Advanced Pharmacology for Dental Professionals
Question Bank
Course Introduction
This course delves into the principles of pharmacology as they relate specifically to dental practice, offering an in-depth exploration of drug actions, interactions, and therapeutic uses relevant to oral health care. Emphasis is placed on the mechanisms of commonly prescribed medications, including analgesics, antibiotics, local anesthetics, and agents used for the management of systemic conditions affecting dental treatment. Students will develop advanced knowledge in pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, as well as safe prescription practices, recognition and management of adverse drug reactions, and understanding regulatory considerations. The course also covers emerging drug therapies and evidence-based approaches to pharmacological management in complex dental cases, preparing dental professionals for enhanced clinical decision-making and patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Applied Pharmacology for the Dental Hygienist 7th Edition by Haveles
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27 Chapters
1027 Verified Questions
1027 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Information Sources, Regulatory Agencies, Drug
Legislation, and Prescription Writing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Schedule III controlled substances may be telephoned to the pharmacist and may be refilled no more than five times in 6 months.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true; the second part is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false; the second part is true.
Answer: A
Q2) An "orphan drug" is:
A) not related to any other medication currently available.
B) developed specifically to treat a rare medical condition.
C) a drug that has been on the market for longer than 20 years and generic substitution is permitted.
D) no longer available for use as newer, more effective medications are available.
Answer: B
Q3) The body of a prescription includes directions to the patient.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Drug Action and Handling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following reactions is considered to be in the category of phase II drug metabolism?
A) Conjugation
B) Reduction
C) Hydrolysis
D) Oxidation
Answer: A
Q2) All of the following choices are true with regard to cytochrome P-450 hepatic microsomal enzymes except that they:
A) can be induced to speed up drug metabolism.
B) can be inhibited to slow down drug metabolism.
C) exist as numerous isoenzymes.
D) inactivate drugs through conjugation reactions.
Answer: D
Q3) Which term refers to the time required for a drug to begin to have its effect?
A) First pass
B) Duration
C) Onset
D) Efficacy
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Adverse Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following choices refer to adverse reactions involving exaggerated effects on target tissues except:
A) overreaction of a sensitive patient.
B) administration of too large a dose.
C) caused by a nontherapeutic action of a drug.
D) possibly resulting from liver or kidney disease.
Answer: C
Q2) A dose-related reaction that produces undesirable effects caused by the action on nontarget organs is called a:
A) therapeutic effect.
B) toxic reaction.
C) side effect.
D) drug allergy.
Answer: C
Q3) A genetically related abnormal drug response is called a(n):
A) toxic reaction.
B) idiosyncratic reaction.
C) side effect.
D) drug allergy.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Autonomic Drugs
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following statements are true of d-tubocurarine except which one?
A) It is a competitive nondepolarizing blocker.
B) It binds to nicotinic receptors.
C) It precipitates malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients when combined with halothane.
D) It has been used in the Amazon for hunting animals.
E) Its action can be overcome by administering neostigmine.
Q2) Which of the following agents is being used to produce methamphetamine?
A) Phenylephrine
B) Pseudoephedrine
C) Dopamine
D) Dipivefrin
Q3) Which of the following agents is an indirect-acting sympathetic agonist?
A) Albuterol
B) Pseudoephedrine
C) Amphetamine
D) Physostigmine
E) Epinephrine
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6
Chapter 5: Nonopioid (Nonnarcotic)Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following raises the pain threshold?
A) Emotional instability
B) Sympathy
C) Sleep
D) Both a and c
E) Both b and c
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning the pharmacokinetics of aspirin?
A) Plain, unbuffered aspirin produces its peak effect on an empty stomach in 15 minutes.
B) Buffered aspirin has a slower peak of aspirin than plain aspirin.
C) The half-life of unhydrolyzed aspirin is approximately 90 minutes.
D) Aspirin exhibits zero-order kinetics.
Q3) Pain relief by nonopioid analgesics is mediated via action:
A) at the central nervous system (CNS).
B) at the peripheral nervous system.
C) both centrally and peripherally.
D) None of the above are correct.
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Chapter 6: Opioid (Narcotic)Analgesics and Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with itching and urticaria after codeine administration. This response most likely represents a:
A) pharmacologic action of codeine.
B) hypersensitivity reaction to codeine.
C) placebo effect from receiving codeine.
D) reaction unrelated to codeine administration.
Q2) Enkephalins, endorphins, and dynorphins probably function as _____, although their exact function has not been elucidated.
A) prostaglandins
B) neurotransmitters
C) sedative-hypnotics
D) enzymes
Q3) Dentists prescribed about _____% of all opioids prescribed in the United States in 2002.
A) 2
B) 12
C) 22
D) 32
E) 42
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Antiinfective Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true concerning infection and host resistance?
A) Host resistance should be considered as having both local and systemic components.
B) Drugs such as steroids are capable of reducing a patient's immunity.
C) Juvenile diabetes may reduce a patient's immunity; however, insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)does not reduce immunity.
D) Both a and b
E) Both b and c
Q2) Infective endocarditis prophylaxis with an antiinfective is indicated for patients who have had:
A) coronary artery bypass surgery.
B) a prosthetic heart valve.
C) functional murmur.
D) a cardiac pacemaker.
Q3) The usual adult dose of penicillin V for treatment of an infection is:
A) 250 mg twice a day (bid).
B) 250 mg four times a day (qid).
C) 500 mg twice a day (bid).
D) 500 mg four times a day (qid).
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Chapter 8: Antifungal and Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ketoconazole should not be used with _____ because it could reduce the absorption of ketoconazole.
A) penicillin V
B) metronidazole
C) anticholinergic agents
D) acyclovir
Q2) All currently available interferons are parenteral.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following groups of drugs used to treat HIV can interfere with the action of the HIV-infected cells?
A) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
D) Both a and b
E) Both b and c
Q4) Topical acyclovir can prevent the recurrence of herpes labialis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) For lengthy dental procedures, bupivacaine is recommended over lidocaine because bupivacaine has a longer duration of action.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Levonordefrin is commonly combined with which local anesthetic?
A) Lidocaine
B) Procaine
C) Mepivacaine
D) Bupivacaine
Q3) Which of the following dental local anesthetics are available without vasoconstrictor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Mepivacaine
B) Prilocaine
C) Articaine
D) Bupivacaine
Q4) Which local anesthetic agent is derived from thiophene?
A) Tetracaine
B) Bupivacaine
C) Articaine
D) Propoxycaine
Page 11
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Chapter 10: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nitrous oxide has been shown to reduce the activity of methionine synthetase, the enzyme involved with the function of which vitamin?
A) Vitamin B
B) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin B
D) Folic acid
E) Vitamin B
Q2) Which of the following are true of etomidate? (Select all that apply.)
A) It is a halogenated hydrocarbon for general anesthesia.
B) It is used for induction of general anesthesia.
C) It can cause adrenal suppression.
D) It produces dissociative anesthesia.
Q3) At the termination of a N O/O sedation procedure, the patient should be placed on 100% oxygen for at least _____ minutes.
A) 2
B) 5
C) 8
D) 11
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Antianxiety Agents
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benzodiazepines enhance or facilitate the action of the neurotransmitter:
A) acetylcholine.
B) epinephrine.
C) -aminobutyric acid (GABA).
D) serotonin
Q2) Which of the following agents used for dental anxiety has a fast onset and short half-life?
A) Triazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Lorazepam
D) Alprazolam
Q3) When benzodiazepines are used in dentistry to produce conscious sedation, the appearance of __________ is used as an initial endpoint for the dose administered.
A) flushed skin
B) miosis
C) ptosis
D) rapid eye movement
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Chapter 12: Oral Conditions and Their Treatment
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with an oral ulcer that begins at an interdental papillae. The condition most likely is:
A) herpetic gingivostomatitis.
B) acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG).
C) aphthous stomatitis.
D) pericoronitis.
Q2) A decrease in vertical dimension is thought to contribute to angular cheilitis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which subtype of lichen planus is characterized by a white, lacelike pattern intersecting to form a reticular pattern?
A) Striated
B) Plaquelike
C) Erosive
D) Hypertrophic
E) Idiopathic
Q4) The most common drug implicated in lichenoid-like eruptions is hydrochlorothiazide.
A)True
B)False
14
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Chapter 13: Hygiene-Related Oral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following treatments is the most effective in reducing gingivitis?
A) Sodium 2% fluoride
B) APF 1.23%
C) 0.4% SnF and 1.1% NaF in APF
D) 0.3% triclosan
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning chronic fluoride toxicity?
A) Drinking water with more than 2 ppm of fluoride can lead to fluorosis of tooth enamel during the age of tooth mineralization.
B) Dentinal hypoplasia is the most common sign of chronic fluoride toxicity during tooth development.
C) Color changes in tooth enamel caused by chronic fluoride toxicity are a result of hypermineralization of the outer one third of tooth enamel.
D) Children that drink water with at least 0.6 ppm of fluoride and ingest fluoride supplements are at risk for developing chronic toxicity.
Q3) Dental disorders result in 7 million days of lost work each year.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Drugs for the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disease
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86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common adverse reactions associated with thiazides include:
A) hypokalemia and hypouricemia.
B) hyperkalemia and hypouricemia.
C) hypokalemia and hyperuricemia.
D) hyperkalemia and hyperuricemia.
Q2) Which class of agents is of special benefit to diabetics?
A) -Adrenergic blockers
B) Calcium channel blocker (CCB)
C) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)
D) Anticholinergics
Q3) The cells of cardiac muscles have an intrinsic rhythm called:
A) spontaneity.
B) automaticity.
C) anarchy.
D) hierarchy.
Q4) Nitroglycerine (NTG)is used for what cardiovascular disease?
A) Atherosclerosis
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Arrhythmias
D) Angina pectoris
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Chapter 15: Drugs for the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which agent inhibits the hydrogen/potassium adenosine triphosphate (H /K ATPase)enzyme system found at the surface of the gastric parietal cell?
A) Ketoconazole
B) Lansoprazole
C) Misoprostol
D) Famotidine
E) Metronidazole
Q2) Which histamine-2 (H )-blocking agent has been associated with dry mouth and taste alterations?
A) Cimetidine (Tagamet)
B) Ranitidine (Zantac)
C) Famotidine (Pepcid)
D) Meclizine (Bonine)
Q3) Opioids may be used to treat diarrhea.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antacids are the best treatment for peptic ulcers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Drugs for the Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clonazepam (Klonopin)is:
A) a chemical analogue carbamazepine.
B) used parenterally to treat status epilepticus.
C) used as an adjunct to treat ethosuximide-resistant absence seizures.
D) not effective in akinetic seizures.
E) an inhibitor of sodium channels.
Q2) Which antiepileptic medication has been known to produce osteomalacia?
A) Carbamazepine
B) Phenytoin
C) Ethosuximide
D) Gabapentin
E) Lamotrigine
Q3) Valproate is associated with toxicity of which of the following organs?
A) Heart
B) Kidney
C) Liver
D) Pancreas
Q4) Vitamin C is an effective adjunctive therapy for gingival enlargement.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Drugs for the Treatment of Central Nervous
System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the tricyclic antidepressants listed, which one is most sedating?
A) Imipramine
B) Nortriptyline
C) Protriptyline
D) Desipramine
E) Amitriptyline
Q2) All antidepressants will carry a boxed warning about the potential for patient suicide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Interaction of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)with many drugs such as amphetamines, and with foods such as wines, cheese, and fish, can precipitate:
A) hair loss.
B) hypertensive crisis.
C) gout.
D) dysgeusia.
Q4) SSRIs tend to produce CNS stimulation rather than CNS depression.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) ACTH is secreted from the _____ in response to _____.
A) hypothalamus, stress
B) adrenal cortex, corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
C) adrenal cortex, stress
D) hypothalamus, hydrocortisone
E) pituitary gland, CRH
Q2) Which of the following choices is a disease or condition produced by an excess of adrenocorticosteroids?
A) Addison disease
B) Cushing syndrome
C) Graves disease
D) Parkinson disease
Q3) Evaluation of the need for corticosteroid supplementation before a dental procedure is based primarily on the procedure being performed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Corticosteroids increase resistance to infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Drugs for the Treatment of Respiratory Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Orally inhaled corticosteroids produce an immediate benefit in an acute asthma attack.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following drugs can result in oral candidiasis?
A) Fluticasone
B) Phenytoin
C) Acetaminophen
D) Metoprolol
E) Omeprazole
Q3) _____ is a concern when administering local anesthetics with sulfiting agents as a preservative for the vasoconstrictor.
A) Tardive dyskinesia
B) Bronchoconstriction
C) Tachycardia
D) Emesis
Q4) Nonchlorinated hydrofluoroalkane (HFA)propellants do not deplete the ozone layer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Drugs for the Treatment of Allergic Rhinitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term _______ refers to agents that are H -blockers.
A) histamine
B) antihistamine
C) adrenergic
D) cholinergic
Q2) Which of the following classes of antibodies is triggered when an allergen is inhaled in an individual with a sensitized immune system?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
Q3) Which of the following symptoms is the most common side effect associated with the older antihistamines? (Please note: all are associated, but one is most common)
A) Nausea
B) Xerostomia
C) Sedation
D) Constipation
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Chapter 21: Drugs for the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin is usually administered:
A) orally.
B) by subcutaneous injection.
C) by intramuscular injection.
D) by intravenous injection.
Q2) Which of the following types of medications can react with sulfonylureas to produce a decrease in serum glucose levels?
A) Penicillin
B) Methotrexate
C) Aspirin
D) Mepivacaine
Q3) Diabetic gastroparesis can be treated with:
A) amitriptyline.
B) carbamazepine.
C) ranitidine.
D) metoclopramide.
Q4) Diabetes is the major cause of blindness in adults.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Drugs for the Treatment of Other Endocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are side effects associated with oral contraceptives except which one?
A) Blood clot
B) Weight gain
C) Headache
D) Nausea
E) Anorexia
Q2) Hormonal contraceptives have the potential to cause or aggravate gingival inflammation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) No treatment should be initiated for any patient with a visible goiter, exophthalmos, or a history of taking antithyroid drugs until approval is obtained from the patient's physician.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hormones from the opposite sex are often used to manage prostate, breast, and uterine cancers.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 23: Antineoplastic Drugs
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Q1) Bisphosphonate related osteonecrosis of the jaw (BRONJ)is most likely to occur after which of the following dental procedures?
A) Crown preparation
B) Endodontic treatment
C) Tooth extraction
D) Prophylaxis
Q2) What is the intraoral appearance of oral mucositis as a consequence of chemotherapy for cancer?
A) Lacy white lines that represent Wickham's striae
B) Mouth sores on the soft tissue of the tongue and inside the mouth
C) Single or small clusters of vesicles that quickly rupture, forming painful ulcers
D) Chronic, multiple oral ulcerations and a history of oral and skin blisters
Q3) Bisphosphonate-free holidays are not recommended before a dental procedure because these drugs stay in the bone for years.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Emergency Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following actions are indicated for the management of acute airway obstruction except which one?
A) Placing the patient in a Trendelenburg position
B) Clearing the pharynx and pulling the tongue forward
C) Allowing the patient to sit upright
D) Administering the Heimlich maneuver
E) Performing cricothyrotomy
Q2) Convulsions are generally self-limiting, and treatment should include protecting the patient from self-harm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is true concerning treatment for a patient who is hyperventilating?
A) Opioid analgesics or diazepam will resolve the situation.
B) The treatment is calm reassurance.
C) Steroids and aminophylline may be administered.
D) Parenteral epinephrine is the drug of choice.
Q4) Drugs are not necessary for the proper management of most emergencies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Pregnancy and Breast Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) All NSAIDs carry a warning to avoid use during pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following antiinfective agents is regarded as safe to use during pregnancy?
A) Doxycycline
B) Azithromycin
C) Minocycline
D) Amoxicillin
Q3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the effect of opioids such as codeine on an infant after administration to the mother?
A) Opioids appear in breast milk when analgesic doses are administered.
B) If the mother is addicted, the infant will experience withdrawal symptoms after birth.
C) The infant should be observed for signs of euphoria.
D) Both a and b are true.
E) Both b and c are true.
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Chapter 26: Drug Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of alcoholism?
A) A genetic link for alcoholism exists.
B) Inpatient detoxification is required for most alcoholics.
C) Penicillin is known to produce a disulfiram-like reaction.
D) A patient will vomit if he or she takes naltrexone while consuming alcohol.
Q2) At which stage of ethyl alcohol withdrawal are hallucinations most prevalent?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Ethyl alcohol withdrawal is not associated with hallucinations.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding addiction, habituation, and dependence?
A) When comparing drugs of the same group, the time required to produce physical dependence is longest with a rapidly metabolized drug and shortest with a slowly metabolized drug.
B) Cross-tolerance may be either partial or complete and is determined more by the pharmacologic effect of the drug than by its chemical structure.
C) The longer the half-life of the drug is, the quicker the withdrawal will be.
D) A barbiturate can be substituted for an opioid, and vice versa.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Natural/Herbal Products and Dietary Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The recent trend in the use of natural or herbal substances has been a(n)_____ in the use of these products and the number of people using them.
A) exponential rise
B) steady rise
C) slight decrease
D) marked decline
Q2) The FDA inspects all manufacturing facilities of herbal products for compliance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which government entity bears responsibility for proof of misleading labeling of herbal products?
A) DEA
B) FDA
C) DSHEA
D) OSHA
Q4) Labels for DSHEA products can contain claims of effects on the structure or function of the body.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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