O(l) \(\rarr\) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq) + 2H<sup>+</sup>(aq) + e<sup>-</sup>
C)Zn(s) \(\rarr\)Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq) + 2e<sup>-</sup>
D)Eu<sup>3+</sup>(aq) + e<sup>-</sup> \(\rarr\) Eu<sup>2+</sup>
E)Zn(s) + 2e<sup>-</sup> \(\rarr\) Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)<sup>-</sup>
Q2) Find the emf of the cell described by the cell diagram Fe | Fe<sup>2+</sup> (1.500M) || Au<sup>3+</sup> (0.00400M) | Au.
A) 1.99 V
B) 1.89 V
C) 1.94 V
D) 1.66 V
E) 1.91 V
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Page 20

Chapter 19: Nuclear Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) As opposed to chemical reaction, nuclear reactions have a significant (measureable) mass change relative to the mass of the reacting species.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following nuclear processes results in an increase in the number of neutrons in the product element
I. Alpha emission
II. Beta emission
III. Positron emission
IV. Electron capture
A) I and II
B) III and IV
C) I, II, and III
D) II, III, and IV
E) I, II, III, and IV
Q3) The mass of a nucleus is always less than the sum of the masses of the nucleons.
A)True
B)False
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21

Chapter 20: Chemistry in the Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) The steps in the mechanism by which ozone is formed in the stratosphere are shown here:
O<sub>2</sub>(g) + O \(\rarr\) 2O(g)
O(g) + O<sub>2</sub>(g) \(\rarr\) O<sub>3</sub>(g)
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following is not considered a "greenhouse gas "
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Water vapor
C) Nitrous oxide
D) Methane
E) All of the above are considered greenhouse gases
Q3) Which of the following cannot be plausibly linked to the destruction of the ozone layer
A) Damage to crops.
B) Increased number of skin cancer cases.
C) Genetic mutations.
D) Increasing global CO<sub>2</sub> concentrations.
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22

Chapter 21: Metallurgy and the Chemistry of Metals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Volatile impurities are removed from ores by means of A) roasting.
B) amalgamation.
C) electrolysis.
D) flotation.
E) zone refining.
Q2) Bauxite (Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>\(\times\)2H<sub>2</sub>O) ore is the principal commercial source of aluminum metal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Beryllium, the first element in Group 2A, is the most metallic element in the group.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Argentite, chalcocite and cinnabar are all examples of what type of mineral
A) carbonates
B) oxides
C) halides
D) phosphates
E) sulfides
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Chapter 22: Nonmetallic Elements and Their Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these substances is being considered as a replacement fuel for gasoline
A) D<sub>2</sub>O
B) H<sub>2</sub>
C) NO<sub>2</sub>
D) F<sub>2</sub>
E) He
Q2) The following is a balanced chemical equation that depicts the production of chlorine by the chlor-alkali process. \(2 \mathrm{NaCl}(\mathrm{aq})+2 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}(\mathrm{l}) \xrightarrow{\text { electrolysis }~~} 2 \mathrm{NaOH}(\mathrm{aq})+\mathrm{H}_{2}(\mathrm{g})+\mathrm{Cl}_{2}(\ mathrm{g})\)
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these reactions is an example of nitrogen fixation
A)2N<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) 2N<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub>
B)NH<sub>3</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> + OH<sup>-</sup>
C)N<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 2NO
D)2NO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) HNO<sub>2</sub> + HNO<sub>3</sub>
E)2NO + O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 2NO<sub>2</sub>
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Chapter 23: Transition Metals Chemistry and Coordination Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these octahedral complexes can have cis-trans isomers
A) Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>Cl<sub>3</sub>
B) [Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>5</sub>Cl]Cl<sub>2</sub>
C) [Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>6</sub>]Cl<sub>3</sub>
D) Na<sub>3</sub>[CoCl<sub>6</sub>]
E) Na<sub>2</sub>[Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)Cl<sub>5</sub>]
Q2) What is the oxidation number of Co in the complex [Co(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>4</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>]Cl
A) +1
B) +2
C) +3
D) +4
E) None of the above
Q3) The correct formula for dicarbonylsilver (I) ion is:
A) Ag(CO)<sub>2</sub>
B) [Ag(CO)<sub>2</sub>]<sup>+</sup>
C) [Ag(CO)<sub>2</sub>]<sup>-</sup>
D) [Ag(CO)<sub>2</sub>]<sup>2+</sup>
E) [Ag(CO)<sub>2</sub>]<sup>2-</sup>
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Organic Chemistry
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reaction of hydrogen chloride gas with propene will yield 1-chloropropane as the main product.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Unsaturated hydrocarbons
A) contain at least one double or triple carbon-carbon bond.
B) contain at least one element other than hydrogen and carbon.
C) contain the maximum number of hydrogens that can bond with the carbon atoms present.
D) cannot form structural isomers.
E) cannot undergo addition reactions.
Q3) Which type of organic compound contains a hydroxyl functional group
A) ester
B) ether
C) carboxylic acid
D) aldehyde
E) ketone
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Chapter 25: Synthetic and Natural Organic Polymers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins occurring in the b-pleated sheet structure
A) are relatively inelastic.
B) never occur in nature.
C) produce structurally weak materials.
D) contain no peptide bonds.
E) are not involved in hydrogen bonds.
Q2) An essential amino acid is one that A) must be included in the diet.
B) contains no sulfur.
C) occurs in all types of proteins.
D) is necessary for vitamin production.
E) the body can synthesize.
Q3) A peptide bond (also called an amide bond) joins two amino acids together. What atoms are linked by this bond
A) C - O
B) C - H
C) C - N
D) N - S
E) S - C
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