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Advanced Pharmacology for Nursing Test Bank - 1305 Verified Questions

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Advanced Pharmacology for Nursing Test Bank

Course Introduction

Advanced Pharmacology for Nursing explores the principles and applications of pharmacotherapeutics in clinical practice, emphasizing the safe and effective use of medications across diverse patient populations. This course covers drug classifications, mechanisms of action, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and the therapeutic implications for major body systems. Students will analyze case studies to understand adverse effects, drug interactions, dosage calculations, and evidence-based medication management. Ethical considerations, legal responsibilities, and the nurses role in patient education and advocacy are integrated, preparing students to make informed clinical decisions in complex healthcare environments.

Recommended Textbook

Understanding Pharmacology 2nd Edition by Workman

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32 Chapters

1305 Verified Questions

1305 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2480 Page 2

Chapter 1: Drug Regulation, Actions, and Responses

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49270

Sample Questions

Q1) Which body tissues or fluids are routes of drug elimination? (select all that apply)

A) Bone marrow

B) Heart

C) Liver

D) Lungs

E) Ovary

F) Saliva

G) Tears

Answer: C,D,F,G

Q2) A patient asks why she becomes sleepy after she takes a specific drug but that her neighbor who takes the same drug at the same dose does not experience sleepiness.What is your best response?

A) "Your neighbor may also be taking another drug to reduce the side effects of this drug."

B) "Your neighbor is probably addicted to this prescribed drug and you are not."

C) "Side effects are very dependent on the time of day when the drug is taken."

D) "People often experience side effects of the same drug differently."

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Safely Preparing and Giving Drugs

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45 Verified Questions

45 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are giving morning medications to a patient who refuses to take an oral dose of docusate (Colace).What is your best response?

A) "Your prescriber ordered that you must take this drug twice a day."

B) "Docusate will soften your bowel movements so that you do not strain."

C) "This drug will help prevent constipation while you are on bed rest."

D) "Can you tell me why you do not want to take the docusate?"

Answer: D

Q2) What is the correct position for a sublingual tablet?

A) As far back on the top of the tongue as possible without swallowing it

B) Between the cheek and the gum of the upper teeth

C) Between the cheek and the gum of the lower teeth

D) Under the front of the tongue

Answer: D

Q3) Which injection site is located on the front of the thigh?

A) Deltoid

B) Dorsogluteal

C) Ventrogluteal

D) Vastus lateralis

Answer: D

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Mathematics Review and Introduction to Dosage Calculation

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most important consideration when using a calculator for drug dosages?

A) Always check the answers with a pharmacist.

B) Ensure the numbers are entered in the correct order.

C) Work the problem by hand and then check all work using the computer.

D) Calculate the answer with the computer and then check the answer by working the problem by hand.

Answer: B

Q2) A patient is prescribed 25 mg of meperidine (Demerol)IV.The drug on hand is meperidine 100 mg/mL.How many milliliters is the correct dose? _____ mL

Answer: 0.23

Want 11ea681a_4366_5647_b611_41908696158c_TB1177_11 ,Have 11ea681a_4366_5648_b611_abb9a1173537_TB1177_11 ; 11ea681a_4366_5649_b611_5172dbbfbbc1_TB1177_11 = 0.25 * 1 mL = 0.25 mL.

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Medical Systems of Weights and Measures

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A mother reports that her child has a temperature of 105.2<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>F.What centigrade temperature does this represent?

A) 36.7<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>

B) 38.7<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>

C) 40.7<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>

D) 42.7<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>

Q2) A child who weighs 42 lb is to receive procainamide 5 mg/kg IV.The injectable drug available is procainamide 100 mg/mL.How many milliliters should you prepare for the correct dose?

Q3) How many ounces are in 1 pint?

A) 8

B) 16

C) 32

D) 64

Q4) How many pounds are in 1 kg?

A) 0.5

B) 1.1

C) 2.2

D) 5

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Chapter 5: Dosage Calculation of Intravenous Solutions and Drugs

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is to receive 1000 mL intravenously of dextrose 5% in lactated Ringer's solution in 8 hours.When you check the intravenous (IV)bag after 2 hours,700 mL remain in the bag.How many milliliters have already infused?

A) 100

B) 300

C) 700

D) 1000

Q2) A patient's IV is supposed to have a drip rate of 42 gtt/min.You count 8 gtt in 15 seconds.What is your best action?

A) Nothing,the IV flow rate is correct.

B) Increase the drip rate to 10 gtt/15 seconds.

C) Increase the drip rate to 15 gtt/15 seconds.

D) Decrease the drip rate to 6 gtt/15 seconds.

Q3) What is the hourly flow rate for 250 mL of normal saline to be administered over 2 hours?

_____ mL/h

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Chapter 6: Anti-Inflammatory Drugs

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43 Verified Questions

43 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which anti-inflammatory drug is classified as a "COX-1" inhibitor?

A) Hydrocortisone (Lanacort)

B) Celecoxib (Celebrex)

C) Zyleuton (Zyflo)

D) Naproxen (Aleve)

Q2) Why are aspirin and aspirin-containing drugs avoided for use in children?

A) Aspirin is associated with the development of Reye's syndrome.

B) Aspirin would drop a child's body temperature below normal.

C) Children are at higher risk for bleeding with aspirin use.

D) A child's liver is unable to metabolize aspirin.

Q3) A nursing home resident has been prescribed to take 20 mg of prednisolone immediately.The facility does not have prednisolone,only prednisone.What is your best action?

A) Substitute prednisone for prednisolone because they are both corticosteroids.

B) Hold the dose until the pharmacy opens the next day.

C) Notify the prescriber immediately of this situation.

D) Administer the parenteral form of the drug.

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Drugs for Pain Control

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which event or condition is most likely to result in chronic pain?

A) Severe headache associated with a spinal tap

B) Insertion of a needle for intravenous (IV)therapy

C) Hip replacement surgery

D) Osteoarthritis

Q2) What is another name for an opioid drug?

A) Nanogram

B) Narcoleptic

C) Nociceptor

D) Narcotic

Q3) In which controlled substance class or schedule does heroin belong?

A) Schedule I

B) Schedule II

C) Schedule III

D) Schedule IV

E) Schedule V

Q4) A 2-month-old infant who weighs 11 lb is prescribed to receive acetaminophen 8 mg/kg by oral liquid.The drug on hand is acetaminophen liquid with a concentration of 80 mg/0.8 mL.How many milliliters is the correct dose for this patient?

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Chapter 8: Anti-Infectives: Antibacterial Drugs

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62 Verified Questions

62 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which two drug types have almost identical chemical structures?

A) Aminoglycosides and "sulfa drugs"

B) Macrolides and fluoroquinolones

C) Penicillins and cephalosporins

D) Tetracyclines and penicillins

Q2) Which condition is most likely to lead to antibacterial drug resistance?

A) Having a parent with antibacterial drug resistance

B) Receiving prolonged antibacterial drug therapy

C) Taking an antibacterial drug for the very first time

D) Being allergic to a specific antibacterial drug

Q3) A patient receiving antibiotics for 3 days reports a skin rash over the chest,back,and arms.What is your first action?

A) Ask the patient whether he or she has ever developed a rash while taking another drug.

B) Reassure the patient that many people have this expected reaction to antibiotic therapy.

C) Ask the patient whether the rash itches,burns,or causes other types of discomfort.

D) Document the report as the only action.

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Chapter 9: Anti-Infectives: Antiviral Drugs

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking zidovudine (Retrovir)reports diarrhea.Which dietary change should you suggest for this patient?

A) "Avoid fatty and fried foods."

B) "Increase your intake of fiber."

C) "Take an antacid 30 minutes before each meal."

D) "Restrict your intake of fluids to 1 L/day."

Q2) A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patient taking highly active antiretroviral therapy informs you that she is now pregnant.What advice regarding drug therapy do you give this patient?

A) "Stop taking these drugs for your entire pregnancy."

B) "Stop taking these drugs for the first trimester and start again for the second and third trimesters."

C) "Continue to take these drugs throughout your pregnancy exactly as they have been prescribed."

D) "It will be necessary to double your dosages of these drugs to ensure your unborn baby is adequately protected."

Q3) A patient is prescribed 45 mg of enfuvirtide by subcutaneous injection.The available drug is a premixed solution of enfuvirtide with a concentration of 90 mg/mL.

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11

Chapter 10: Anti-Infectives: Antitubercular and Antifungal Drugs

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient is prescribed systemic antifungal therapy for 1 month.Which precautions are important to teach this patient? (select all that apply)

A) "Avoid drinking coffee or any other beverages or food that contain caffeine."

B) "Check your pulse daily and report any new irregularities to your prescriber."

C) "Examine all bowel movements and any vomit for the presence of pus and report it to your prescriber."

D) "Look at the whites of your eyes daily and if a yellow color appears,report it to your prescriber."

E) "If your daily urine output drops below a liter less than your daily fluid intake,notify your prescriber immediately."

Q2) Which antifungal drug causes "red man syndrome?"

A) Amphotericin B

B) Ketoconazole

C) Caspofungin

D) Fluconazole

Q3) A patient who weighs 220 lb is prescribed 20 mg/kg of ethambutol (EMB).The ethambutol tablets available 400 mg/scored tablet.How many tablets will you give?

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Drugs That Affect the Immune System

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A woman whose father has shingles has a blood antibody titer to varicella zoster virus (VZV)of zero (0).What is the correct interpretation of this information?

A) The woman has full immunity against shingles.

B) The woman should receive the shingles vaccination.

C) The woman is highly likely to develop shingles from her father.

D) The woman is at risk for developing chickenpox from her father.

Q2) A child is receiving a seasonal influenza vaccination administered by nasal inhalation.What type of immunity is expected to develop as a result of this vaccination method?

A) Artificially acquired passive immunity

B) Artificially acquired active immunity

C) Naturally acquired passive immunity

D) Naturally acquired active immunity

Q3) Which drug is administered as an oral agent?

A) Antithymocyte globulin (Atgam)

B) Basiliximab (Simulect)

C) Sirolimus (Rapamune)

D) Daclizumab (Zenapax)

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Chapter 12: Anticancer Drugs

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement regarding "dose dense" chemotherapy is true?

A) It requires large volumes of intravenous fluids because it is very thick.

B) It can be given only to patients whose cancers have a specific target.

C) The dosage is based on the type of cancer and not on patient size.

D) The side effects are more severe and harder to control.

Q2) Why is it necessary to wear personal protective equipment (PPE)when preparing or administering chemotherapy?

A) To allow maximum potency to be maintained

B) To keep the drugs from becoming contaminated

C) To prevent absorption through skin and mucous membranes

D) To ensure the patient's blood does not come into direct contact with another person

Q3) Which term means a substance that can cause cancer development?

A) Malignant transformation

B) Thrombocytopenia

C) Carcinogen

D) Emetogenic

Q4) An infant with cancer is to receive vincristine (Oncovin)0.05 mg/kg intravenously.The infant weighs 18 lb.What is the appropriate dose,in mg?

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Drug Therapy for Diabetes

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which class of oral antidiabetic drug can cause severe hypoglycemia when used alone?

A) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

B) Thiazolidinediones

C) Sulfonylureas

D) Biguanides

Q2) What is the action of the biguanide class of antidiabetic drugs that lowers blood glucose levels?

A) Directly forcing beta cells to release more insulin

B) Inhibiting the enzyme that breaks down insulin

C) Preventing the breakdown of glycogen into glucose

D) Increasing the person's need for glucose

Q3) A patient who has been taking metformin (Glucophage)for a year is seen in the clinic and has all of the following laboratory results.Which result do you report to the prescriber immediately?

A) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)38 mg/dL

B) Red blood cell (RBC)count 4.1 million/mm<sup>3</sup>

C) Random blood glucose level 135 mg/dL

D) Alkaline phosphatase 40 IU/L

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Drug Therapy for Thyroid and Adrenal Gland

Problems

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37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which problem is a side effect of excessive thyroid hormone replacement drugs?

A) Weight gain

B) Hypertension

C) Peripheral neuropathy

D) Increased daytime sleepiness

Q2) Which mineral is critical for the thyroid to use in making thyroid hormones?

A) Lithium

B) Sodium

C) Chloride

D) Iodine

Q3) Which term means the energy use of each cell and the work performed by the body?

A) Goiter

B) Menarche

C) Metabolism

D) Thyrotoxicosis

Q4) A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed an immediate dose of propylthiouracil (Propacil)150 mg orally.The available drug is propylthiouracil 50 mg/tablet.How many tablets should you administer?

_____ tablets

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Chapter 15: Drugs That Affect Urine Output

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which are common signs and symptoms when a patient is dehydrated? (Select all that apply. )

A) Decreased pulse rate

B) Low blood pressure

C) Thirst

D) Swollen eyeballs

E) Dry mouth

Q2) A patient taking tolterodine (Detrol)reports decreased urination,ankle swelling,and a weight gain of 5 lb over the past 2 days.What should you do next?

A) Hold the dose and notifies the prescriber.

B) Check the patient's blood pressure and heart rate.

C) Give the next dose as prescribed.

D) Document the finding as the only action.

Q3) What must you teach any patient who is taking a diuretic drug?

A) Avoid foods that are rich in potassium such as bananas and broccoli.

B) Sit on the side of the bed for 1 to 2 minutes before getting out of bed.

C) Notify the prescriber if the heart rate is less than 70 beats/min.

D) Keep a record of dietary intake for a few weeks.

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17

Chapter 16: Drug Therapy for Hypertension

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54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the difference between primary hypertension and secondary hypertension?

A) Secondary hypertension is not as severe as primary hypertension.

B) Primary hypertension usually occurs at an earlier age than secondary hypertension.

C) Secondary hypertension is caused by another health problem,whereas primary hypertension does not have a known cause.

D) Primary hypertension can be treated with antihypertensive drugs,whereas secondary hypertension does not respond to drug therapy.

Q2) A patient has been prescribed losartan (Cozaar).Which substance,drug,or activity do you teach the patient to avoid?

A) Oral contraceptives

B) Salt substitutes

C) Caffeine

D) Running

Q3) What condition is a major cause of long-term high blood pressure?

A) Atherosclerosis

B) Bleeding disorders

C) Chronic liver disease

D) Diabetes insipidus

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Chapter 17: Drug Therapy for Heart Failure

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52 Verified Questions

52 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the mechanism of action for cardiac glycosides?

A) Slowing the heart rate and increasing the force of the heart muscle contraction

B) Increasing the heart rate and decreasing the force of the heart muscle contraction

C) Directly relaxing blood vessel muscles and decreasing afterload

D) Directly constricting blood vessel muscles and increasing afterload

Q2) After giving the first dose of any antihypertensive drug for heart failure,what action must be taken for a hospitalized patient's safety?

A) Recheck the drug order for accuracy.

B) Ensure that the call light is within reach.

C) Place a wheelchair in the patient's room.

D) Raise all four side rails on the patient's bed.

Q3) Which two factors are most likely to result in improved cardiac output?

A) Greater preload;greater afterload

B) Greater preload;reduced afterload

C) Reduced preload;greater afterload

D) Reduced preload;reduced afterload

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Chapter 18: Drug Therapy for Dysrhythmias

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48 Verified Questions

48 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most important action when caring for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is prescribed a beta blocker?

A) Assess the patient's feet daily.

B) Monitor for infection.

C) Administer oral diabetic drugs.

D) Regularly check the patient's blood glucose.

Q2) A patient is prescribed an oral loading dose of amiodarone (Cordarone)1600 mg.Amiodarone is available in 400 mg tablets.How many tablets should you give?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 8

Q3) What type of dysrhythmia or cardiac problem is usually treated with magnesium sulfate?

A) Asystole

B) Heart block

C) Chest pain

D) Torsades de pointes

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Chapter 19: Drug Therapy for High Blood Lipids

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44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why should you ask a patient prescribed a "statin" drug for hyperlipidemia about his or her daily alcohol consumption?

A) Alcohol increases the action of most statin drugs and can lead to side effects.

B) Statin drugs increase the action of alcoholic beverages causing a person to feel drunk only after two drinks.

C) Taking a statin and consuming more than two alcoholic drinks per day is stressful on the liver.

D) Alcohol interferes with the action of statin drugs so the prescriber must order a much higher dose.

Q2) A patient who is prescribed niacin (Niacor)reports experiencing flushing and hot flashes.What is your best action?

A) Hold the drug and notify the prescriber.

B) Give the niacin at least 1 hour before meals.

C) Reassure the patient that this is an expected side effect.

D) Administer the ordered NSAID 30 minutes before the niacin.

Q3) A patient is prescribed to receive simvastatin (Zocor)60 mg orally.The drug on hand is simvastatin 40 mg/scored tablet.How many tablets should you give for the correct dose?

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Chapter 20: Drugs That Affect Blood Clotting

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48 Verified Questions

48 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most common purpose of the international normalized ratio (INR)?

A) Measuring the total amount of blood a person has

B) Reporting the results of warfarin anticoagulation

C) Assessing the number of clotting factors present

D) Determining the number of platelets

Q2) Which category of drugs actually dissolves existing clots?

A) Heparins

B) Coagulants

C) Antiplatelets

D) Thrombolytics

Q3) What actions are performed when giving a subcutaneous injection of low-molecular-weight heparin? (select all that apply)

A) Position the patient lying down.

B) Expel the air bubble before injection.

C) Insert the needle into a skinfold held between the thumb and forefinger.

D) Release the skinfold then inject the drug.

E) Rub the injection site to avoid bruising.

Q4) A patient is prescribed 300 mg of oral clopidogrel (Plavix)as a first dose.The drug on hand is clopidogrel 75 mg.How many tablets should you give?

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Chapter 21: Drug Therapy for Asthma and Other Respiratory Problems

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44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) How do mucolytics help asthma and chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD)?

A) Reducing inflammation

B) Inducing bronchodilation

C) Reducing mucus thickness

D) Enhancing respiratory rate

Q2) Which part of the respiratory system is most affected by asthma?

A) Alveoli

B) Airway

C) Trachea

D) Cartilage

Q3) A patient who has been prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid develops a thick white coating on the tongue and patches on the inside cheeks.What is your best action?

A) Instruct the patient to stop using the inhaler until the coating is gone.

B) Obtain a culture of the coating and take the patient's temperature.

C) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber immediately.

D) Document the finding and notify the prescriber.

Q4) A patient who weighs 125 lb is prescribed to receive treprostinil (Remodulin)1.25 ng/kg/min for the next 4 hours.What is the total dose this patient should receive in 4 hours?

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Drug Therapy for Gastrointestinal Problems

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47 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement by a patient prescribed an antidiarrheal drug indicates the need for additional teaching?

A) "I will never take a double dose of my medication even if I miss a dose."

B) "I will get up slowly when I get out of bed or rise from a chair."

C) "I will contact my prescriber if the diarrhea is not relieved within 4 days."

D) "I will avoid alcohol while taking my antidiarrheal medication."

Q2) Which common drug for nausea/vomiting is a 5HT<sub>3</sub>-receptor antagonist?

A) Granisetron

B) Promethazine

C) Scopolamine

D) Metoclopramide

Q3) The mother of a 6-year-old child receiving diphenoxylate (Lomotil)for the last 4 days for diarrhea reports by telephone that the diarrhea has stopped and that the child's pants cannot be zipped or buttoned today.What is your best advice?

A) "Give the child only half the dose of the drug today."

B) "Do not give the child fluids for the next 24 hours."

C) "Stop the drug and go immediately to the prescriber's office."

D) "This is expected because when diarrhea is cured the stool enlarges the abdomen."

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Drug Therapy for Gastric Ulcers and Reflux

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44 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which activity interferes with the action of histamine H2 blockers?

A) Going to bed late

B) Smoking cigarettes

C) Eating dairy products

D) Taking oral contraceptives

Q2) A patient who has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet)for a year has all of the following symptoms.Which symptom should be reported immediately to the prescriber?

A) Darkened urine and white stool

B) Altered food taste and dry mouth

C) Weekly constipation with bloating

D) Reduced interest in sexual activity

Q3) Which drug forms a protective coating over an ulcer but does not coat normal stomach mucosa?

A) Sucralfate (Carafate)

B) Lansoprazole (Prevacid)

C) Metoclopramide (Reglan)

D) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)

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Chapter 24: Drug Therapy With Nutritional Supplements

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What should you check before administering an enteral feeding by mouth?

A) Gag reflex

B) Frequency of reflux

C) Foods that cause nausea

D) Consistency of bowel movements

Q2) Which condition results from a deficit of vitamin C?

A) Beriberi

B) Pellagra

C) Scurvy

D) Megaloblastic anemia

Q3) A patient is prescribed to receive 240 mL of the supplemental feeding,Jevity,over 2 hours.At what rate in milliliters per hour will you set the feeding pump?

Q4) Which type of nutrient deficiency should you assess for in a patient who eats mostly fresh fruit,red and yellow vegetables,rice,milk,and other dairy products?

A) Vitamin A

B) Iron

C) Sodium

D) Fluoride

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Chapter 25: Drug Therapy for Seizures

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46 Verified Questions

46 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is another term for seizure disorder?

A) Epilepsy

B) Enkephalin

C) Narcolepsy

D) Neuropathy

Q2) Which two conditions are possible complications of status epilepticus?

A) Blurred vision and ringing in the ears

B) Muscle paralysis and weakness

C) Brain damage and death

D) Asthma and wheezing

Q3) What should you teach a patient who is prescribed ethosuximide (Zarontin)about spending time outdoors?

A) Move slowly to avoid dizziness.

B) Wear dark glasses when the sun is bright.

C) Be sure to wear long sleeves and a broad-brimmed hat.

D) Apply a strong sunscreen whenever you will be exposed to sunlight.

Q4) An infant is prescribed phenobarbital 4 mg/kg in an oral suspension.The infant weighs 11 lb.How many milligrams will you give?

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Chapter 26: Drug Therapy for Alzheimers and Parkinsons Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which problem is a common side effect of most drugs used to treat Parkinson's disease?

A) Asthma

B) Hypotension

C) Constipation

D) Weight gain

Q2) A patient is prescribed donepezil (Aricept)for Alzheimer's disease.What assessment is most important after giving this drug?

A) Blood pressure

B) Bowel sounds

C) Peripheral pulses

D) Signs of bleeding

Q3) A patient is prescribed entacapone (Comtan)800 mg/day.The drug is available in 200 mg tablets.How many tablets should you give?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 8

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Chapter 27: Drug Therapy for Psychiatric Problems

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44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49296

Sample Questions

Q1) A female patient who has been prescribed diazepam (Valium)for anxiety tells you that she and her husband are planning to have a child.What is your best response?

A) "Before becoming pregnant your dosage of diazepam will need to be decreased."

B) "You should always discuss any changes in your medications and lifestyle with your prescriber."

C) "Consult with your prescriber because taking diazepam while pregnant has been associated with birth defects."

D) "Diazepam may cause withdrawal effects including miscarriage when taken during pregnancy."

Q2) Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is prescribed any antidepressant drug?

A) "Avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking this drug."

B) "Avoid drinking alcoholic beverages while taking this drug."

C) "Be sure to wear sunscreen and a hat when going outdoors."

D) "Drink at least 3 L of fluid every day while taking this drug."

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Chapter 28: Drug Therapy for Insomnia

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49297

Sample Questions

Q1) Which class of drugs used to treat insomnia has the lowest likelihood to be habit forming or addictive?

A) Barbiturates

B) Benzodiazepines

C) Sedating antidepressants

D) Benzodiazepine receptor agonists

Q2) What precaution is needed in managing the care of a patient with insomnia who also has liver disease?

A) Monitor carefully for increased side effects and adverse effects.

B) Teach the patient that a higher dose is needed for effective action.

C) Check the patient's electrolytes before administering the drug.

D) Assess the patient's gag reflex every hour.

Q3) Which drug can increase the risk for seizures in a patient who has epilepsy?

A) Pentobarbital (Nembutal)

B) Romazicon (Flumazenil)

C) Secobarbital (Seconal)

D) Triazolam (Halcion)

Q4) An adult patient is prescribed 0.5 mg of triazolam (Halcion)as a one-time order.The available drug is triazolam 0.125 mg/tablet.How many tablets should be given?

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Chapter 29: Drug Therapy for Eye Problems

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36 Verified Questions

36 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49298

Sample Questions

Q1) Which drug group for glaucoma has the side effect of darkening the iris color?

A) Adrenergic agonists

B) Beta blockers

C) Cholinergics

D) Prostaglandin agonists

Q2) A patient is prescribed methazolamide (Neptazane)75 mg orally.The drug available is methazolamide 25 mg/tablet.How many tablets should be administered to the patient?

_____ tablet(s)

Q3) Which drug group for glaucoma can worsen asthma?

A) Adrenergic agonists

B) Beta blockers

C) Cholinergics

D) Prostaglandin agonists

Q4) Which assessment is most important to perform before instilling latanoprost (Xalatan)into a patient's eyes?

A) Measure the patient's temperature.

B) Measure the patient's intraocular pressure.

C) Check the cornea for abrasions or open areas.

D) Assess heart rate and rhythm for 1 full minute.

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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49299

Sample Questions

Q1) In what way do uric acid synthesis inhibitors reduce gout symptoms?

A) Increasing the amount of enzymes that enhance urinary excretion of uric acid

B) Suppressing the reabsorption of sodium and calcium by the kidney tubules

C) Decreasing the inflammation and pain caused by joint damage

D) Suppressing the conversion of purines into uric acid crystals

Q2) Which patient is at greater risk for having a severe allergic reaction from an infusion with denosumab (Prolia)?

A) The patient who is also being treated for gastroesophageal reflux disease.

B) The patient who has been taking Prolia every 6 months for 2 years.

C) The patient who is about to receive her first dose of prolia.

D) The patient who has an allergy to peanuts.

Q3) Which drugs belong to the estrogen agonist/antagonist class? (select all that apply)

A) Alendronate (Fosamax)

B) Densosumab (Prolia)

C) Estrogen/bazedoxifene (Duavee)

D) Ibandronate (Boniva)

E) Raloxifene (Evista)

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Page 32

Chapter 31: Drug Therapy for Male Reproductive Problems

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49300

Sample Questions

Q1) Which test or examination does a patient receive before taking any drug for benign prostate hypertrophy (BPH)?

A) Digital rectal examination

B) 24-hour urinalysis

C) Kidney function test

D) Urine culture

Q2) For which patient should you question an order for the dutasteride (Avodart)0.5 mg orally once a day?

A) 55-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

B) 63-year-old male with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

C) 71-year-old male with liver disease (hepatotoxicity)

D) 82-year-old male with kidney disease (nephrotoxicity)

Q3) What question should you be sure to ask before administering a dose of tamsulosin (Flomax)to a patient?

A) "Do you have a history of high blood pressure?"

B) "Have you ever had a problem with liver disease?"

C) "Are you allergic to any of the sulfa drugs?"

D) "How often are you sexually active?"

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33

Chapter 32: Drug Therapy for Female Reproductive Issues

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49301

Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of oral contraceptive drug must be taken every day of the month to be effective?

A) An estrogen-progestin combination

B) An estrogen only "mini" pill

C) A progestin-drospirenone combination

D) A progestin only "mini" pill

Q2) Which laboratory finding in a perimenopausal woman who takes Premarin should be reported to the prescriber?

A) Random blood glucose 116 mg/dL

B) Potassium 4.8 mEq/L

C) Sodium 146 mEq/L

D) Hematocrit 27%

Q3) A woman taking oral contraceptives reports the following changes.Which one is an expected side effect and requires no intervention?

A) Calf swelling

B) Severe constipation

C) Increased breast size

D) Heavier menstrual periods

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