Advanced Pharmacology Exam Practice Tests - 1439 Verified Questions

Advanced Pharmacology Exam Practice Tests

Course Introduction

Advanced Pharmacology is an in-depth exploration of the principles, mechanisms, and clinical applications of pharmacological agents. This course builds on foundational knowledge, focusing on the molecular and cellular actions of drugs, pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, as well as the therapeutic and adverse effects of major drug classes. Emphasis is placed on the integration of pharmacology into the management of complex clinical cases, with attention to evidence-based prescribing, drug interactions, and considerations for special populations. Throughout the course, students critically analyze current research, emerging therapies, and guidelines, preparing them for advanced roles in healthcare, research, or pharmaceutical practice.

Recommended Textbook

Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 10th Edition by Jacqueline Burchum

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110 Chapters

1439 Verified Questions

1439 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology

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5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25895

Sample Questions

Q1) Before administering a medication, what does the nurse need to know to evaluate how individual patient variability might affect the patient's response to the medication?

A) Chemical stability of the medication

B) Ease of administration

C) Family medical history

D) Patient's age

E) Patient's diagnosis

Answer: C, D, E

Q2) A patient tells the nurse that an analgesic he will begin taking may cause drowsiness and will decrease pain up to 4 hours at a time. Based on this understanding of the drug's effects by the patient, the nurse will anticipate which outcome?

A) Decreased chance of having a placebo effect

B) Decreased motivation to take the drug

C) Improved compliance with the drug regimen

D) Increased likelihood of drug overdose

Answer: C

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3

Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postoperative patient reports pain, which the patient rates as an 8 on a scale from 1 to 10 (10 being the most extreme pain). The prescriber has ordered acetaminophen [Tylenol] 650 mg PO every 6 hours PRN pain. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient what medications have helped with pain in the past.

B) Contact the provider to request a different analgesic medication.

C) Give the pain medication and reposition the patient to promote comfort.

D) Request an order to administer the medication every 4 hours.

Answer: B

Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient about home administration of insulin to treat diabetes mellitus. As part of the teaching, the patient and nurse identify goals to maintain specific blood glucose ranges. This represents which aspect of the nursing process?

A) Assessment

B) Evaluation

C) Implementation

D) Planning

Answer: C

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4

Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information

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6 Verified Questions

6 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse educator is conducting a continuing education class on pharmacology. To evaluate the learning of the nurses in the class, the nurse educator asks, "Which drug name gives information about the drug's pharmacologic classification?" Which is the correct response?

A) Amoxicillin

B) Tylenol

C) Cipro

D) Motrin

Answer: A

Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?

A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.

B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.

C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.

D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.

Answer: B

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5

Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient claims to get better effects with a tablet of Brand X of a drug than with a tablet of Brand Y of the same drug. Both brands contain the same amount of the active ingredient. What does the nurse know to be most likely?

A) Advertising by pharmaceutical companies can enhance patient expectations of one brand over another, leading to a placebo effect.

B) Because the drug preparations are chemically equivalent, the effects of the two brands must be identical.

C) Tablets can differ in composition and can have differing rates of disintegration and dissolution, which can alter the drug's effects in the body.

D) The bioavailability of a drug is determined by the amount of the drug in each dose.

Q2) A nurse is explaining drug metabolism to a nursing student who asks about glucuronidation. The nurse knows that this is a process that allows drugs to be:

A) excreted in hydrolyzed form in the feces to reduce drug toxicity.

B) reabsorbed from the urine into the renal circulation to minimize drug loss.

C) recycled via the enterohepatic recirculation to remain in the body longer.

D) transported across the renal tubules to be excreted in the urine.

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Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics

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8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient reports becoming "immune" to a medication because it no longer works to alleviate symptoms. The nurse recognizes that this decreased effectiveness is likely caused by:

A) antagonists produced by the body that compete with the drug for receptor sites.

B) decreased selectivity of receptor sites, resulting in a variety of effects.

C) desensitization of receptor sites by continual exposure to the drug.

D) synthesis of more receptor sites in response to the medication.

Q2) Which drugs will not be affected by interpatient variability?

A) Antiseptics applied to the skin to slow bacterial growth

B) Antacids to help with the discomfort of heartburn

C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics that are effective against many organisms

D) Chelating agents that remove metal compounds from the body

E) Topical analgesics used to treat localized pain

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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient about a prescription for a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor for depression. What will the nurse teach the patient to avoid while taking this drug?

A) Alcoholic beverages

B) Aged cheeses

C) Brussels sprouts and cabbage

D) Grapefruit juice

Q2) A young adult postoperative patient is receiving morphine 2 to 4 mg IV every 2 hours PRN pain. The last dose was 3 mg given 2 hours ago. The patient is asleep, and the nurse notes a heart rate of 86 beats/min and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Which PRN medication will the nurse give this patient?

A) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl] to counter morphine side effects

B) Morphine 4 mg for increased pain, as indicated by tachycardia

C) Naloxone [Narcan] to block the effects of the morphine

D) Nothing at this time, because the patient is resting comfortably

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Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which are effective ways to help prevent medication errors?

A) Developing nonpunitive approaches to track errors

B) Focusing on caregivers who make errors

C) Helping patients to be active, informed members of the healthcare team

D) Naming, blaming, and shaming those who make errors

E) Using electronic medical order entry systems

Q2) A nurse is reviewing a medication administration record before administering medications. Which order will the nurse implement?

A) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg QD PO

B) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg qd PO

C) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg daily

D) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg PO daily

Q3) A nurse is preparing to give an antibiotic to a patient who reports being allergic to antibiotics. Before giving the medication, what will the nurse do first?

A) Ask whether the patient has taken this antibiotic for other infections.

B) Question the patient about allergies to other medications.

C) Request an order for a lower dose of the antibiotic.

D) Request an order for an antihistamine.

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9

Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postoperative patient who is worried about pain control will be discharged several days after surgery. The nurse providing discharge teaching tells the patient that the prescribed Lortab is not as strong as the morphine the patient was given in the immediate postoperative period. Which response is the patient likely to experience?

A) A decreased likelihood of filling the prescription for the drug

B) A negative placebo effect when taking the medication

C) An increased compliance with the drug regimen

D) Optimistic, realistic expectations about the drug

Q2) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recommends genetic testing of patients receiving certain medications. Genetic testing helps prescribers:

A) better establish a drug's therapeutic index.

B) determine whether a patient is a rapid or slow metabolizer of the drug.

C) identify racial characteristics that affect psychosocial variation in drug response. D) produce a drug that is tailored to an individual patient's genetic makeup.

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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient in active labor is admitted to the emergency department. A toxicology screen and a physical assessment reveal that the patient is an active heroin addict. The nurse who cares for the neonate after delivery should anticipate which clinical manifestations?

A) Passivity and flat affect

B) Diarrhea and salivation

C) A shrill cry and irritability

D) Restless sleep and seizures

Q2) Which types of drugs taken by a pregnant patient are more likely to have effects on a fetus?

A) Drugs that are highly polar

B) Ionized drugs

C) Lipid-soluble drugs

D) Protein-bound drugs

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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25904

Sample Questions

Q1) The parents of a child with asthma ask the nurse why their child cannot use oral corticosteroids more often, because they are so effective. The nurse will offer which information that is true for children?

A) Chronic steroid use can inhibit growth.

B) Frequent use of this drug may lead to a decreased response.

C) A hypersensitivity reaction to this drug may occur.

D) Systemic steroids are more toxic in children.

Q2) A child will receive 750 mg of an antibiotic for 10 days. The child attends day care. The drug may be dosed in several ways and is available in two concentrations. Which dosing regimen will the nurse discuss with the child's provider?

A) 250 mg/5 mL to 375 mg PO twice daily

B) 250 mg/5 mL to 250 mg PO 3 times daily

C) 500 mg/5 mL to 250 mg PO 3 times daily

D) 500 mg/5 mL to 375 mg PO twice daily

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Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25905

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for an older adult patient during the immediate postoperative period after a total hip replacement. The surgeon has ordered meperidine [Demerol] for severe pain. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the medication as prescribed and initiate a fall risk protocol.

B) Ask for a PRN order for diphenhydramine [Benadryl] for the expected side effect of itching.

C) Request an order for morphine instead of meperidine [Demerol].

D) Suggest to the surgeon that the patient receive diazepam [Valium] to reduce anxiety and the need for narcotics.

Q2) An older adult patient is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an exacerbation of a chronic illness. Admission laboratory work reveals an extremely low serum drug level of the drug used to treat this condition. The patient has brought the medication to the hospital, along with other medications taken. The patient's renal and hepatic function tests are normal. What might the nurse suspect as a likely cause of this finding?

A) Financial concerns

B) Inability to open drug containers

C) Increased tolerance to the drug's effects

D) Patient's conviction that the drug is unnecessary

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Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology

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7 Verified Questions

7 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25906

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient receives morphine and shows signs of toxicity. The prescriber orders naloxone [Narcan] to reverse the effects of the morphine. The nurse understands that the naloxone reverses morphine toxicity by which action on morphine receptor sites?

A) Blocking transmitter reuptake

B) Inhibiting transmitter release

C) Interfering with transmitter storage

D) Preventing activation of receptors

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about neuropharmacology. Which statement by a student about peripheral nervous system (PNS) drugs indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Drugs affecting axonal conduction have a variety of uses."

B) "Drugs that alter synaptic transmission can be highly selective."

C) "Many PNS drugs act by altering synaptic transmission."

D) "These drugs work by influencing receptor activity."

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14

Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about neurotransmitters. Which statement by a student about acetylcholine indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "It activates three cholinergic receptor subtypes."

B) "It has effects in the parasympathetic, sympathetic, and somatic nervous systems."

C) "It is used at most junctions of the peripheral nervous system."

D) "Its transmission is terminated by reuptake into the cholinergic nerve terminal."

Q2) A nurse is administering an agonist drug that acts on postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. Which response will the nurse expect to see?

A) Decreased sweating

B) Bronchodilation

C) Increased cardiac output

D) Pinpoint pupils

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15

Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25908

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has esophageal cancer is experiencing dry mouth and the provider orders oral pilocarpine to treat this symptom. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient about this medication?

A) "This medication may cause rapid heart rate and elevated blood pressure."

B) "This medication may cause constipation and gastric discomfort in large doses."

C) "You should experience sweating with this medication and should not have other side effects."

D) "You will begin taking 5 mg 3 times daily and may increase the dose to 10 mg."

Q2) A patient will begin using a transdermal preparation of a muscarinic antagonist for overactive bladder (OAB). The nurse teaches the patient what to do if side effects occur. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?

A) "I can use sugar-free gum for dry mouth."

B) "I may need laxatives for constipation."

C) "I should keep the site covered to prevent other people from getting the medicine."

D) "I will take Benadryl for any itching caused by a local reaction to the patch."

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16

Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in

Myasthenia Gravis

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25909

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is helping a nursing student who is administering a medication to a patient with myasthenia gravis. Which statement by the student indicates the need for further teaching?

A) "I will ask the patient to sip some water before giving the medication."

B) "I will let the patient sleep after giving the medication, because rest is important."

C) "I will record muscle strength assessments before and after I give the medication."

D) "I will report excessive salivation to the patient's prescriber."

Q2) A patient who has myasthenia gravis will be taking neostigmine. What will the nurse emphasize when teaching this patient about the medication?

A) "Stop taking the drug if you have diarrhea."

B) "Take a supplementary dose before exercise."

C) "Use atropine if you have excessive salivation."

D) "Withhold the dose if ptosis occurs."

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17

Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic

Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who will undergo electroconvulsive therapy to treat severe depression will be given succinylcholine just prior to the procedure. When teaching the patient about the procedure the nurse will explain that the succinylcholine is given for what purpose?

A) To minimize the amount of electroshock treatment required

B) To prevent harm caused by electroshock-induced convulsions

C) To prolong the therapeutic electroshock-induced convulsions

D) To stop the electroshock-induced convulsions once therapeutic effects have occurred

Q2) Which areas of the body show the effects of neuromuscular blockers last?

A) Levator muscle of the eyelids and the muscles of mastication

B) Muscles in the lower extremities

C) Muscles controlling the glottis

D) Muscles of respiration and the diaphragm

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Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25911

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching parents how to use an EpiPen for their child, who has a peanut allergy. Which statement by the parents indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "After using the EpiPen, we must go to the emergency department."

B) "The EpiPen should be stored in the refrigerator, because epinephrine is sensitive to heat."

C) "The teacher should call us when symptoms start so that we can bring the EpiPen to school."

D) "We should jab the device into the thigh until it is empty of solution."

Q2) A nursing student asks the nurse why epinephrine, and not other adrenergic agonists, is used to treat anaphylactic shock. What will the nurse tell the student?

A) "Epinephrine is the only adrenergic agonist that may be given parenterally."

B) "Epinephrine has the ability to activate multiple types of adrenergic receptors."

C) "Other adrenergic agonists have more severe adverse effects and are not safe in the doses needed to treat anaphylaxis."

D) "Other adrenergic agonists have little or no effects on beta₂-adrenergic receptors."

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Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25912

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is discussing home management with a patient who will begin taking an alpha-adrenergic antagonist for hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I need to stop the medication if my heart rate increases."

B) "I should not drive while taking this medication."

C) "I should take the first dose at bedtime."

D) "I will stop taking the medication if I feel dizzy."

Q2) A patient with migraines is started on a beta blocker. The nurse explains the benefits of taking the medication for migraines. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the medication's effects?

A) "I need to take it every day to reduce the frequency of migraines."

B) "I will take it as needed to get relief from migraines."

C) "I will take it to shorten the duration of my migraines."

D) "I will take this drug when a migraine starts."

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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber orders clonidine [Kapvay] ER tablets for a 12-year-old child. The nurse understands that this drug is being given to treat which condition?

A) ADHD

B) Hypertension

C) Severe pain

D) Tourette's syndrome

Q2) A patient who has been taking clonidine [Catapres] for several weeks complains of drowsiness and constipation. What will the nurse do?

A) Recommend that the patient take most of the daily dose at bedtime.

B) Suggest asking the provider for a transdermal preparation of the drug.

C) Suspect that the patient is overusing the medication.

D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug and call the provider.

Q3) A prescriber orders transdermal clonidine [Catapres TTS] for a patient with hypertension. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) That medication given by transdermal patch has fewer systemic side effects

B) That localized skin reactions are uncommon

C) To apply the patch to intact skin on the forearm or leg

D) To change the patch every week

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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System

Pharmacology

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8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A group of nursing students asks a nurse to explain the blood-brain barrier. The nurse would be correct to say that the blood-brain barrier:

A) prevents some potentially toxic substances from crossing into the central nervous system.

B) causes infants to be less sensitive to CNS drugs and thus require larger doses.

C) allows only ionized or protein-bound drugs to cross into the central nervous system.

D) prevents lipid-soluble drugs from entering the central nervous system.

Q2) Which monoamines act as neurotransmitters in the central nervous system?

A) Acetylcholine

B) Norepinephrine

C) Serotonin

D) Dopamine

E) Epinephrine

F) Histamine

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22

Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinson Disease

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with Parkinson disease is taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet]. The prescriber orders bromocriptine [Parlodel] to treat dyskinesias. The nurse notes that the patient is agitated, and the patient reports having frequent nightmares. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:

A) adding an antipsychotic medication.

B) changing from bromocriptine to cabergoline [Dostinex].

C) reducing the dose of bromocriptine.

D) reducing the dose of levodopa/carbidopa.

Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with Parkinson disease has been taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] for several weeks and complains of nausea and vomiting. The nurse tells the patient to discuss what with the provider?

A) Taking a lower dose on an empty stomach

B) Taking an increased dose along with a high-protein snack

C) Taking a lower dose with a low-protein snack

D) Taking dopamine in addition to levodopa/carbidopa

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Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient has confusion, memory loss, and disorientation in familiar surroundings. The patient has been taking donepezil [Aricept] 10 mg once daily for 6 months. The patient's symptoms have begun to worsen, and the patient's spouse asks if the medication dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell the spouse?

A) The dose can be increased, because the patient has been taking the drug for longer than 3 months.

B) The dose can be increased to twice daily dosing instead of once daily dosing.

C) The increase in symptoms is the result of hepatotoxicity from the medication's side effects.

D) The patient must take the drug for longer than 1 year before the dose can be increased.

Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer memantine [Nemanda] to a patient and notes a slight elevation in the patient's creatinine clearance level. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Adding sodium bicarbonate to the patient's drug regimen

B) Continuing the memantine as ordered

C) Discontinuing the memantine

D) Reducing the dose of memantine

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24

Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient administers interferon beta-1a SQ [Rebif] 22 mcg/0.5 mL 3 times each week. The patient calls the nurse to report unrelieved itching and erythema at the injection site, despite the use of topical hydrocortisone for several weeks. What will the nurse tell this patient to do?

A) Apply ice to the injection site before and after the injection.

B) Ask the provider to reduce the dose of interferon beta to 8.8 mcg/0.2 mL.

C) Discuss using a prescription-strength hydrocortisone product with the provider.

D) Take oral diphenhydramine [Benadryl].

Q2) A nurse provides teaching for a 25-year-old patient who will receive mitoxantrone [Novantrone] for worsening relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I may experience cardiac side effects several years after receiving this drug."

B) "I should report fever, chills, cough, and hoarseness immediately."

C) "I will need an infusion of this medication once weekly."

D) "I will need a liver function test and a pregnancy test before each dose."

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25

Chapter 24: Drugs for Seizure Disorders

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital and has a partial convulsive episode shortly after arriving on the unit. The patient has been taking phenytoin [Dilantin] 100 mg 3 times daily and oxcarbazepine [Trileptal] 300 mg twice daily for several years. The patient's phenytoin level is 8.6 mcg/mL, and the oxcarbazepine level is 22 mcg/mL. The nurse contacts the provider to report these levels and the seizure. What will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) A decreased dose of oxcarbazepine

B) Extended-release phenytoin

C) An increased dose of phenytoin

D) Once-daily dosing of oxcarbazepine

Q2) A child is diagnosed with absence seizures, and the prescriber orders ethosuximide [Zarontin]. When teaching the child's parents about dosage adjustments for this drug, the nurse will stress the importance of:

A) frequent serum drug level monitoring.

B) learning as much as possible about the disorder and its treatment.

C) recording the number of seizures the child has each day.

D) reporting dizziness and drowsiness to the provider.

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26

Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25919

Sample Questions

Q1) Which drugs are used to treat spasticity?

A) Baclofen [Lioresal]

B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]

C) Diazepam [Valium]

D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]

E) Tizanidine [Flexeril]

Q2) A nurse is teaching the parent of a child with spastic quadriplegia about intrathecal baclofen [Lioresal]. Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I can expect my child to be more drowsy when receiving this medication."

B) "I should not notice any change in my child's muscle strength."

C) "I will contact the provider if my child is constipated or cannot urinate."

D) "If my child has a seizure, I should stop giving the medication immediately."

Q3) A patient with cerebral palsy has severe muscle spasticity and muscle weakness. The patient is unable to take anything by mouth. The nurse is correct to anticipate that which medication will be ordered for home therapy?

A) Baclofen [Lioresal]

B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]

C) Diazepam [Valium]

D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]

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Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25920

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient in the immediate postoperative period after surgery in which a spinal anesthetic was used. The patient has not voided and complains of headache. The patient has a pulse of 62 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 92/48 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

A) Contact the anesthetist to request an order for ephedrine.

B) Have the patient sit up to relieve the headache pain.

C) Lower the head of the bed to a 10- to 15-degree head-down position.

D) Obtain an order for a urinary catheter for urinary retention.

Q2) A nurse is preparing a patient to go home from the emergency department after receiving sutures for a laceration on one hand. The provider used lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic. Which symptom in this patient causes the most concern?

A) Difficulty moving the fingers of the affected hand

B) Inability to feel pressure at the suture site

C) Nervousness and tachycardia

D) Sensation of pain returning to the wound

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28

Chapter 27: General Anesthetics

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25921

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will receive intravenous midazolam [Versed] combined with fentanyl while undergoing an endoscopic procedure. The nurse is explaining the reasons for this to a nursing student before the procedure. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "The patient may appear anxious and restless during the procedure."

B) "The patient will be unconscious during the procedure."

C) "The patient will not need cardiorespiratory support during the procedure."

D) "The patient will not remember the procedure."

Q2) A surgical patient is receiving succinylcholine [Anectine] with an inhalation anesthetic. The patient is intubated, has an indwelling urinary catheter, and has ongoing monitoring of vital signs. Which symptom during the perioperative period is cause for concern?

A) Elevated temperature

B) Increased urine output

C) Muscle paralysis

D) No response to painful stimuli

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Chapter

Analgesics, Opioid Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25922

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has had abdominal surgery has been receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse assesses the patient and notes that the patient's pupils are dilated and that the patient is drowsy and lethargic. The patient's heart rate is 84 beats/min, the respiratory rate is 10 breaths per minute, and the blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. What will the nurse do?

A) Discuss possible opiate dependence with the patient's provider.

B) Encourage the patient to turn over and cough and take deep breaths.

C) Note the effectiveness of the analgesia in the patient's chart.

D) Prepare to administer naloxone and possibly ventilatory support.

Q2) A patient with cancer has been taking an opioid analgesic 4 times daily for several months and reports needing increased doses for pain. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) PRN dosing of the drug may be more effective.

B) The risk of respiratory depression increases over time.

C) The patient should discuss increasing the dose with the provider.

D) The patient should request the addition of a benzodiazepine to augment pain relief.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30

Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients With Cancer

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25923

Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student caring for a patient with cancer tells the nurse that the patient seems to be exaggerating when reporting the degree of pain. Which statement by the nurse is an appropriate response to this concern?

A) "Evaluation of the patient's vital signs can help you tell if this patient is exaggerating."

B) "It is important to give pain medication as ordered for the degree of pain the patient reports."

C) "We may need to evaluate the patient for the development of metastasis or infection."

D) "You should monitor this patient's behavior and facial expressions for a more accurate assessment."

Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with cancer reports having pain at a level of 7 to 8 on a scale of 10. Which type of pain management will be used initially to treat pain in this patient?

A) Acetaminophen [Tylenol]

B) Ibuprofen [Motrin]

C) Nonpharmacologic measures

D) Opioid analgesics

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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25924

Sample Questions

Q1) A woman with moderate migraine headaches asks a nurse why the provider has ordered metoclopramide [Reglan] as an adjunct to aspirin therapy, because she does not usually experience nausea and vomiting with her migraines. The nurse will tell her that the metoclopramide is used to:

A) help induce sleep.

B) improve absorption of the aspirin.

C) prevent gastric irritation caused by the aspirin.

D) prolong the effects of the aspirin.

Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of numbness in the extremities. The nurse notes that the patient's hands and feet are cool and pale. When conducting a health history, the nurse learns that the patient has a history of migraine headaches. The nurse recognizes this patient's symptoms as:

A) ergotamine withdrawal.

B) ergotism.

C) severe migraine symptoms.

D) sumatriptan side effects.

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Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25925

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient taking an FGA medication develops severe parkinsonism and is treated with amantadine [Symmetrel]. The amantadine is withdrawn 2 months later, and the parkinsonism returns. The nurse will expect the provider to:

A) give anticholinergic medications.

B) make a diagnosis of idiopathic parkinsonism.

C) resume the amantadine indefinitely.

D) try a second-generation antipsychotic (SGA).

Q2) A nurse in a mental health hospital finds a patient with schizophrenia who takes haloperidol [Haldol] lying rigid in bed with a temperature of 41.3°C. A cardiac monitor shows cardiac dysrhythmias. What will be included in the treatment of this patient?

A) Anticholinergic medications

B) Beta blockers

C) Dantrolene

D) Intravenous fluids

E) Withdrawal of haloperidol

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 33

Chapter 32: Antidepressants

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25926

Sample Questions

Q1) A first-time parent of a 6-week-old infant tells the nurse that she feels anxious and sad, cries a lot, and has difficulty sleeping. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask her to complete the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale.

B) Reassure her that the "baby blues" are normal after childbirth.

C) Suggest that she get more sleep and try to increase her activity.

D) Suggest that she talk to her provider about using an SSRI.

Q2) A young adult patient has been taking an antidepressant medication for several weeks and reports having increased thoughts of suicide. The nurse questions further and learns that the patient has attempted suicide more than once in the past. The patient identifies a concrete plan for committing suicide. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:

A) changing the medication to another drug class.

B) discontinuing the medication immediately.

C) hospitalizing the patient for closer monitoring.

D) requiring more frequent clinic visits for this patient.

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Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25927

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder takes lamotrigine [Lamictal]. Which statement by the patient would prompt the nurse to hold the drug and notify the prescriber for further assessment?

A) "I get a little dizzy sometimes."

B) "I had a headache last week that lasted for about an hour."

C) "I've broken out in a rash on my chest and back."

D) "Last night I woke up twice with a bad dream."

Q2) A patient who has recently begun taking carbamazepine [Equetro] for bipolar disorder reports having vertigo and headaches. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

A) Ask the provider whether another medication can be used for this patient, because the patient is showing signs of toxicity.

B) Contact the provider to request a complete blood count (CBC) to evaluate for other, more serious side effects.

C) Reassure the patient that these effects occur early in treatment and will resolve over time.

D) Review the patient's chart for cytochrome P450 enzymes to see whether an increased dose is needed.

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Page 35

Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs

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15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25928

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal is given a benzodiazepine. The nurse understands that this drug is effective because:

A) the alcohol does not interact with the benzodiazepine.

B) the benzodiazepine potentiates alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

C) the benzodiazepine relieves muscle spasms and spasticity.

D) the patient has a cross-dependence to the benzodiazepine.

Q2) A patient in the emergency department is given intravenous diazepam [Valium] for seizures. When the seizures stop, the nurse notes that the patient is lethargic and confused and has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. The nurse will expect to administer which of the following?

A) Flumazenil [Romazicon]

B) Gastric lavage

C) Respiratory support

D) Toxicology testing

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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25929

Sample Questions

Q1) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are known to be effective for which disorders?

A) Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

C) Panic disorder

D) Post-traumatic stress disorder

E) Social anxiety disorder

Q2) A patient who has obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has been undergoing behavioral therapy but continues to exhibit symptoms that interfere with daily life. Which intervention will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Alprazolam [Xanax]

B) Buspirone [Buspar]

C) Deep brain stimulation

D) Fluoxetine [Paxil]

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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and

Attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25930

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse working in the night shift begins taking modafinil [Alertec]. The nurse is telling a coworker about the medication. Which statement is correct?

A) "I can take it during pregnancy."

B) "It doesn't have cardiovascular side effects."

C) "It is safe and has no serious adverse effects."

D) "It will not interfere with my normal sleep."

Q2) A nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder about methylphenidate [Concerta]. Which statement by the child's parents indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "The effects of this drug will wear off in 4 to 6 hours."

B) "The tablet needs to be swallowed whole, not crushed or chewed."

C) "This medication has fewer side effects than amphetamines."

D) "We should call the provider if we see parts of the medicine in our child's stools."

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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations

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8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25931

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about drug abuse. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Patients who experience physical dependence will show compulsive drug-seeking behavior."

B) "People who are addicted to a drug do not necessarily have tolerance to that drug."

C) "Physical dependence means that abstinence syndrome will occur if a drug is withdrawn."

D) "Physical dependence often contributes to addictive behavior but does not cause it."

Q2) A psychiatric nurse is caring for a drug-addicted patient. The nurse knows that the ideal goal of drug rehabilitation for this patient is:

A) abstinence from the drug.

B) decreasing episodes of relapse.

C) minimizing drug cravings.

D) reduction of drug use.

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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25932

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is screening a patient being admitted to the hospital. The patient reports being fired for drinking at work. On further questioning, the patient reveals a history of daily alcohol consumption of more than six packs of beer each day, regular morning drinking, and several unsuccessful attempts to stop drinking. The nurse detects alcohol on the patient's breath. The nurse will inform the provider of these findings and request an order for which medication?

A) Chlordiazepoxide [Librium]

B) Clonidine

C) Disulfiram [Antabuse]

D) Naltrexone [ReVia]

Q2) A pregnant patient in labor tells the nurse that she is afraid she may have harmed her fetus by consuming alcohol. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?

A) Ask the patient how much alcohol she consumed, and at which stage of her pregnancy.

B) Reassure the patient that the risk is likely to be minimal.

C) Tell the patient that no amount of alcohol is considered safe during pregnancy.

D) Tell the patient that the full range of outcomes may not be evident for years.

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Page 40

Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25933

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is conducting a smoking cessation class in the community and is discussing the physiologic effects of nicotine. The nurse is correct to teach that these effects include which of the following?

A) Increased blood pressure

B) Decreased gastric acid

C) Vomiting

D) Suppression of nausea

E) Increased alertness

F) Suppression of appetite

Q2) A patient asks about nicotine patches for smoking cessation and wants to know the difference between the 24-hour patch and the 16-hour patch. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "The 16-hour patch is for patients who have trouble sleeping."

B) "The 16-hour patch simulates usual nicotine ingestion patterns."

C) "The 24-hour patch is for persons weighing more than 100 pounds."

D) "The 24-hour patch is recommended for heavier smokers."

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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other

Than Alcohol and Nicotine

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25934

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of dizziness, lightheadedness, and a pulsating headache. Further assessment reveals a blood pressure of 82/60 mm Hg and palpitations. The patient's friends tell the nurse that they were experimenting with "poppers." The nurse will expect to administer which medication?

A) Diazepam [Valium]

B) Haloperidol [Haldol]

C) Methylene blue and supplemental oxygen

D) Naloxone [Narcan]

Q2) What is the primary reason for opioid abuse?

A) Ease of access

B) Initial "rush" similar to orgasm

C) Peer pressure

D) Prolonged sense of euphoria

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Chapter 41: Diuretics

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25935

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities bilaterally. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles bilaterally, and the serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. Which diuretic agent ordered by the prescriber should the nurse question?

A) Bumetanide [Bumex]

B) Furosemide [Lasix]

C) Spironolactone [Aldactone]

D) Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]

Q2) A patient who was in a motor vehicle accident sustained a severe head injury and is brought into the emergency department. The provider orders intravenous mannitol [Osmitrol]. The nurse knows that this is given to:

A) reduce intracranial pressure.

B) reduce renal perfusion.

C) reduce peripheral edema.

D) restore extracellular fluid.

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Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids

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12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25936

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who was injured at home is brought to the emergency department. The nurse caring for this patient notes a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. The injuries are minor, but the patient is inconsolable and hysterical. The nurse expects that initial management will include:

A) administering a gas mixture of 5% carbon dioxide (CO₂).

B) providing 100% oxygen via nasal cannula.

C) giving sodium bicarbonate IV.

D) providing sedatives to calm the patient.

Q2) A patient with congestive heart failure is admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment, the nurse learns that the patient is taking a thiazide diuretic. The nurse notes that the admission electrolyte levels include a sodium level of 142 mEq/L, a chloride level of 95 mEq/L, and a potassium level of 3 mEq/L. The prescriber has ordered digoxin to be given immediately. What will the nurse do initially?

A) Give the digoxin and maintain close cardiac monitoring.

B) Hold the digoxin and report the laboratory values to the provider.

C) Hold the thiazide diuretic and give the digoxin.

D) Request an order for an electrocardiogram (ECG).

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Page 44

Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics

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7 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25937

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.

B) expect bradycardia for a few days.

C) notify the provider if headache occurs.

D) report shortness of breath.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student how blood can return to the heart when pressure in the venous capillary beds is very low. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Constriction of small muscles in the venous wall increases venous pressure."

B) "Negative pressure in the left atrium draws blood toward the heart."

C) "Skeletal muscles relax to allow the free flow of blood."

D) "Venous valves help prevent the backflow of blood."

Q3) A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for a procedure. If the patient's arterial pressure decreases, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to see?

A) Decreased heart rate

B) Increased heart rate

C) Decreased blood pressure

D) Syncope

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Page 45

Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25938

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with hypertension is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse reviewing this patient's chart before administering the medication will be most concerned about which other disease process?

A) Bronchial asthma

B) Coronary artery disease

C) Diabetes mellitus

D) Renal artery stenosis

Q2) A nurse is reviewing a patient's medications before administration. Which drug-to-drug interactions will most concern the nurse in a patient with a history of heart failure and a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L?

A) Furosemide [Lasix] and enalapril [Vasotec]

B) Amlodipine [Norvasc] and spironolactone [Aldactone]

C) Captopril [Capoten] and spironolactone [Aldactone]

D) Metoprolol [Lopressor] and furosemide [Lasix]

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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers

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7 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who took an overdose of verapamil has been treated with gastric lavage and a cathartic. The emergency department nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 50 beats/min and a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate:

A) administering intravenous norepinephrine (NE) and atropine and glucagon.

B) assisting with direct-current (DC) cardioversion.

C) placing the patient in an upright position.

D) preparing to administer a beta blocker.

Q2) A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia], along with metoprolol, to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to:

A) reduce flushing.

B) minimize gingival hyperplasia.

C) prevent constipation.

D) prevent reflex tachycardia.

Q3) Which are therapeutic uses of verapamil?

A) Angina of effort

B) Cardiac dysrhythmias

C) Essential hypertension

D) Sick sinus syndrome

E) Suppression of preterm labor

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Chapter 46: Vasodilators

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11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25940

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking a vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscles in veins. To help minimize drug side effects, the nurse caring for this patient will:

A) caution the patient not to get up abruptly.

B) encourage the patient to increase fluid intake.

C) tell the patient to report shortness of breath.

D) warn the patient about the possibility of bradycardia.

Q2) A nursing student asks a nurse why a patient in hypertensive crisis is receiving both intravenous sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] and oral hydralazine. The nurse will explain that this is done to prevent:

A) cyanide poisoning.

B) fluid retention.

C) rebound hypertension.

D) reflex tachycardia.

Q3) A patient is admitted with severe hypertensive crisis. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication?

A) Captopril PO

B) Hydralazine [Apresoline] 25 mg PO

C) Minoxidil 20 mg PO

D) Sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] IV

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Page 48

Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension

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19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is discussing how beta blockers work to decrease blood pressure with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Beta blockers block the actions of angiotensin II."

B) "Beta blockers decrease heart rate and contractility."

C) "Beta blockers decrease peripheral vascular resistance."

D) "Beta blockers decrease the release of renin."

Q2) A nurse has provided education for a patient newly diagnosed with hypertension who is just beginning therapy with antihypertensive medications. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I may experience serious long-term problems even if I am not having symptoms."

B) "I should report side effects to the provider since other drugs may be substituted."

C) "I will need to take medications on a long-term basis."

D) "When my symptoms subside, I may discontinue the medications."

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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure

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20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25942

Sample Questions

Q1) Which are expected effects of cardiac glycosides?

A) Decreased cardiac output

B) Decreased force of contraction

C) Decreased heart rate

D) Modulation of neurohormonal systems

E) Positive inotropic effects

Q2) A patient is recovering from a myocardial infarction but does not have symptoms of heart failure. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about:

A) ACE inhibitors and beta blockers.

B) biventricular pacemakers.

C) dietary supplements and exercise.

D) diuretics and digoxin.

Q3) An 88-year-old patient with heart failure has progressed to Stage D and is hospitalized for the third time in a month. The nurse will expect to discuss which topic with the patient's family?

A) Antidysrhythmic medications

B) End-of-life care

C) Heart transplantation

D) Implantable mechanical assist devices

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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient in the intensive care unit who is receiving intravenous lidocaine. The patient is drowsy and confused and reports numbness of the fingers and toes. Which standing order will the nurse initiate at this time?

A) Administer diazepam.

B) Reduce the rate of infusion.

C) Discontinue the infusion.

D) Prepare for mechanical ventilation.

Q2) A patient is in the intensive care unit after a myocardial infarction. The nurse notes that the QT interval on this patient's electrocardiogram has been elongating. The nurse is concerned that which cardiac dysrhythmia may occur?

A) AV block

B) Bradycardia

C) Supraventricular tachycardia

D) Torsades de pointes

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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular

Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels

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Sample Questions

Q1) Lovastatin [Mevacor] is prescribed for a patient for the first time. The nurse should provide the patient with which instruction?

A) "Take lovastatin with your evening meal."

B) "Take this medicine before breakfast."

C) "You may take lovastatin without regard to meals."

D) "Take this medicine on an empty stomach."

Q2) Which is a possible benefit of taking fish-oil supplements?

A) A decrease in low-density lipoprotein and triglyceride levels

B) Decreased risk of thrombotic stroke

C) Prevention of heart disease in high-risk patients

D) Reduced risk of dysrhythmia in patients after myocardial infarction

Q3) A patient taking gemfibrozil [Lopid] and rosuvastatin [Crestor] concurrently begins to complain of muscle aches, fatigue, and weakness. What should the nurse monitor?

A) For tendon tenderness

B) For a lupus-like syndrome

C) The patient's liver function test results

D) The patient's creatinine kinase levels

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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse how beta blockers increase the oxygen supply to the heart in the treatment of anginal pain. The nurse tells the student that beta blockers:

A) dilate arterioles to improve myocardial circulation.

B) improve cardiac contractility, which makes the heart more efficient.

C) increase arterial pressure to improve cardiac afterload.

D) increase the time the heart is in diastole.

Q2) A patient with new-onset exertional angina has taken three nitroglycerin sublingual tablets at 5-minute intervals, but the pain has intensified. The nurse notes that the patient has a heart rate of 76 beats/min and a blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg. The electrocardiogram is normal. The patient's lips and nail beds are pink, and there is no respiratory distress. The nurse will anticipate providing:

A) an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.

B) intravenous nitroglycerin and a beta blocker.

C) ranolazine (Ranexa) and quinidine.

D) supplemental oxygen and intravenous morphine.

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53

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has taken warfarin [Coumadin] for a year begins taking carbamazepine. The nurse will anticipate an order to:

A) decrease the dose of carbamazepine.

B) increase the dose of warfarin.

C) perform more frequent aPTT monitoring.

D) provide extra dietary vitamin K.

Q2) A patient with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin [Coumadin]. The nurse notes that the patient's INR is 2.7. Before giving the next dose of warfarin, the nurse will notify the provider and:

A) administer the dose as ordered.

B) request an order to decrease the dose.

C) request an order to give vitamin K (phytonadione).

D) request an order to increase the dose.

Q3) A patient who is taking clopidogrel [Plavix] calls the nurse to report black, tarry stools and coffee-ground emesis. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) ask the provider about using aspirin instead of clopidogrel.

B) consume a diet high in vitamin K.

C) continue taking the clopidogrel until talking to the provider.

D) stop taking the clopidogrel immediately.

Page 54

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Chapter 53: Management of St-Elevation Myocardial Infarction

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12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is evaluating a patient admitted to the emergency department with an evolving STEMI for possible administration of thrombolytic therapy. Which information, identified during history taking, would contraindicate this type of therapy?

A) The patient just completed her last menstrual cycle.

B) The patient states that the chest pain started 1 hour ago.

C) The patient has a history of a small cerebral aneurysm.

D) The patient has hypertension that is well controlled by diuretic therapy.

Q2) A nurse is giving aspirin to a patient during acute management of STEMI. The patient asks why a chewable tablet is given. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Aspirin is absorbed more quickly when it is chewed."

B) "Chewing aspirin prevents it from being metabolized by the liver."

C) "Chewing aspirin prevents stomach irritation."

D) "More of the drug is absorbed when aspirin is chewed."

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55

Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25948

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a child who has hemophilia. While reviewing this child's immunization records, the nurse notes that the child needs the tetanus and reduced diphtheria toxoids and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine and the hepatitis A vaccine. The nurse should notify the provider and obtain an order to give:

A) both vaccines intramuscularly.

B) both vaccines subcutaneously.

C) the hepatitis A vaccine only subcutaneously.

D) the Tdap vaccine only intramuscularly.

Q2) A nurse is caring for an African American patient with severe hemophilia A who has been admitted for bleeding into the knee joint. The prescriber has ordered intravenous factor VIIa [NovoSeven RT]. A nursing student wants to know why this patient is not receiving factor VIII. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Factor VIIa is stronger than factor VIII and will work faster."

B) "Factor VIII is used for prophylaxis, and factor VIIa is used for acute episodes."

C) "Factor VIIa is used when patients develop antibodies against factor VIII."

D) "Factor VIIa provides immune tolerance therapy so that factor VIII will be more effective."

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Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25949

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is taking a medication history on a newly admitted patient. The patient reports taking folic acid and vitamin B₁₂. The nurse notifies the provider because of the concern that folic acid can:

A) cause fetal malformation.

B) mask the signs of vitamin B₁₂ deficiency.

C) negatively affect potassium levels.

D) worsen megaloblastic anemia.

Q2) The patient with which of the following is most at risk for folic acid deficiency?

A) Alcoholism

B) Sprue

C) Gastrectomy

D) Peptic ulcer disease

Q3) What are the indications for administration of a parenteral iron preparation?

A) Blood loss of 750 mL/week

B) Celiac disease with anemia

C) History of alcoholism

D) Intestinal disease impairing absorption

E) Megaloblastic anemia

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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25950

Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber has ordered filgrastim (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor) for a patient undergoing myelosuppressive chemotherapy. The nurse will prepare the patient for which potential side effect?

A) Bone pain

B) Fatigue

C) Headache

D) Hemorrhage

Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of epoetin alfa to a patient and notes that the patient has a hemoglobin level of 11.7 gm/dL. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Administer the dose as ordered.

B) Hold the dose and notify the provider.

C) Request an order for a reduced dose.

D) Suggest that the provider increase the dose.

Q3) Which patients are eligible to receive erythropoiesis stimulating agents?

A) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies who require transfusions

B) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies whose chemotherapy is palliative

C) All patients whose goal of therapy is curative

D) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies and chemotherapy-induced anemia

E) All patients with leukemias or myeloid malignancies

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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25951

Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most reliable measure for assessing diabetes control over the preceding 3-month period?

A) Self-monitoring blood glucose (SMBG) graph report

B) Patient's report

C) Fasting blood glucose level

D) Glycosylated hemoglobin level

Q2) A nurse provides dietary counseling for a patient newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. Which instruction should be included?

A) "You may eat any foods you want and cover the glucose increase with sliding scale, regular insulin."

B) "Most of the calories you eat should be in the form of protein to promote fat breakdown and preserve muscle mass."

C) "Your total caloric intake should not exceed 1800 calories in a 24-hour period."

D) "You should use a carbohydrate counting approach to maintain glycemic control."

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Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25952

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism about levothyroxine [Synthroid]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I should not take heartburn medication without consulting my provider."

B) "I should report insomnia, tremors, and an increased heart rate to my provider."

C) "If I take a multivitamin with iron, I should take it 4 hours after the Synthroid."

D) "If I take calcium supplements, I may need to decrease my dose of Synthroid."

Q2) A patient has been taking levothyroxine for several years and reports that "for the past 2 weeks, the drug doesn't seem to work as well as before." What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient when the prescription was last refilled.

B) Expect the patient to have an elevated temperature and tachycardia.

C) Suggest that the patient begin taking calcium supplements.

D) Tell the patient to try taking the medication with food.

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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25953

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with antidiuretic hormone deficiency is receiving desmopressin (DDAVP). The nurse will teach this patient to:

A) avoid grapefruit juice.

B) increase sodium intake.

C) monitor blood pressure.

D) reduce fluid intake.

Q2) A nurse is providing teaching for a nondiabetic adult who develops growth hormone deficiency and who will begin treatment with somatropin [Humatrope]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Intramuscular dosing is more effective than subcutaneous dosing."

B) "I will have increased muscle mass and strength as well as increased height."

C) "I will need to monitor my blood pressure frequently while taking this drug."

D) "I will need to take insulin while using this, because it causes hyperglycemia."

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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25954

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is providing patient education to a patient who will begin taking fludrocortisone [Florinef] as adjunctive therapy to hydrocortisone. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should move from sitting to standing slowly."

B) "I should report any swelling of my hands and feet."

C) "I should report weight loss to my provider."

D) "I should report excessive urine output."

Q2) A patient who has been newly diagnosed with adrenal hormone deficiency will begin taking hydrocortisone. The nurse provides teaching for this patient. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may take all of my daily dose in the morning or divide it in half and take it twice daily."

B) "I will need to take this medication until my symptoms completely clear, and then I may stop."

C) "Side effects are common with hydrocortisone, even with therapeutic doses."

D) "When I am sick, I should take 3 times the normal dose for 3 days in a row."

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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and

Noncontraceptive Applications

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25955

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who will begin combination estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT) for menopause asks the nurse why she cannot take an estrogen-only preparation. The patient has not had a hysterectomy, has a slightly increased risk of cardiovascular disease, and has mild osteopenia. The nurse will tell her that the progestin is necessary to:

A) decrease her risk of endometrial cancer.

B) increase bone resorption to prevent fractures.

C) lower her risk of myocardial infarction (MI).

D) prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

Q2) A patient with osteopenia asks a nurse about the benefits of hormone therapy in preventing osteoporosis. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Estrogen can help reverse bone loss."

B) "Hormone therapy increases bone resorption."

C) "Hormone therapy does not decrease fracture risk."

D) "When hormone therapy is discontinued, bone mass is quickly lost."

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Page 63

Chapter 62: Birth Control

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25956

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse working in a family planning clinic is teaching a class on intrauterine devices (IUDs). Which patient should be advised against using an IUD for contraception?

A) A 45-year-old married woman with four children

B) A 30-year-old monogamous married woman

C) An 18-year-old woman with multiple sexual partners

D) A 35-year-old woman with a history of rosacea

Q2) A patient is taking a combination oral contraceptive (OC) and tells the nurse that she is planning to undergo knee replacement surgery in 2 months. What will the nurse recommend for this patient?

A) The patient should ask her provider about an OC with less progestin.

B) The patient should discuss an alternate method of birth control prior to surgery.

C) The patient should request an OC containing less estrogen after surgery.

D) The patient should take the OC at bedtime after her surgery to reduce side effects.

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Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25957

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has endometriosis has been unable to conceive. She asks the nurse about medications to treat the condition. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) Combination oral contraceptives are effective for improving fertility.

B) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists are used for long-term treatment.

C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are second-line agents for treating pain.

D) Pharmacologic agents used to treat endometriosis do not enhance fertility.

Q2) A patient is being treated for infertility. An examination reveals cervical mucus that is scant, thick, and sticky. The nurse suspects that the patient has been taking which medication?

A) Clomiphene [Clomid]

B) Estrogen

C) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

D) Progesterone

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Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25958

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a woman during the perinatal and postnatal period. To stop postpartum hemorrhage, how will the nurse administer oxytocin [Pitocin] to this patient?

A) 20 units in 1000 mL of IV solution after delivery of the placenta

B) 20 units intramuscularly prior to delivery of the placenta

C) 40 units intramuscularly after delivery of the placenta

D) 60 units per rectum prior to delivery of the placenta

Q2) Which drugs are useful for preventing preterm labor?

A) Antibiotics

B) Hydroxyprogesterone

C) Indomethacin

D) Magnesium sulfate

E) Terbutaline

Q3) A pregnant patient is 1 week post-term and will receive intravenous oxytocin. Which will the nurse evaluate before starting the infusion?

A) Cervical ripening

B) Fetal monitoring

C) Renal function

D) Respiratory function

E) Uterine activity

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Page 66

Chapter 65: Androgens

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25959

Sample Questions

Q1) A clinic nurse is assessing an adolescent male patient who has been receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism via a transdermal patch. The patient's last clinic visit was 4 weeks earlier. Which part of the interval history is of most concern to the nurse?

A) Five-pound weight gain

B) Increased growth of pubic hair

C) Rash at the site of the patch

D) Presence of acne

Q2) A nurse is teaching a male adult patient about the use of testosterone gel. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should apply this to my forearms and neck after showering."

B) "I should keep treated areas exposed to the air so that they can dry."

C) "I should not let my child touch the gel to prevent behavioral problems."

D) "I should not swim or bathe for 3 to 4 hours after applying the gel."

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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign

Prostatic Hyperplasia

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25960

Sample Questions

Q1) Which are contraindications for taking sildenafil [Viagra]?

A) Patients who are taking nitroglycerin for angina pectoris

B) Patients with nonarteritic ischemic optic neuropathy (NAION) in one eye

C) Patients with BPH who are taking alpha₁-adrenergic antagonists

D) Patients with a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg

E) Patients with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) in the past 6 months

Q2) A patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia is admitted to the unit. The patient is taking multiple medications, including terazosin [Hytrin]. During the evening rounds, the patient begins to complain of dizziness and nasal congestion. Upon assessment, the patient is somnolent and has a blood pressure of 101/42 mm Hg. The nurse is correct to suspect:

A) priapism.

B) sinus infection.

C) allergic reaction.

D) adverse effects.

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Page 68

Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25961

Sample Questions

Q1) Which immune responses can result in harm to the body?

A) Activation of the complement system

B) Autoimmune response

C) IgE binding to mast cells and basophils

D) Opsonization

E) Recognition of MHC molecules as nonself

Q2) A nurse is reviewing the immune system with a group of nursing students. One student asks about the difference between cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity. What should the nurse reply?

A) "Humoral immunity does not involve helper T cells in the immune response."

B) "Humoral immunity does not have a role in hypersensitivity reactions."

C) "Humoral immunity requires cytolytic T cells that attack antigens directly."

D) "Humoral immunity uses cells produced by B lymphocytes in the immune response."

Q3) Which statement is true about helper T cells?

A) They are useful but are not essential to immune responses.

B) They do not play a role in antibody production.

C) They have highly specific receptors to antigens on their surface.

D) They prevent CD4 molecules from attaching to antigens.

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69

Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25962

Sample Questions

Q1) The parent of a 2-month-old infant who has just received the first dose of DTaP asks the nurse about expected reactions to the vaccine. The nurse will respond by saying that:

A) "Mild reactions, including a low-grade fever, are common."

B) "Most children do not experience any reaction."

C) "Seizures are common and may require anticonvulsant medication."

D) "The most common reaction is a rash that develops into itchy vesicles."

Q2) The nurse at a public health infant immunization clinic is acting as a preceptor for a nursing student. To assess the student's understanding of vaccinations, the nurse asks the student where the hepatitis B vaccine (HepB) should be administered. The student would be correct to respond that the hepatitis B vaccine should be administered in the:

A) dorsogluteal muscle in an adult.

B) anterolateral thigh in infants.

C) ventrogluteal muscle in adolescents.

D) deltoid of toddlers.

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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25963

Sample Questions

Q1) The parent of a child who attends day care questions the need for Varivax. What will the nurse tell the parent?

A) "Chickenpox is not as contagious as other communicable diseases."

B) "The child will be protected by herd immunity and does not need the vaccine."

C) "Varicella is an uncomfortable disease, but it is not that serious."

D) "Varicella in adults can have serious consequences."

Q2) A nurse at an immunization clinic is providing vaccines to children. The parent of a child waiting to receive vaccines tells the nurse that the child has an immune deficiency disorder. The nurse understands that which vaccine should not be administered to this child?

A) Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine

B) Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine

C) Polio injection

D) Varicella virus vaccine

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Chapter 70: Antihistamines

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13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25964

Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber orders hydroxyzine [Vistaril] for a patient with acute urticaria. The nurse will include which information when teaching the patient about this drug?

A) The drug will reduce redness and itching but not edema.

B) This antihistamine is not likely to cause sedation.

C) The patient should avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug.

D) The patient should report shortness of breath while taking the drug.

Q2) A 5-year-old child with seasonal allergies has been taking 2.5 mL of cetirizine [Zyrtec] syrup once daily. The parents tell the nurse that the child does not like the syrup, and they do not think that the drug is effective. The nurse will suggest they discuss which drug with their child's healthcare provider?

A) Cetirizine [Zyrtec] 5-mg chewable tablet once daily

B) Loratadine [Claritin] 10-mg chewable tablet once daily

C) Fexofenadine [Allegra] syrup 5 mL twice daily

D) Desloratadine [Clarinex] 5-mg rapid-disintegrating tablet once daily

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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal

Anti-Inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25965

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is providing teaching for an adult patient with arthritis who has been instructed to take ibuprofen [Motrin] for discomfort. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I may experience tinnitus with higher doses of this medication."

B) "I may take up to 800 mg 4 times daily for pain."

C) "I should limit alcohol intake to fewer than three drinks a day."

D) "I will take this medication with meals to help prevent stomach upset."

Q2) An adolescent is brought to the emergency department by a parent who reports that the patient took a whole bottle of extended-release acetaminophen tablets somewhere between 8 and 10 hours ago. The nurse will anticipate administering which of the following?

A) Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst]

B) Activated charcoal

C) Hemodialysis

D) Respiratory support

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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders

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16 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is about to receive prednisone for tendonitis. The nurse reviewing the chart would be concerned about which of the following in the patient's medical history?

A) Asthma and allergic rhinitis

B) Gouty arthritis

C) Seborrheic dermatitis

D) Systemic fungal infection

Q2) Which disorders may be treated with glucocorticoids?

A) Allergic rhinitis

B) Anaphylaxis

C) Bronchiolitis

D) Gout

E) Ulcerative colitis

Q3) A patient taking a glucocorticoid for arthritis reports feeling bloated. The nurse notes edema of the patient's hands and feet. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Ask the patient about sodium intake.

B) Obtain a blood glucose level.

C) Suggest the patient limit potassium intake.

D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug.

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Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking etanercept [Enbrel] for severe rheumatoid arthritis. The patient has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks if the etanercept is stronger than the methotrexate. The nurse will tell the patient that etanercept ____ methotrexate.

A) has synergistic effects with B) helps reduce adverse effects associated with C) is better at delaying progression of joint damage than D) has fewer adverse effects than

Q2) A child who has juvenile idiopathic arthritis and who has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex] will begin a course of abatacept [Orencia]. What will the nurse include when teaching the child's family about this drug?

A) That abatacept and methotrexate must both be taken to be effective

B) To continue getting vaccinations during therapy with abatacept

C) That signs of infection may warrant immediate discontinuation of abatacept

D) That a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antagonist may be added if this therapy is not effective

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75

Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout

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9 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25968

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has gout will begin taking febuxostat [Uloric] and colchicine. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug regimen?

A) "You are taking both drugs in order to prevent hepatic side effects."

B) "You may stop taking the febuxostat after your uric acid levels decrease."

C) "You will have to take both drugs indefinitely to treat your symptoms."

D) "You will stop taking the colchicine within 6 months after starting therapy."

Q2) A patient has had three gouty flare-ups in the past year. Which drug class will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Colchicine

B) Glucocorticoids

C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

D) Urate-lowering drugs

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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone

Mineralization

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with metastatic cancer has had several fractures secondary to bone metastases. The provider orders denosumab [Xgeva]. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) Denosumab may delay healing of these fractures.

B) Denosumab should be given subcutaneously every 12 months.

C) Denosumab will improve hypocalcemia.

D) Unlike bisphosphonates, denosumab does not increase osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ).

Q2) A postmenopausal patient develops osteoporosis. The patient asks the nurse about medications to treat this condition. The nurse learns that the patient has a family history of breast cancer. The nurse will suggest discussing which medication with the provider?

A) Estrogen estradiol

B) Pamidronate [Aredia]

C) Raloxifene [Evista]

D) Teriparatide [Forteo]

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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25970

Sample Questions

Q1) Which drugs are used to treat COPD?

A) Anticholinergic medications

B) Glucocorticoids

C) Leukotriene modifiers

D) Long-acting beta₂ agonists

E) Monoclonal antibodies

Q2) A parent asks a nurse about growth suppression resulting from the use of an inhaled glucocorticoid in children. What will the nurse tell the parent?

A) Growth may be slowed, but eventual adult height will not be reduced.

B) The growth rate is not impaired, but overall height will be reduced.

C) The growth rate slows while the drug is used and only resumes when the drug is stopped.

D) Long-term use of the drug results in a decrease in adult height.

Q3) A patient who uses an inhaled glucocorticoid for chronic asthma calls the nurse to report hoarseness. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask whether the patient is rinsing the mouth after each dose.

B) Request an order for an antifungal medication.

C) Suggest that the patient be tested for a bronchial infection.

D) Tell the patient to discontinue use of the glucocorticoid.

Page 78

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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25971

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a cough has been advised to use guaifenesin. The patient asks the nurse to explain the purpose of the drug. The nurse will explain that guaifenesin:

A) dries secretions to help suppress coughing so patients can rest.

B) helps stimulate the flow of secretions to increase cough productivity.

C) helps to relieve chest pain associated with a cough.

D) stimulates the body's natural immune responses.

Q2) A patient who has seasonal allergies in the spring and fall asks the nurse about oral antihistamines. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Anticholinergic effects are more common with second-generation antihistamines."

B) "First-generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine [Benadryl], are more effective."

C) "Make sure you take antihistamines only when you have symptoms to minimize side effects."

D) "You should take oral antihistamines daily during each allergy season to get maximum effects."

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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease

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14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25972

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. The patient is otherwise healthy. The nurse learns that the patient does not smoke and that he drinks 1 or 2 glasses of wine with meals each week. The nurse anticipates that the provider will prescribe which drugs?

A) Amoxicillin [Amoxil], clarithromycin, and omeprazole [Prilosec]

B) Amoxicillin [Amoxil], metronidazole [Flagyl], and cimetidine [Tagamet]

C) Clarithromycin, metronidazole [Flagyl], and omeprazole [Prilosec]

D) Tetracycline, cimetidine [Tagamet], and lansoprazole [Prevacid]

Q2) An older adult patient with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has had only minimal relief using a histamine?-receptor antagonist (H?RA). The patient is to begin taking omeprazole [Prilosec]. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) A complete cure is expected with this medication.

B) Lifestyle changes can be as effective as medication therapy.

C) Long-term therapy may be needed.

D) The medication will be used until surgery can be performed.

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Chapter 79: Laxatives

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25973

Sample Questions

Q1) Which condition would cause the nurse to withhold a PRN order for magnesium hydroxide?

A) Chronic renal failure

B) Cirrhosis

C) Hemorrhoids

D) Prostatitis

Q2) A patient will undergo a colonoscopy, and the provider has ordered sodium phosphate as a bowel cleanser before the procedure. The nurse reviews the patient's chart and notes that the patient's creatinine clearance and blood urea nitrogen are both elevated. What will the nurse do?

A) Reduce the amount of fluid given with the laxative to prevent fluid retention.

B) Request an order to give polyethylene glycol and electrolytes (PEG-ELS) instead.

C) Suggest that the patient reduce the dietary sodium intake.

D) Suggest using a suppository laxative instead.

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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25974

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse explains to a nursing student why opioid antidiarrheal medications are classified as drugs with little or no abuse potential. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Formulations for the treatment of diarrhea have very short half lives."

B) "Opioid antidiarrheal drugs contain other drugs with unpleasant side effects at higher doses."

C) "Some opioid antidiarrheal drugs do not cross the blood-brain barrier."

D) "Some opioid antidiarrheal medications are not water soluble and cannot be given parenterally."

Q2) A nurse caring for a patient who is undergoing a third round of chemotherapy is preparing to administer ondansetron [Zofran] 30 minutes before initiation of the chemotherapy. The patient tells the nurse that the ondansetron did not work as well the last time as it had the first time. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the ondansetron at the same time as the chemotherapy.

B) Contact the provider to suggest using high-dose intravenous dolasetron [Anzemet].

C) Request an order to administer dexamethasone with the ondansetron.

D) Suggest to the provider that loperamide [Lomotil] be given with the ondansetron.

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Chapter 81: Vitamins

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25975

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with hyperlipidemia has been told by the provider to take extra niacin. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) increase servings of poultry, fish, and cereals.

B) take nicotinamide supplements.

C) take nicotinic acid supplements.

D) take tryptophan supplements.

Q2) A patient who is malnourished has scaling, cracked skin on the arms and face. The patient is irritable, anxious, and has difficulty sleeping. The patient complains of soreness of the tongue and mouth. When teaching this patient about vitamin therapy for this disorder, the nurse will tell the patient to report which side effects?

A) Abdominal cramps and diarrhea

B) Flushing, dizziness, and nausea

C) Migraine headaches

D) Numbness of feet and hands

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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement by a patient about to begin taking orlistat [Xenical] for weight loss therapy indicates an understanding of this drug's actions?

A) "I can eat as much as I want and still lose weight."

B) "I should avoid fat-soluble vitamin supplements while taking this drug."

C) "If I take a bulk-forming laxative, I can reduce the incidence of fecal incontinence."

D) "If I take the drug 4 times daily instead of twice daily, I will lose weight faster."

Q2) A nurse is counseling a group of patients who are beginning a weight-loss diet. The nurse discusses the role of exercise in weight management. Which statement by a patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Exercise has a greater role in weight-loss maintenance than in weight loss itself."

B) "Exercise helps by reducing abdominal fat and improving cardiovascular fitness."

C) "Once I lose weight, I can reduce the amount of time per week I exercise."

D) "I should begin with at least 30 minutes of exercise per day, 5 days per week."

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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has a localized skin infection, which is most likely caused by a gram-positive cocci. Until the culture and sensitivity results are available, the nurse will expect the provider to order a ____-spectrum ____ agent.

A) broad; systemic

B) broad; topical

C) narrow; systemic

D) narrow; topical

Q2) Which patients should be given antibiotics prophylactically?

A) Children who attend day care with other children who have strep throat

B) Children undergoing chemotherapy who have mild neutropenia

C) Patients with certain congenital heart defects at risk for bacterial endocarditis

D) Patients with compound fractures undergoing surgical repair

E) Postoperative patients who have undergone emergency cesarean sections

Q3) Which are benefits of using a combination of two or more antibiotics?

A) Reduced cost

B) Reduced risk of superinfection

C) Reduced toxicity

D) Reduced resistance

E) Reduced risk in severe infection

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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I: Penicillins

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is about to receive penicillin G for an infection that is highly sensitive to this drug. While obtaining the patient's medication history, the nurse learns that the patient experienced a rash when given amoxicillin [Amoxil] as a child 20 years earlier. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the provider to order a cephalosporin.

B) Reassure the patient that allergic responses diminish over time.

C) Request an order for a skin test to assess the current risk.

D) Suggest using a desensitization schedule to administer the drug.

Q2) A patient is receiving intravenous potassium penicillin G, 2 million units to be administered over 1 hour. At 1900, the nurse notes that the dose hung at 1830 has infused completely. What will the nurse do?

A) Assess the skin at the infusion site for signs of tissue necrosis.

B) Observe the patient closely for confusion and other neurotoxic effects.

C) Request an order for serum electrolytes and cardiac monitoring.

D) Watch the patient's actions and report any bizarre behaviors.

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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall Ii:

Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, Teicoplanin, and Fosfomycin

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is receiving a final dose of intravenous (IV) cephalosporin begins to complain of pain and irritation at the infusion site. The nurse observes signs of redness at the IV insertion site and along the vein. What is the nurse's priority action?

A) Apply warm packs to the arm, and infuse the medication at a slower rate.

B) Continue the infusion while elevating the arm.

C) Select an alternate intravenous site and administer the infusion more slowly.

D) Request central venous access.

Q2) Which cephalosporin may be used to treat meningitis?

A) Cefaclor

B) Cefazolin

C) Cefoxitin

D) Cefotaxime

Q3) Besides the cost of administering a given drug, which are considerations when a provider selects a cephalosporin to treat an infection?

A) Adverse effects

B) Antimicrobial spectrum

C) Brand name

D) Manufacturer

E) Pharmacokinetics

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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:

Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which side effect of clindamycin [Cleocin] causes the most concern and may warrant discontinuation of the drug?

A) Diarrhea

B) Headache

C) Nausea

D) Vomiting

Q2) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will begin taking clarithromycin ER [Biaxin XL] to treat an Helicobacter pylori infection. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may experience distorted taste when taking this medication."

B) "I should take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days."

C) "I should take this medication on an empty stomach."

D) "This medication does not interact with other drugs."

Q3) To prevent yellow or brown discoloration of teeth in children, tetracyclines should not be given:

A) to children once the permanent teeth have developed.

B) to patients taking calcium supplements.

C) to pregnant patients after the fourth month of gestation.

D) with dairy products or antacids.

Page 88

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Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is receiving gentamicin once daily. A nursing student asks the nurse how the drug can be effective if given only once a day. The nurse explains drug dosing schedules for aminoglycosides. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Gentamicin has a longer halflife than other aminoglycosides."

B) "Large doses given once daily yield higher peak levels."

C) "The postantibiotic effect lasts for several hours."

D) "There is less risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity with large daily doses."

Q2) A patient who has been receiving intravenous gentamicin for several days reports having had a headache for 2 days. The nurse will request an order to:

A) discontinue the gentamicin.

B) obtain a gentamicin trough before the next dose is given.

C) give an analgesic to control headache discomfort.

D) obtain renal function tests to evaluate for potential nephrotoxicity.

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89

Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse teaches a patient about sulfonamides. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I need to drink extra fluids while taking this medication."

B) "I need to use sunscreen when taking this drug."

C) "I should call my provider if I develop a rash while taking this drug."

D) "I should stop taking this drug when my symptoms are gone."

Q2) A patient will be discharged from the hospital with a prescription for TMP/SMZ [Bactrim]. When providing teaching for this patient, the nurse will tell the patient that it will be important to:

A) drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.

B) eat foods that are high in potassium.

C) take the medication with food.

D) take folic acid supplements.

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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has a positive urine culture 1 week after completion of a 3-day course of antibiotics. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will:

A) begin a 2-week course of antibiotics.

B) evaluate for a structural abnormality of the urinary tract.

C) initiate long-term prophylaxis with low-dose antibiotics.

D) treat the patient with intravenous antibiotics.

Q2) A patient with a history of renal calculi has fever, flank pain, and bacteriuria. The nurse caring for this patient understands that it is important for the provider to:

A) begin antibiotic therapy after urine culture and sensitivity results are available.

B) give prophylactic antibiotics for 6 weeks after the acute infection has cleared.

C) initiate immediate treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics.

D) refer the patient for intravenous antibiotics and hospitalization.

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Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium Avium Complex

Infection

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Sample Questions

Q1) A healthcare worker who is asymptomatic has a screening TST result of 10 mm of induration during a pre-employment physical. What will the nurse reading this test tell the patient?

A) "This is a negative test, so you are cleared for employment."

B) "You have latent TB and will need to take isoniazid for 6 to 9 months."

C) "You need to have a chest radiograph and a sputum culture."

D) "You will begin taking a four-drug regimen to treat tuberculosis."

Q2) A patient has been taking isoniazid [Nydrazid] for 4 months for latent tuberculosis. The patient reports bilateral tingling and numbness of the hands and feet, as well as feeling clumsy. The nurse expects the provider to:

A) discontinue the isoniazid.

B) lower the isoniazid dose and add rifampin.

C) order pyridoxine 100 mg per day.

D) recheck the tuberculin skin test to see whether it worsens.

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92

Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:

Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which fluoroquinolone antibiotics may be administered to children?

A) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]

B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]

C) Moxifloxacin [Avelox]

D) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]

E) Ofloxacin

Q2) A patient who is receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin for pneumonia develops diarrhea. A stool culture is positive for Clostridium difficile. The nurse will expect the provider to:

A) add metronidazole [Flagyl].

B) increase the dose of ciprofloxacin.

C) restrict dairy products.

D) switch to gemifloxacin.

Q3) A nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order which antibiotic?

A) Daptomycin [Cubicin]

B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]

C) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]

D) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro] Page 93

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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A provider has ordered oral voriconazole [Vfend] for a patient who has a systemic fungal infection. The nurse obtains a medication history and learns that the patient takes phenobarbital for seizures. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss which possibility?

A) Administering intravenous voriconazole

B) Reducing the dose of phenobarbital

C) Reducing the dose of voriconazole

D) Using a different antifungal agent

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving amphotericin B [Abelcet] for a systemic fungal infection. In spite of receiving diphenhydramine and acetaminophen before initiation of treatment, the patient has fever and chills with rigors. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss the addition of which drug?

A) Aspirin

B) Dantrolene

C) Hydrocortisone

D) Omeprazole

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Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-Hiv Viral

Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient comes to the clinic and receives valacyclovir [Valtrex] for a herpes-zoster virus. The nurse instructs the patient to take the medication:

A) without regard to meals.

B) without any dairy products.

C) each morning.

D) on an empty stomach.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about influenza prevention. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may develop a mild case of influenza if I receive the vaccine by injection."

B) "I should receive the vaccine every year in October or November."

C) "If I have a cold I should postpone getting the vaccine."

D) "The antiviral medications are as effective as the flu vaccine for preventing the flu."

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is HIV positive and is taking zidovudine [Retrovir]. Before administering the medication, the nurse should monitor which laboratory values?

A) Ketones in the urine and blood

B) Serum immunoglobulin levels

C) Serum lactate dehydrogenase

D) Complete blood count (CBC)

Q2) A patient taking stavudine [Zerit] telephones the clinic and reports numbness and tingling in the hands and feet. What should the nurse tell the patient?

A) The numbness is an expected side effect of the medication and will diminish once the drug is withdrawn.

B) The medication will probably be stopped, and the patient should come into the clinic for further evaluation.

C) The dose may be too high, and the patient should cut the tablet in half.

D) The patient should take the medication on a full stomach to reduce absorption of the drug.

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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital with fever, headache, malaise, joint pain, and enlarged lymph nodes. Blood cultures are positive for Treponema pallidum. The nurse recognizes this as which type of syphilis?

A) Congenital

B) Primary

C) Secondary

D) Tertiary

Q2) A patient complains of painful urination. A physical examination reveals vesicles on her labia, vagina, and the foreskin of her clitoris. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about which medication?

A) Acyclovir [Zovirax]

B) Azithromycin [Zithromax]

C) Metronidazole [Flagyl]

D) Tinidazole [Tindamax]

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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has developed a local infection at an IV insertion site. Before the IV was inserted, the site was cleansed with a product with an ethanol concentration of 70%. The nurse will report the local infection to the provider and expect to receive an order to:

A) administer a systemic antimicrobial agent.

B) apply a topical antiseptic agent to the infected area.

C) culture the site to assess for C. difficile.

D) use a topical agent containing 95% ethanol.

Q2) A clinic nurse is preparing to sterilize instruments used in clinic procedures. The nurse will place the instruments in glutaraldehyde [Cidex-7]. Which actions are necessary when using this product?

A) Acidifying the solution to improve its antiseptic properties

B) Cleansing the hands with an alcohol-based hand rub

C) Ensuring adequate ventilation in the room where the solution is used

D) Removing blood from the instruments before soaking them

E) Soaking the instruments for 10 hours or longer

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Chapter 97: Anthelmintics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is being treated with albendazole [Albenza] for neurocysticercosis caused by larval forms of the pork tapeworm. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about the drug regimen?

A) "I may need to take this medication for a month before the infestation is cleared."

B) "I should take this drug with a fatty meal to improve absorption."

C) "I will need to have liver function tests before and during treatment."

D) "I will take the drug in 3 consecutive cycles of 28 days, followed by 14 drug-free days."

Q2) A young female patient is seen in a rural clinic after complaining of abdominal pain. The patient is wearing dirty clothing and is barefoot. The provider orders a complete blood count, which shows that the patient is anemic. The nurse may suspect that this patient has which of the following infestations?

A) Ancylostomiasis (hookworm)

B) Ascariasis (giant roundworm)

C) Enterobiasis (pinworm)

D) Trichuriasis (whipworm)

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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has severe P. falciparum malaria and is unable to tolerate oral medications. Which regimen is the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved treatment of choice for this patient?

A) Intravenous quinidine gluconate plus intravenous doxycycline [Vibramycin]

B) Intravenous artesunate followed by atovaquone/proguanil [Malarone]

C) Intravenous quinine [Qualaquin] plus intravenous clindamycin

D) Intravenous mefloquine plus intravenous primaquine

Q2) A patient who takes imipramine has a moderate infection with P. vivax that is chloroquine resistant. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Artemether/lumefantrine [Coartem]

B) Atovaquone/proguanil [Malarone]

C) Artesunate

D) Quinine

Q3) Which are adverse effects of quinine [Qualaquin]?

A) Cinchonism

B) Hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency

C) Increased ventricular rate

D) Nightmares

E) Prolonged QT interval

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Page 101

Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents

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Q1) A family has just returned from a camping trip, and all family members have diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain after eating. The parents report that they drank water from a well while on the camping trip. While awaiting stool cultures, the nurse will expect the provider to order which agent empirically?

A) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]

B) Metronidazole [Flagyl]

C) Miltefosine [Impavido]

D) Sodium stibogluconate [Pentostam]

Q2) A patient taking metronidazole [Flagyl] for asymptomatic intestinal amebiasis complains of tingling and numbness of the hands and feet. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) Encourage the patient to exercise to improve circulation.

B) Inform the patient that numbness is a common and reversible side effect.

C) Stress the need to avoid constrictive clothing and crossing the legs.

D) Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber.

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102

Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides

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Sample Questions

Q1) A public health nurse visits with the parents of a child who has body lice. It is most important that the nurse tell the parents that:

A) body lice are transmitted by direct person-to-person contact.

B) treatment of skin surfaces will eradicate the infestation.

C) all clothing and bedding must be disinfected.

D) lice burrow into the body, and vigorous scrubbing is required to remove them.

Q2) A parent has used permethrin [Nix] twice to treat head lice in a child. Two weeks after the last treatment, head lice are again found in the child's hair. The parent asks the nurse what to do. The nurse will recommend asking the child's provider about which therapy?

A) Applying lindane 1% shampoo

B) Cutting the child's hair

C) Ordering permethrin 5% [Elimite]

D) Using benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia]

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Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about how cytotoxic anticancer drugs affect normal cells. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of this teaching?

A) "Cytotoxic drugs lack tissue specificity."

B) "Cytotoxic drugs have a high degree of selective toxicity."

C) "Differences between cancer cells and normal cells are qualitative."

D) "Neoplastic cells and normal tissue cells are very different."

Q2) A patient is receiving chemotherapy. Seven days after a dose, the patient's neutrophil count is 1000 cells/mm³.The nurse will tell this patient:

A) that hospitalization is necessary to provide infection prophylaxis.

B) that the provider will probably repeat the lab work in 3 to 5 days.

C) to ask the provider about skipping the next dose of chemotherapy.

D) to report any symptoms such as pus, abscesses, or cough.

Q3) A patient with cancer has a tumor composed mostly of G₀ cells. When teaching this patient about the disease, the nurse will make which statement?

A) "Cells in this patient's type of tumor will proliferate rapidly."

B) "Chemotherapeutic agents that are not toxic to other tissues may be used."

C) "This type of tumor is especially sensitive to chemotherapy."

D) "This tumor will be managed primarily with surgery."

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Page 104

Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin chemotherapy with cisplatin. Which medications will the nurse expect to administer to offset this agent's side effects?

A) Amifostine [Ethyol], diuretics, and antiemetics

B) Antiemetics, vitamin B₁₂, and glucocorticoids

C) Dexamethasone, antiemetics, and vistonuridine

D) Folic acid, gabapentin, and vitamin B₁₂

Q2) The nurse on an oncology unit prepares to administer the fourth cycle of docetaxel [Taxotere] to a patient with breast cancer. Which clinical finding would cause the nurse to withhold the dose and call the prescriber?

A) Alanine transaminase (ALT) 1.2 times the upper limit

B) Alkaline phosphatase 2 times the upper limit

C) Neutrophil count below 1500/mm³

D) Creatinine clearance of 130 mL/min/1.73 m²

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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,

Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient in the oncology unit who was recently diagnosed with advanced renal carcinoma. The nurse prepares to administer aldesleukin [Proleukin] as part of the treatment regimen. What is the primary adverse effect of this drug?

A) Hypertension

B) Capillary leakage syndrome

C) Hyperglycemia

D) Hyperuricemia

Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a first dose of ado-trastuzumab emtansine [Kadcyla] to a patient who has metastatic breast cancer. Which nursing action is correct?

A) Administer a test dose with an antihistamine.

B) Ensure that the patient has HER2-positive disease.

C) Infuse the initial dose over 30 to 45 minutes.

D) Review renal function tests.

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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has had dilation of the eyes with an anticholinergic agent. What will the nurse say when preparing this patient to go home after the examination?

A) "Systemic side effects will not occur with this agent."

B) "You may experience an increased heart rate, but this is a harmless side effect."

C) "You may need to wear dark glasses until this medication wears off."

D) "You will be able to read as soon as the exam is completed."

Q2) A nursing student asks the nurse to discuss the differences between POAG and angle-closure glaucoma. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Angle-closure glaucoma may be asymptomatic until irreversible damage has occurred."

B) "Both types are more common in African American patients."

C) "Drug therapy is the definitive treatment for angle-closure glaucoma."

D) "Early treatment with prostaglandin analogs can stop the progression of POAG."

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107

Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 14-year-old patient has moderate acne that has not responded to topical drugs. The nurse will suggest that the patient and her parents discuss which treatment with the provider?

A) Combination oral contraceptive medication

B) Doxycycline [Vibramycin]

C) Isotretinoin [Accutane]

D) Spironolactone

Q2) To provide protection against the full range of ultraviolet (UV) radiation, an organic sunscreen must contain which agent?

A) Avobenzone

B) Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)

C) Titanium dioxide

D) Zinc oxide

Q3) A nurse is discussing the use of tazarotene [Tazorac] with a patient who has psoriasis. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I should use a sunscreen when using this medication."

B) "I understand the gel can cause staining of clothing."

C) "I will apply this once daily in the evening."

D) "I will apply the medication to dry skin."

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Page 108

Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is administering ear drops to a patient with acute bacterial otitis externa. Which procedure would assist drug penetration into the ear canal?

A) Administering refrigerated drops

B) Inserting a sponge wick into the ear canal and then administering the drops

C) Cleaning out the earwax with a cotton-tipped swab before giving the drops

D) Inserting earplugs after administering the drops

Q2) An 18-month-old child is seen in the clinic with a temperature of 40°C. The child's parents tell the nurse that the child developed the fever the previous evening and was inconsolable during the night. The provider examines the child and notes a bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane. The nurse will expect to:

A) ask the parent to return to the clinic in 2 days to see whether antibiotics need to be started.

B) discuss a referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for follow-up treatment.

C) teach the parent to give analgesics for 3 days while observing for worsening symptoms.

D) tell the parent to administer amoxicillin at 45 mg/kg/dose twice daily.

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109

Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with cystic fibrosis uses inhaled tobramycin [TOBI] 300 mg every 12 hours in repeated cycles of 4 weeks on and 4 weeks off. The patient reports hoarseness and tinnitus. The nurse will tell the patient that:

A) an intravenous form may be used to avoid hoarseness.

B) hearing loss may occur with continued use of the drug.

C) the provider will need to monitor renal function closely.

D) these are common side effects of this medication.

Q2) An adult patient with sickle cell anemia is being treated for a severe acute crisis with an opioid analgesic, a glucocorticoid, and hydroxyurea. The patient's complete blood count reveals neutrophils 2000/mm³, platelets 85,000/mm³, reticulocytes 85,000/mm³, and a hemoglobin of 4.2 gm/dL. What will the nurse anticipate doing?

A) Decreasing the glucocorticoid dose

B) Increasing the glucocorticoid dose

C) Increasing the hydroxyurea dose

D) Stopping the hydroxyurea

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110

Chapter 108: Complementary and Alternative Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking drugs for hyperlipidemia. The patient asks about using flaxseed supplements to increase fiber. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) Not to use defatted flaxseed

B) That flaxseed helps with the absorption of medications

C) That flaxseed is not recommended

D) To take the flaxseed 1 hour before taking the drug

Q2) A nursing student asks a nurse what companies are allowed to put on products which are considered alternative use drugs. Which general statements can be included on the label?

A) Energizes and rejuvenates.

B) Protects against cancer.

C) Improves symptoms of Alzheimer's disease.

D) Relieves menopausal hot flashes.

Q3) Which claim may be made by manufacturers of dietary supplements?

A) "Energizes and rejuvenates."

B) "Promotes pulmonary health."

C) "Reduces pain and stiffness from arthritis."

D) "Reduces stress."

E) "Relieves hot flashes associated with menopause."

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Page 111

Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning

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Sample Questions

Q1) A young patient is brought to the emergency department by friends, who say they found him unresponsive at his home. The prescriber suspects that the patient was poisoned. During the assessment, the man mumbles a word and becomes comatose. The nurse should immediately prepare to administer:

A) activated charcoal.

B) intravenous dextrose.

C) intravenous flumazenil [Romazicon].

D) syrup of ipecac.

Q2) A patient overdosed on aspirin several hours ago and is brought to the emergency department. The nurse assists with supportive care and then asks the provider about an order for which drug?

A) Activated charcoal

B) Ammonium chloride

C) Fomepizole [Antizol]

D) Sodium bicarbonate

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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a course in bioterrorism to a group of military nurses. Which statement by a military nurse indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Although smallpox has been eradicated, it remains a threat."

B) "Anthrax is spread rapidly from person to person."

C) "Pneumonic plague is not transmitted from person to person."

D) "Terrorists spreading tularemia would most likely put it in the water supply."

Q2) A patient reported to have been exposed to mustard gas is brought to the emergency department. The patient's skin is red and swollen with small blisters, and the patient's eyes are red and tearing. The patient has a runny nose and a dry, barking cough. What should the nurse's initial action be?

A) Prepare for renal dialysis.

B) Provide oxygen and prepare for mechanical ventilation.

C) Remove the patient's clothing and clean the skin with soap and water.

D) Rush the patient to the intensive care unit for cardiorespiratory monitoring.

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