Advanced Perioperative Nursing Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Perioperative Nursing delves into the specialized care required before, during, and after surgical procedures, emphasizing the role of the nurse as an integral member of the surgical team. The course covers complex patient assessment, operative techniques, infection control, anesthesia considerations, and postoperative management. It explores evidence-based strategies for managing surgical complications, effective interdisciplinary communication, and the use of advanced technology in the perioperative setting. Students will also examine ethical and legal issues, patient advocacy, and quality improvement initiatives to enhance surgical outcomes and patient safety.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 16th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
30 Chapters
749 Verified Questions
749 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1853 Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37030
Sample Questions
Q1) A 36-year-old woman was preoperatively admitted for laparoscopic cholecystectomy with operative cholangiogram.She was then interviewed by her perioperative nurse in the preoperative intake lounge.The patient's weight on admission was 245 lb.After the assessment,the nurse returned to the operating room (OR)and modified the standard plan of care by instituting risk reduction strategies that were derived from information from the preoperative assessment.A good example of this action would best be described by:
A) replacing the regular OR bed with a bariatric-specific OR bed.
B) providing protective lead aprons for all staff during the procedure.
C) writing the patient's name, allergies, and body weight on the whiteboard.
D) administering antibiotics to the patient 1 hour before the incision.
Answer: A
Q2) Which order best describes the process used to implement evidence-based professional nursing?
A) Literature search, theory review, data analysis, policy development
B) Regional survey, literature search, meta-analysis, practice change
C) Identify problem, scientific evidence, develop policy, evaluate outcome
D) Identify issue, analyze scientific evidence, implement change, evaluate process
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 3
Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37031
Sample Questions
Q1) Fires and explosions in the perioperative setting require three components,described as the "fire triangle." The element of the triangle the perioperative nurse has the most control over is:
A) the ignition sources.
B) the fuel.
C) the oxidizer.
D) static electricity.
Answer: B
Q2) Informed consent is both a requirement and a patient right.The perioperative nurse's responsibility in terms of informed consent is to:
A) ensure the consent is completed properly to prevent legal liability.
B) report to the physician any doubts or concerns regarding the patients understanding.
C) obtain the informed consent.
D) answer questions related to risks and benefits.
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37032
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
A) To recommend exposure limits of all chemicals in the workplace over a working lifetime
B) To inform all employees of the presence, characteristics, handling, and risks of chemicals in the workplace
C) To provide a structured design for inservices and skill stations on hazardous chemical safety
D) To support the development of manuals and log books for accrediting bodies surveys
Answer: B
Q2) Exposure to surgical smoke may be harmful to anyone who is in the room.Hazards presented by exposure to surgical smoke may be reduced by:
A) wearing a surgical mask.
B) using a smoke evacuator at the request of the surgeon.
C) using a smoke evacuator during all procedures which generate smoke.
D) using a smoke evacuator during laser procedures.
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 4: Infection Prevention and Control
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37033
Sample Questions
Q1) Closed gloving is the technique of choice for the initial donning of sterile gloves by the scrubbed team member; however:
A) it can only be used for the initial gloving.
B) it requires two people to execute without contamination.
C) there is a risk of contamination if the thumbs are not extended.
D) it is only used when double gloving is anticipated.
Q2) The scrub person is preparing to self-don a wraparound sterile gown before surgery.Select the best practice to follow for the self-gowning procedure:
A) hold the gown away from the body and allow it to unfold with the outside toward the wearer.
B) keep hands on the outside of the gown as it completely unfolds.
C) slip one hand into an open armhole at a time, while using the other hand to hold the shoulder of the gown in place.
D) push the hands and forearms into the sleeves, advancing the hands just to the proximal edge of the cuff.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
6
Chapter 5: Anesthesia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37034
Sample Questions
Q1) In the past,MH mortality ranged up to 80%,but the immediate infusion of dantrolene (Dantrium)and proper treatment have reduced the death rate to about 5%.What is dantrolene's mechanism of action that reverses the hypermetabolic state and crisis?
A) It is a succinylcholine reversal agent.
B) It is a skeletal muscle relaxant.
C) It is a metabolic antagonist.
D) It has diuretic properties.
Q2) Multiple studies have found that intraoperative awareness (IOA)occurs in a small percentage of patients undergoing general anesthesia.Which high risk populations have more incidence of IOA?
A) Emergent trauma and obstetric patients
B) Pediatric patients
C) Ambulatory surgery patients
D) Elderly patients
Q3) The term balanced anesthesia is described as:
A) a combination of IV medications and inhalation agents.
B) nitrous oxide, air, and oxygen.
C) premedication, induction agents, and reversal agents.
D) induction agent, muscle relaxation, and analgesics.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 7
Chapter 6: Positioning the Patient for Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37035
Sample Questions
Q1) Recent studies on the relevance of the Braden pressure ulcer risk scale in the perioperative and critical care setting are inconclusive.In which perioperative setting would the Braden scale be most predictive as a baseline metric?
A) Postoperative
B) Intraoperative
C) Preoperative
D) Ambulatory
Q2) A frail and thin 91-lb,83-year-old woman is scheduled for a right pneumonectomy for non-small cell lung cancer.She will be positioned in left lateral position for her procedure.Based on the perioperative nurse's preoperative assessment,identify three position-related nursing diagnoses for this procedure.
A) Risk for Falls; Impaired Comfort; Impaired Physical Mobility
B) Risk for Perioperative Hypothermia, Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity; Impaired Comfort
C) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity; Risk for Falls; Impaired Comfort
D) Risk for Perioperative Hypothermia; Risk for Impaired Skin integrity; Risk for Falls
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
8
Chapter 7: Sutures, sharps, and Instruments
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37036
Sample Questions
Q1) The ideal suture material is one that has handling characteristics such as:
A) memory.
B) slickness.
C) ease of tying.
D) removable knots.
Q2) Surgical instruments that are not considered in the category of clamps,retractors,or cutting instruments,but are used in most procedures,are typically included within the category of:
A) specialty instruments.
B) microsurgical instruments.
C) endomechanicals.
D) accessory and ancillary instruments.
Q3) Flat neurosurgical patties are flat sponges composed of soft compressed cotton or rayon with an embedded radiopaque element and string attached.They are often used in neurosurgical procedures.While used for hemostasis and exposure,what other use would be important in surgery?
A) Application of topical steroids
B) Marking of suspicious site on a specimen for frozen section
C) Filter for suction tip to prevent underlying tissue damage
D) Permanent packing to fill cranial defect
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Surgical Modalities
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37037
Sample Questions
Q1) The surgeon prefers the argon beam coagulator for dissection in his liver procedures,because the liver bleeds easily,and traditional monopolar electrosurgery often causes more bleeding than it stops.What is the application characteristic of the argon beam coagulator that enhances liver tissue hemostasis?
A) Use of argon gas markedly reduces the risk of overpressurization.
B) Argon gas is heavier than air, inert, and noncombustible and does not tear tissue.
C) Argon gas results in decreased chance of combustion, formation of surgical smoke, and burned tissue.
D) Argon gas provides noncontact tissue coagulation with reduced risk of rebleeding.
Q2) The surface tissue effect of the CO laser has a shallow penetration of 0.1 to 0.2 mm photothermal effect which serves as the laser of choice for:
A) urologic lithotripsy.
B) plastic surgery or dermatologic removal of tattoos and hemangiomas.
C) laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
D) endoscopic ablation of Barrett's esophageal dysplasia.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Wound Healing, dressings, and Drains
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37038
Sample Questions
Q1) A perioperative nurse returns back to work in a busy OR tomorrow after a 3-week vacation.She is certain she will be assigned to scrub in cardiac surgery in the morning.Select the infection prevention measures she must accomplish before she returns to the OR.
A) Home launder her hats and scrubs.
B) Remove her artificial nail tips and cut her nails to 1/4 inch past her finger tips.
C) Complete nasal swab screening for Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Perform a 10-minute scrub.
Q2) A 62-year-old man had surgery 6 days ago for a ruptured diverticulum.What was the wound classification at the time of his emergency surgery?
A) Clean wound, classification I
B) Clean/contaminated wound, classification II
C) Contaminated wound, classification III
D) Infected wound, classification IV
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 10: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37039
Sample Questions
Q1) The perianesthesia nurse completes a systematic and comprehensive secondary assessment of the patient (e.g.,head-to-toe assessment or major body systems' approach).Select the responses that best reflect the parameters of a comprehensive respiratory assessment.
A) Rate, rhythm, and breath sounds
B) Evidence of unabsorbed residual anesthetic vapors
C) Oxygen saturation level
D) Artificial airway and oxygen delivery system
E) Patient's ability to take deep breaths on command
Q2) Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)is a problem that affects approximately 30% of PACU patients.Patients with four or more risk factors have a higher incidence of PONV.Select the option that best reflects relevant risk factors for PONV.
A) Reaction to nitrous oxide, atopy, postmenopausal, use of volatile anesthetics
B) Latex sensitivity, male gender, use of halogenated gas induction
C) Predisposition to malignant hyperthermia, night sweats, motion sickness, male gender
D) Nonsmoker, female gender, postoperative opioids, use of nitrous oxide
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 12
Chapter 11: Gastrointestinal Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37040
Sample Questions
Q1) Review the list below and select the answer that reflects the correct match between the procedure and the disease.
A) Duodenoscopy for gastric reflux disease and hiatal hernia
B) Roux-en-Y for gastritis
C) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) for gastric ulcer disease
D) Small bowel enteroscopy for ulcerative colitis
Q2) A 38-year-old female has been admitted through the emergency department (ED)for severe abdominal pain,distended abdomen,and fever.The surgery service has been consulted and has scheduled her for exploratory surgery.The patient has undergone two open abdominal surgeries in the past for "female problems" and states that she has a tendency to form keloids.Review the list below and select the most likely preoperative diagnosis for the patient based on her surgical history and symptoms.
A) Keloidal mass of the mesentery
B) Endometriosis plaques on the small bowel
C) Small bowel obstruction with torsion
D) Ruptured appendix
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37041
Sample Questions
Q1) An example of an indication for liver transplantation would be:
A) end-stage liver disease resulting from advanced hepatic cancer with metastasis.
B) acute fulminant biliary disease of unknown origin.
C) infection caused by untreated cystic anomalies.
D) primary hepatic cancer.
Q2) A 52-year-old man,9 days post liver transplant,presents to the ER with tachycardia,fever,right upper quadrant pain and jaundice.These symptoms are reflective of what postoperative complication?
A) Infection
B) Hepatic thrombosis
C) Acute graft rejection
D) Common duct obstruction
Q3) The head of the pancreas is fixed to the:
A) spleen.
B) duodenum.
C) stomach.
D) biliary tree.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 14
Chapter 13: Hernia Repair
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37042
Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a common postoperative complication related to inguinal hernia surgery is:
A) delayed return to activity.
B) inguinal nerve entrapment.
C) femoral canal adhesions.
D) hernia recurrence.
Q2) Implantable mesh prosthetics can be made of synthetic,biosynthetic,or biological material.What is the primary advantage of biologic mesh?
A) Results in reduced absorption.
B) May be used in all wound classes.
C) Results in reduced cost.
D) Forms a dense fibrous capsule.
Q3) Select the most common hernia that occurs in both men and women.
A) Direct femoral hernia
B) Indirect inguinal hernia
C) Indirect femoral hernia
D) Direct inguinal hernia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37043
Sample Questions
Q1) An example of perineal glands that secrete mucus is:
A) Skene's glands.
B) Bartholin's glands.
C) perineal glands.
D) labial glands.
Q2) A significant potential complication of hysteroscopy is the intravasation of the fluid used to distend the uterine cavity.Intravasation with systemic absorption can lead to:
A) cul-de-sac obliteration.
B) hyperkalemia.
C) uterine perforation.
D) hyponatremia.
Q3) When catheterizing the female patient,the nurse must locate the urethra.The correct order of the external organs of the vulva listed anterior to posterior is:
A) mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, urethra, clitoris, vaginal opening.
B) labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, urethra, vaginal opening, mons pubis.
C) mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, vestibular glands, vaginal opening.
D) labia majora, labia minora, urethra, mons pubis, clitoris, vaginal opening.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Genitourinary Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37044
Sample Questions
Q1) An orthotopic neobladder is surgically created as a bladder substitute after a cystectomy,prostatectomy,or hysterectomy is performed for bladder cancer.Bladder substitution relies on meticulous dissection with preservation of the urinary sphincter and neurovascular bundles,as well as a watertight urethral anastomosis.Also termed the Le Bag continent diversion,which segments of the bowel and/or small intestine are used in this technique to create the neobladder?
A) Segment of sigmoid colon
B) Right colon and ileum
C) Proximal right colon segment with cecum
D) Transverse colon
Q2) The renal artery and vein enter and exit the kidney on the medial side of the organ through a concave area known as the:
A) calyces.
B) pedicle.
C) hilum.
D) renal pelvis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 16: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37045
Sample Questions
Q1) A total thyroidectomy may be done for a variety of malignant tumors.The most common form of malignant thyroid nodule is a poorly encapsulated type known as:
A) follicular carcinoma.
B) anaplastic carcinoma.
C) papillary carcinoma.
D) medullary carcinoma.
Q2) Postoperative hoarseness,obstructed airway,and paralysis of the vocal cords are serious complications of thyroid surgery.During surgery,care is taken to identify and protect which nerve?
A) Superior branch of the vagus nerve
B) Intrinsic cricothyroid nerve
C) Recurrent tracheoesophageal nerve
D) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Q3) The pyramidal lobe of the thyroid is described as:
A) a small lobe often involved in 30% of cases of thyroid dysfunction.
B) a protrusion of an immature thyroglossal duct cyst overgrowth.
C) a thin upward protrusion of thyroid tissue from the isthmus.
D) a vestige of an embryonic thyroid cyst.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Breast Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37046
Sample Questions
Q1) The internal thoracic lymph nodes,which drain the inner half of the breast,can also be a channel for the:
A) secretion of estrogen.
B) spread of metastasis.
C) drainage of the outer half of the breast.
D) spread of infections.
Q2) Which factors are considered high increased risk for breast cancer?
A) Nulliparity, dense breasts
B) Family history, early menarche
C) Age greater than 60, genetic factors
D) History of hormone replacement therapy, obesity
Q3) Fibrocystic change in the breast is an all-encompassing term used to describe many different breast changes.These changes affect almost all women at some time in their lives.Nipple discharge is more commonly associated with benign lesions than with cancer; however,discharge is usually significant only if it is spontaneous,persistent,and:
A) chronic.
B) bilateral.
C) painful.
D) milky white.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 19
Chapter 18: Ophthalmic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37047
Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing for pars plana vitrectomy in the posterior segment,the perioperative nurse must be aware that a combined scleral buckling procedure may be necessary.Other important information the perioperative nurse should know before preparing the OR for the procedure includes the location of the ocular problem,the surgeon's plan to address the problem,and the instrumentation and biomedical equipment and devices to be used.Technologic advances in ophthalmic surgery require that perioperative nurses be familiar with complex biomedical equipment.A best practice,stated below,relevant to the safe use of complex equipment would be to:
A) determine the presence and appropriate date (not expired) of the biomedical monitoring label.
B) confirm competence through inservice education and training specific to new equipment.
C) schedule the manufacturer's representative to be present to provide technical support.
D) schedule the biomedical clinical engineer to check all equipment before each procedure.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 19: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37048
Sample Questions
Q1) The surgical microscope is often used to provide illumination and magnification for complex procedures to the ear,laryngeal surgery,or reconstructive free flap procedures following neck surgery.A common eyepiece magnification for an otologic microscope is ´12.5,and the usual objective (lens)is ______-mm focal length (f).A _______-mm lens is used for laryngeal surgery.
A) 250- or 300; 400
B) 400; 150
C) 150; 400
D) 400; 250 or 300
Q2) Tympanoplasty is the surgical repair of the tympanic membrane and the tympanum and the reconstruction of the ossicular chain.Conductive hearing loss is caused by an obstruction in the external canal or middle ear,which impedes the passage of sound waves to the inner ear.A common cause of conductive hearing loss would be:
A) AOM.
B) fluid extravasation in the ear canal.
C) perforation of the tympanic membrane.
D) a healed myringotomy.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 21
Chapter 20: Orthopedic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37049
Sample Questions
Q1) Before surgery,the perioperative nurse reviews the patient record,noting relevant aspects of the history and physical examination; the nature of the problem and its onset; and results of radiographic studies,laboratory data,and other findings.The nurse investigates the patient's range of motion,neurovascular status,and general condition.The patient's perception and understanding of the surgical procedure and postoperative rehabilitation is determined,and patient education is begun.Such activities reflect which important part of the nursing process?
A) Assessment
B) Nursing diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Implementation
Q2) The vertebral bodies are connected by several cartilaginous joints.What purpose does this connection enable?
A) Communication between the spinous processes and vertebral bodies
B) Vertebral flexion, rotation, and extension
C) Vertebral flexion and torsion
D) Maintenance of integrity and spinal support
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 21: Neurosurgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37050
Sample Questions
Q1) The most frequently occurring tumors of the spine are metastatic,and the spine is the most common site for skeletal metastasis.From which organs or disease processes do most secondary spinal tumors originate?
A) Lung, breast, prostate, and blood
B) Intestines, thyroid, soft tissue sarcoma, and breast
C) Osteosarcoma, lymphoma, and pancreas
D) Myeloma, gastric, biliary, and lung
Q2) Microsurgical techniques have been applied to cranial,spinal,and peripheral nerve operations.Each time the surgeon must look away and then back to the surgical field,open wound time and anesthesia time are increased while the surgeon becomes reoriented to the field.A nursing action,in the scrub person role,directed toward assisting the surgeon in efficiency and expediting the microsurgical procedure would be to:
A) have the patient prepped and draped before the time-out.
B) place the instruments and accessories within the surgeon's peripheral vision.
C) hand instruments proficiently, in direction of use, without delay.
D) transfer microwiped instruments and accessories via the first assistant.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Reconstructive and Aesthetic Plastic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37051
Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to the individualized nursing diagnoses that apply to surgical patients,the patient scheduled for plastic or reconstructive surgery can typically be expected to have which nursing diagnosis?
A) Activity intolerance related to pain
B) Disturbed body image related to congenital or acquired defect or developmental abnormality
C) Risk for perioperative positioning injury related to improper body alignment
D) Risk for impaired skin integrity related to length of surgical intervention
Q2) When coverage for a defect cannot be achieved through skin grafting,plastic surgeons rely on other techniques to replace tissue.After mastectomy,reconstruction with a transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous (TRAM)flap is one of several options for nonsynthetic prosthetic reconstruction.Another descriptive term for the TRAM flap is the:
A) pedicle-based flap.
B) free flap.
C) composite flap.
D) rotated tunneled flap.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 23: Thoracic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37052
Sample Questions
Q1) Lung volume reduction surgery (LVRS)is an alternative surgical treatment for patients with which pulmonary condition?
A) Chronic pulmonary asthma with oxygen needed to keep saturation at 90%
B) Acute unilateral pulmonary emphysema
C) Chronic pulmonary emphysema
D) Unsuccessful or failed laser surgery for giant lung bulla
Q2) After reviewing the laboratory results and assessing the patient,the perioperative nurse determines that the patient's nursing diagnosis is impaired gas exchange related to surgical intervention.Select the appropriate nursing intervention that is related to assisting the patient to experience adequate gas exchange during the surgical procedure.
A) Decrease surgical time by anticipating needs of the patient and surgical team.
B) Collaborate in positioning the patient to provide access to the endotracheal tube, enable efficient ventilatory function, and prevent injury.
C) Obtain chest X-ray films for the intraoperative period.
D) Consult with the surgeon, requesting an order to repeat the laboratory test.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 24: Vascular Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37053
Sample Questions
Q1) Arterial procedures,especially those that involve the aorta,may place the patient at risk for significant blood loss.A nursing diagnosis related to the care of patients undergoing vascular surgery is risk for deficient fluid volume related to loss of body fluids,with a nursing outcome stated as,"Fluid balance will be maintained as evidenced by postoperative pulses equivalent to preoperative level,hourly urine output of at least 30 mL,and good skin turgor." Select all the nursing interventions that are appropriate to this outcome.
A) Initiate autotransfusion or use of an autologous blood salvage unit as required.
B) Confirm the availability of ordered blood-replacement products.
C) Monitor and record ongoing estimation of blood loss.
D) Provide the anesthesia provider with a fluid warmer.
Q2) What properties enable arteries to compensate for changes in blood pressure and blood volume?
A) Regeneration and thick muscularis
B) Dilatation and absence of valves
C) Contraction and constriction
D) Elasticity and distensibility
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26
Chapter 25: Cardiac Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37054
Sample Questions
Q1) Formerly,ventricular assist devices (VADs)were reserved for those patients who could not be weaned from CPB after open-heart operations,or who had end-stage cardiomyopathy.Current indications and choices have expanded,and a variety of active and passive devices are available to support circulation for short-,intermediate-,and long-term use.Select the statement that best reflects the implications for a patient with a VAD.
A) The newer devices have eliminated bleeding complications.
B) The VAD augments cardiac output from the right, left, or both ventricles.
C) Patients with VADs benefit from enhanced catabolism and cellular nutrition.
D) The artificial pump of the VAD increases the workload of the heart.
Q2) In the pulmonary circulatory system,blood is pumped from the right ventricle (RV)through the pulmonary valve into the main pulmonary artery (PA).The PA divides into the right and left pulmonary arteries,which further subdivide into the arterioles and capillaries of the lungs.Where does the blood from the lungs flow next?
A) Into the venules and veins
B) Into the alveoli
C) Through the pulmonary artery to the left atrium (LA)
D) Through the pulmonary veins to the LA
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27
Chapter 26: Pediatric Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37055
Sample Questions
Q1) Vascular access in pediatric patients may be established intraoperatively for short-term (weeks)or long-term (months,years)use.Select all the examples of a long-term (months,weeks)use vascular access catheter.
A) Central venous line
B) Implanted port
C) Peripherally inserted central venous catheter (PICC)
D) Power injection port
Q2) During the planning process,the perioperative nurse determines nursing interventions that will assist in meeting the appropriate goal statement of the desired nursing outcome.What nursing interventions are appropriate,when implemented,in protecting the pediatric patient from hypothermia?
A) Keep the child covered as much as possible.
B) Adjust room temperature approximately 1 hour before arrival of the child.
C) Provide a radiant heat lamp during anesthesia induction.
D) Administer antibiotic prophylaxis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 27: Geriatric Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37056
Sample Questions
Q1) Minimally invasive surgeries continue to increase in popularity.It seems logical that older patients would benefit from smaller incisions that produce less postoperative pain,atelectasis,and ileus.However,regardless of age,every surgical procedure possesses a certain amount of risk.Which minimally invasive surgical component can present hemodynamic and pulmonary consequences in patients with severe cardiac or pulmonary disease?
A) Robotic-assisted pelvic approach
B) CO pneumoperitoneum
C) Ultrasonic dissection
D) Radiofrequency ablation
Q2) When considering surgery for an elderly patient,the risk of surgery should be measured against the risk of not operating,and the expected postoperative quality of life.Which important factors should be evaluated in the decision making?
A) Personal motivation
B) Patient's state of independence
C) Disease course versus life expectancy
D) Patient's support system
E) Surgical risk versus nonoperative management
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 28: Trauma Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37057
Sample Questions
Q1) The perioperative nurse may not be able to assess the trauma patient until the patient arrives in the OR for surgical intervention.If the patient's condition permits,the perioperative nurse should obtain a brief,precise report from the ED nurse.One component of this report is the SAMPLE history.What are the components of the SAMPLE mnemonic?
A) SPO , assessment, MOI, pulse, level of consciousness, electrolytes
B) Social history, available family, medical history, problem, language, environmental conditions of event
C) Symptoms, allergies, medications, past medical history, last oral intake, event leading to injury
D) Special considerations, additional diseases, mean arterial pressure, prior surgeries, labs, extraneous injuries
Q2) What special consideration should be made when assessing geriatric trauma patients before surgery?
A) They may have preexisting diseases and conditions.
B) They commonly have diminished mental capacity and will have difficulty understanding the information provided.
C) They have increased physiologic reserves.
D) The Glascow Coma Scale cannot be applied if the patient has dementia.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 30
Chapter 29: Interventional and Image-Guided Procedures
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37058
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement that correctly describes the mechanism of action of contrast media.
A) Contrast media are used to enhance visualization of anatomic structures by influencing tissue radiopacity with different concentrations of iodine.
B) A contrast agent works by having either a higher or lower density than the body tissue being investigated.
C) Contrast media radiopacity is related to its iodine concentration.
D) A contrast agent works by the speed of delivery affecting blood flow and hemodilution.
Q2) Some of the new complex interventional procedures may require prolonged fluoroscopic guidance to perform and complete the procedure.Which patient safety strategy will reduce exposure risk to the patient?
A) Total body shielding of the patient above and below the body
B) Changing the beam's entry point to reduce repeated exposure to the same area
C) Placing a dosimeter on the patient, both under and outside the lead patient shield
D) Increasing the pause between pulses when using pulse-mode fluoroscopy
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 30: Integrative Health Practices: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37059
Sample Questions
Q1) Herbal,orthomolecular,individual biologic therapies and special dietary treatments are encompassed in biologically based therapies.Which of the biologically based therapies listed below are classified as therapeutic nutrition?
A) Veganism, vegetarianism, raw food diets
B) Cartilage products from cattle, sheep, or sharks
C) Bee pollen
D) Orthomolecular megavitamins
Q2) Progressive relaxation techniques,biofeedback,meditation,and cognitive-behavioral approaches have a well-documented theoretical basis with supporting scientific evidence.What is the theoretical clinical justification for this relationship categorized as mind-body medicine?
A) Targeted therapies can balance the equality of the mind with the body.
B) The mind can affect the body.
C) The body can positively and negatively affect the mind.
D) Many mind-body theories have been supported by high-level research.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.