Advanced Pathophysiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Pathophysiology delves into the complex mechanisms underlying disease processes at the cellular, organ, and systemic levels. The course emphasizes the integration of foundational knowledge of human physiology with current research on alterations due to genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors. Students will critically analyze the physiological basis of common and complex health conditions, exploring how disruptions in normal processes contribute to clinical manifestations and disease progression. Case studies and evidence-based literature are used to illustrate the application of pathophysiological concepts to real-world clinical scenarios, preparing students for advanced roles in healthcare practice, research, and education.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 8th Edition by Kathryn L. McCance
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50 Chapters
1557 Verified Questions
1557 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organic compound facilitates transportation across cell membranes by acting as receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps?
A)Lipids
B)Proteases
C)Proteins
D)Carbohydrates
Answer: C
Q2) Under anaerobic conditions, what process provides energy for the cell?
A)Oxidative phosphorylation
B)Glycolysis
C)Lactolysis
D)Passive transport
Answer: B
Q3) What is the best description of cell cycle arrest?
A)The cell cycle is stopped due to damaged DNA.
B)Programmed cell death is suppressed.
C)Macromolecule degradation is inhibited.
D)Production of growth factors is halted.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology: Environmental Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lead causes damage within the cell by interfering with the action of what?
A)Sodium and chloride
B)Potassium
C)Calcium
D)ATP
Answer: C
Q2) What is the most common site of lipid accumulation?
A)Coronary arteries
B)Kidneys
C)Liver
D)Subcutaneous tissue
Answer: C
Q3) A healthcare professional is working with a person who drinks several 6-packs of beer a week. What testing does the professional encourage the person to get?
A)Hepatic function
B)Gastrointestinal function
C)Renal function
D)Central nervous system function
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water movement between the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment and the extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is primarily a function of what?
A)Osmotic forces
B)Plasma oncotic pressure
C)Antidiuretic hormone
D)Hydrostatic forces
Answer: A
Q2) An imbalance of potassium can produce which dysfunctions? (Select all that apply.)
A)Weakness of skeletal muscles
B)Cardiac dysrhythmias
C)Smooth muscle atony
D)Visual impairment
E)Hearing loss
Answer: A, B, C
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of Down syndrome?
A)Paternal nondisjunction
B)Maternal translocations
C)Maternal nondisjunction
D)Paternal translocation
Q2) A couple has two children diagnosed with an autosomal dominant genetic disease and asks the healthcare professional what the probability is that their next child will have the same genetic disease. What response by the professional is best?
A)One sixth
B)One fourth
C)One third
D)One half
Q3) What is the technique for prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities at 10 to 12 weeks' gestation?
A)Gene mapping
B)Linkage analysis
C)Amniocentesis
D)Chorionic villus sampling
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6
Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women?
A)Ovarian
B)Lung
C)Uterine
D)Pancreatic
Q2) A student asks, "What is the percentage of all cases of breast cancer that are identified as an autosomal dominant form?" What response by the professor is best?
A)<1
B)5 to 10
C)15 to 20
D)20 to 30
Q3) Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism when raised by a nonalcoholic parent?
A)Twofold
B)Threefold
C)Fourfold
D)Tenfold
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Chapter 6: Epigenetics and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between DNA sequence mutations and epigenetic modifications?
A)DNA sequence mutations can be directly altered.
B)Leukemia is a result of only DNA sequence mutation.
C)Epigenetic modifications potentially can be reversed.
D)No known drug therapies are available for epigenetic modifications.
Q2) What can a malfunction in DNA methylation lead to?
A)Hypothyroidism
B)Blindness
C)Cancer
D)Diabetes mellitus
Q3) When a chromosome lacking 4 million base pairs is inherited from the mother, the child is at risk for developing which syndrome?
A)Prader-Willi
B)Angelman
C)Beckwith-Wiedemann
D)Russell-Silver
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8
Chapter 7: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Frequently when H and H receptors are located on the same cells, they act in what fashion?
A)Synergistically
B)Additively
C)Antagonistically
D)Agonistically
Q2) In the coagulation (clotting) cascade, the intrinsic and the extrinsic pathways converge at which factor?
A)XII
B)VII
C)X
D)V
Q3) How does the chemotactic factor affect the inflammatory process?
A)By causing vasodilation around the inflamed area
B)By stimulating smooth muscle contraction in the inflamed area
C)By directing leukocytes to the inflamed area
D)By producing edema around the inflamed area
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the antigen?
A)Size
B)Foreignness
C)Complexity
D)Quantity
Q2) Which T cell controls or limits the immune response to protect the host's own tissues against an autoimmune response?
A)Cytotoxic T cells
B)Th1 cells
C)Th2 cells
D)Regulatory T (Treg) cells
Q3) The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant?
A)Immunotope
B)Paratope
C)Epitope
D)Antigenitope
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Chapter 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a type III hypersensitivity reaction, the harmful effects after the immune complexes that are deposited in tissues are a result of what?
A)Cytotoxic T cells
B)Natural killer cells
C)Complement activation
D)Degranulation of mast cells
Q2) Exposure to which of these could result in a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? (Select all that apply.)
A)Poison ivy
B)Neomycin
C)Dairy products
D)Nickel
E)Detergents
Q3) Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease?
A)Hemolytic anemia
B)Pernicious anemia
C)Systemic lupus erythematosus
D)Myasthenia gravis
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Chapter 10: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is toxigenicity defined?
A)The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host
B)The pathogen's ability to produce disease by the production of a soluble toxin
C)The ability of an agent to produce disease
D)The potency of a pathogen measured in terms of the number of microorganisms required to kill the host
Q2) A healthcare professional student is learning about fungal infections. What information should the student use to help another student understand?
A)Fungal infections occur only on skin, hair, and nails.
B)Phagocytes and T lymphocytes control fungal infections.
C)Fungal infections release endotoxins.
D)Vaccines prevent fungal infections.
Q3) What does the student learn about HIV?
A)HIV only infects T-helper (Th) cells.
B)HIV is a retrovirus.
C)HIV carries genetic information in its DNA.
D)HIV has five identified strains.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The increased production of proinflammatory cytokines is associated with which considerations? (Select all that apply.)
A)Chronic respiratory dysfunction
B)Elevated anxiety levels
C)Immune disorders
D)Age and gender
E)Dementia
Q2) A reduction in an individual's number of natural killer (NK) cells appears to correlate with an increased risk for the development of what?
A)Depression
B)Type 1 diabetes
C)Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
D)Gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD)
Q3) Which organ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?
A)Adrenal cortex
B)Hypothalamus
C)Anterior pituitary
D)Limbic system
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cancer Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF) in cell metastasis?
A)To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells
B)To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells
C)To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis
D)To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels
Q2) Autocrine stimulation is the ability of cancer cells to do what?
A)Stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply
B)Encourage secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors
C)Secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth
D)Divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use
Q3) What is the consequence for cells when the functioning TP53 gene is lost as a result of mutation?
A)Cells undergo apoptosis.
B)Cells escape apoptosis.
C)Cells receive less oxygen.
D)Cells adhere more readily.
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14
Chapter 13: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The healthcare professional teaches a community group that alcohol consumption has been proven to be a consistent risk factor in the development of which major cancers? (Select all that apply.)
A)Colorectal
B)Kidney
C)Breast
D)Esophageal
E)Pancreatic
Q2) In teaching a women's community group, which risk factor does the healthcare professional teach is related to high morbidity of cancer of the colon, uterus, and kidney?
A)Women older than 45 years of age
B)Women who have never had children
C)Women who have a high body mass index
D)Woman who have smoked for more than 10 years
Q3) Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease?
A)Syphilis
B)Gonorrhea
C)Human papillomavirus
D)Pelvic inflammatory disease
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which intervention has the greatest effect on a child's mortality rate when diagnosed with cancer?
A)Age at the time of diagnosis
B)Participation in clinical trials
C)Proximity to a major cancer treatment center
D)Parental involvement in the treatment planning
Q2) Which statement is true concerning the difference between adult and childhood cancers? (Select all that apply.)
A)Numerous differences exist between these two categories of cancer.
B)Genetic risk factors and congenital conditions are more related in childhood cancers.
C)Environmental risks are strongly associated with childhood cancers.
D)Exposure to pesticides is a minor risk for the development of adult cancers.
E)Maternal exposure to carcinogenic substances presents little risk to the fetus.
Q3) Which form of cancer is linked to congenital malformation syndromes?
A)Wilms tumor
B)Retinoblastoma
C)Osteosarcoma
D)Rhabdomyosarcoma
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16
Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that a patient's diagnosis of a bacterial infection of the brain's meningeal layer is supported by which diagnostic laboratory result?
A)Chloride 125 mEq/L
B)Leukocytes 110/mm<sup>3</sup>
C)Protein 32 mg/dL
D)Glucose 63 mg/dL
Q2) What is a Schwann cell? (Select all that apply.)
A)Can form the myelin sheath
B)Is also referred to as a neurolemma
C)Affects the function of the nodes of Ranvier
D)Is located in the peripheral nervous system
E)Is responsible of decreasing conduction velocity
Q3) Where is the region responsible for the motor aspects of speech located?
A)Wernicke area in the temporal lobe
B)Broca speech area in the frontal lobe
C)Wronka area in the parietal lobe
D)Barlow area in the occipital lobe
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in the Emergency Department with heat stroke. What finding does the healthcare provider associate with this condition?
A)Core temperatures usually reaching approximately 39.5°C (103.1°F)
B)Absence of sweating despite a high core temperature
C)A rapidly decreasing core temperature as heat loss from the evaporation of sweat ceases
D)Symptoms caused by the loss of sodium and prolonged sweating
Q2) When considering the risk factors for the development of phantom limb pain, the nurse recognizes which as a primary contributing factor?
A)Age, with adolescent patients being at a higher risk than adults
B)Presence of pain in the limb before amputation
C)Patient's previous experience with managing pain
D)Cultural views regarding the acceptance of pain
Q3) How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature?
A)The release of epinephrine causes shivering.
B)It affects muscle tone.
C)It raises the metabolic rate.
D)It increases and strengthens the heart rate.
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Chapter 17: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do the clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease include? (Select all that apply.)
A)Fragmented sleep
B)Drooping eyelids
C)Depression
D)Muscle stiffness
E)Bradykinesia
Q2) A healthcare professional suspects a patient is brain dead. How would the professional assess for brain death?
A)Determine if the patient can make voluntary movements.
B)Perform tests to assess if the patient is in a coma.
C)Remove the patient's ventilator to see if spontaneous breathing occurs.
D)Monitor the patient for eye movements that seem purposeful.
Q3) The existence of regular, deep, and rapid respirations after a severe closed head injury is indicative of neurologic injury to what?
A)Lower midbrain
B)Pontine area
C)Supratentorial
D)Cerebral area
19
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Chapter 18: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the initial clinical manifestations immediately noted after a spinal cord injury? (Select all that apply.)
A)Headache
B)Bladder incontinence
C)Loss of deep tendon reflexes
D)Hypertension
E)Flaccid paralysis
Q2) A blunt-force injury to the forehead would result in a contrecoup injury to which region of the brain?
A)Frontal
B)Temporal
C)Parietal
D)Occipital
Q3) What indicates that spinal shock is terminating?
A)Voluntary movement below the level of injury
B)Reflex emptying of the bladder
C)Paresthesia below the level of injury
D)Decreased deep tendon reflexes and flaccid paralysis
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Chapter 19: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with lithium toxicity. Which electrolyte imbalance does the healthcare professional correlate with this condition?
A)Hypernatremia
B)Hyponatremia
C)Hyperkalemia
D)Hypokalemia
Q2) What is the link between major depression and cortisol secretion?
A)Individuals with depression show suppression of plasma cortisol when given dexamethasone.
B)Individuals with depression have a decreased plasma cortisol level, despite the administration of exogenous corticosteroids.
C)Individuals with depression show that persistently elevated plasma cortisol levels can result in inflammation that is believed to trigger depression.
D)Individuals with depression have normal plasma cortisol levels throughout the day when they take antidepressant medication as prescribed.
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can microcephaly be caused by? (Select all that apply.)
A)Autosomal gene alterations
B)Prenatal physical abuse of the mother
C)X-linked gene alterations
D)Toxic-induced chromosomal defects
E)Maternal anorexia
Q2) A 7 months old in the clinic displays an intact tonic neck reflex. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
A)Chart the finding as normal in the child's chart.
B)Assess the baby for signs of malnutrition.
C)Educate the parents on how to improve mobility.
D)Assess the child's development further.
Q3) A child has phenylketonuria (PKU). The healthcare professional educates the parents on the special diet needed, telling them that children with PKU are unable to synthesize what?
A)Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine
B)Renin, erythropoietin, and antidiuretic hormone
C)Aldosterone, cortisol, and androgens
D)Neurotransmitters gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) and acetylcholine
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the effects of aging on pancreatic cells?
A)Pancreatic cells are replaced by fibrotic cells.
B)Increased insulin production is typical.
C)Beta cell function decreases.
D)No appreciable change occurs on pancreatic cells.
Q2) Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) synthesized, and where does it act?
A)Hypothalamus; renal tubular cells
B)Renal tubules; renal collecting ducts
C)Anterior pituitary; posterior pituitary
D)Posterior pituitary; loop of Henle
Q3) Which hormone triggers uterine contractions?
A)Thyroxine
B)Oxytocin
C)Growth hormone
D)Insulin
Q4) Which of these is a lipid-soluble hormone?
A)Cortisol
B)Oxytocin
C)Epinephrine
D)Growth hormone
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Q1) A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experienced an episode of hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The healthcare professional teaches the person that what is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
A)Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
B)Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime
C)Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
D)Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
Q2) Which patient would the healthcare professional assess for other signs of thyrotoxic crisis?
A)Constipation with gastric distention
B)Bradycardia and bradypnea
C)Hyperthermia and tachycardia
D)Constipation and lethargy
Q3) A person has hypothyroidism. What chemical does the healthcare professional advise the person to include in the diet?
A)Iron
B)Iodine
C)Zinc
D)Magnesium
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Chapter 23: Obesity and Disorders of Nutrition
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Q1) What role does leptin resistance have in promoting obesity? (Select all that apply.)
A)Promotes overeating
B)Promotes early satiety
C)Inhibits orexigenic outcomes
D)Increases oxidative stress
E)Leads to hyperglycemia
Q2) Which individual does the health care professional determine is obese?
A)Body mass index 23 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
B)Body mass index 25 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
C)Body mass index 29 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
D)Body mass index 32 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
Q3) A student asks the health care professional why obese people are at higher risk for hypertension than non-obese individuals. What response by the professional is best?
A)They produce more ghrelin in the stomach.
B)Their thyroid gland secretes less hormone.
C)They produce more angiotensinogen.
D)They secrete fewer endocannabinoids.
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Chapter 24: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which statements are true regarding the female menstrual cycle? (Select all that apply.)
A)Initial cycles may dramatically vary in length.
B)By adulthood, the commonly accepted cycle average is 28 (27 to 30) days.
C)The length of a cycle varies among women.
D)Up to 10 years before menopause, the intervals of the menstrual cycle begin to lengthen.
E)Menopause is achieved when a woman is without a period for 2 years.
Q2) The human zygote has a total of how many chromosomes?
A)23
B)25
C)46
D)50
Q3) What does the student learn regarding the major difference between male and female sex hormone production?
A)Luteinizing hormone has no apparent action in a man.
B)In a man, sex hormone production is relatively constant.
C)Estradiol is not produced in a man.
D)In a man, gonadotropin-releasing hormone does not cause the release of follicle stimulating hormone.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Q1) The size of benign uterine tumors, such as leiomyomas, is thought to be caused by the influence of which hormones? (Select all that apply.)
A)Progesterone
B)Estrogen
C)Luteinizing hormone
D)Gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
E)Growth factors
Q2) What theory is used to describe the cause of endometriosis?
A)Obstruction within the fallopian tubes prevents the endometrial tissue from adhering to the lining of the uterus.
B)Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones.
C)Inflammation of the endometrial tissue develops after recurrent sexually transmitted diseases.
D)Endometrial tissue lies dormant in the uterus until the ovaries produce sufficient hormone to stimulate its growth.
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Chapter 26: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Q1) What is the reason breast cancer in men has such a poor prognosis?
A)Breast cancer is extremely aggressive in men.
B)Treatment is usually delayed as a result of late detection.
C)Chemotherapies are not as effective in men.
D)Breast tumors tend to be small and hard to isolate.
Q2) A healthcare professional is educating a community men's group about prostate cancer. What information should the professional include in the presentation? (Select all that apply.)
A)It ranks second to lung cancer as being most common among American men.
B)A familial history of prostate cancer is a risk factor.
C)Dietary habits seem to play a role in its development.
D)African-American men have an increased risk for its development.
E)Being over 65 years of age increases the risk for developing prostate cancer.
Q3) Which age group should be targeted for testicular cancer education and screening?
A)15 to 35 year olds
B)20 to 45 year olds
C)30 to 55 year olds
D)45 to 70 year olds
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28
Chapter 27: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) In women, what is the usual site of original gonococcal infection?
A)Endocervical canal
B)Vagina
C)Fallopian tube
D)Labia majora
Q2) What are the common modes of transmission for the hepatitis B virus (HBV)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Needle punctures
B)Blood transfusions
C)Contact with infected body fluids
D)Skin cuts
E)Ingestion of infected substances
Q3) A healthcare professional wants to join a research team working on treatments for gonococci infections. What is the major concern regarding the treatment the professional will likely work on?
A)Antibiotic resistance
B)Changes in virulence
C)Changes in pathogenicity
D)Mutations into different strains
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Q1) A patient has chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure. What substance does the healthcare professional tell the patient is needed to treat this anemia?
A)Iron
B)Erythropoietin
C)Cobalamin (vitamin B12)
D)Folate
Q2) Without prior exposure to an antigen, which cells are able to destroy some types of tumor cells and some virus-infected cells?
A)Lymphocytes
B)Plasma cells
C)Megakaryocytes
D)Natural killer (NK) cells
Q3) The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes?
A)Inhibiting thrombin and antithrombin III (AT-III)
B)Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
C)Shortening the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot
D)Degrading the fibrin within blood clots
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Alterations of Erythrocytes, Platelets, and Hemostatic Function
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Q1) The students learn that deficiencies in folate and vitamin B alter the synthesis of which of these?
A)RNA
B)Cell membrane
C)DNA
D)Mitochondria
Q2) What does the student learn about warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in children.
B)It is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis.
C)Erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen.
D)Immunoglobulin M coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes.
Q3) A patient in the healthcare clinic reports fatigue, weakness, and dyspnea, as well as pale conjunctiva of the eyes and brittle, concave nails. What assessment by the healthcare professional is most appropriate for the suspected anemia?
A)Blood pressure and apical pulse
B)Oral mucus membranes and tongue
C)Ability to swallow foods and liquids
D)Skin and sclera for normal coloration
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Leukocyte and Lymphoid Function
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19 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46461
Sample Questions
Q1) Which description is consistent with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?
A)Defects exist in the ras oncogene, TP53 tumor-suppressor gene, and INK4A, the gene encoding a cell-cycle regulatory protein.
B)Leukocytosis and a predominance of blast cells characterize the bone marrow and peripheral blood. As the immature blasts increase, they replace normal myelocytic cells, megakaryocytes, and erythrocytes.
C)B cells fail to mature into plasma cells that synthesize immunoglobulins.
D)The translocation of genetic material from genes 9 and 22 creates an abnormal, fused protein identified as BCR-ABL1.
Q2) A patient has splenomegaly on physical examination. What does the healthcare professional understand about this condition? (Select all that apply.)
A)It may be normal so nothing further needs to be done
B)The patient may have an acute infection.
C)Splenomegaly can lead to hepatic failure.
D)Tumors or cysts can cause splenomegaly.
E)Some infiltrative processes can cause it.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does fetal hemoglobin have a greater affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin?
A)The fetus does not have its own oxygen supply and must rely on oxygen from the maternal vascular system.
B)The fetus has two g-chains on the hemoglobin, rather than two b-chains as in the adult.
C)Fetal hemoglobin interacts less readily with diphosphoglycerate (DPG), which inhibits hemoglobin-oxygen binding.
D)Fetal hemoglobin production occurs in the vessels and liver rather than in the bone marrow as in the adult.
Q2) A patient has leukemia. The healthcare professional explains to a patient about the significance of hyperdiploidy. What statement by the professional is most accurate?
A)It indicates a good prognosis.
B)It indicates a poor prognosis.
C)It limits treatment options.
D)Hyperdiploidy demonstrates remission.
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What physical sign does the healthcare professional relate to the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel?
A)Increased blood pressure during periods of stress
B)Bounding pulse felt on palpation
C)Cyanosis observed on exertion
D)Murmur heard on auscultation
Q2) The resting heart rate in a healthy person is primarily under the control of which nervous system?
A)Sympathetic
B)Parasympathetic
C)Somatic
D)Spinal
Q3) Within a physiologic range, what does an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) result in?
A)Increase in force of contraction
B)Decrease in refractory time
C)Increase in afterload
D)Decrease in repolarization
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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43 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reports chest pain that occurs most often during sleep. What treatment does the healthcare professional discuss with the patient?
A)Treatment of obstructive sleep apnea
B)Short-acting nitroglycerin tablets
C)A low-dose aspirin regimen
D)Oral calcium channel blockers
Q2) What factors contribute to the development of orthostatic hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
A)Altered body chemistry
B)Drug action of certain antihypertensive agents
C)Prolonged immobility
D)Effects of aging on postural reflexes
E)Any condition that produces volume overload
Q3) A healthcare professional is caring for four patients. Which patient does the professional assess for pulmonary emboli (PE) as the priority?
A)Deep venous thrombosis
B)Endocarditis
C)Valvular disease
D)Left heart failure
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parent brings a 10-year-old child to the clinic and reports a mottled appearance to the skin and legs cramps when the child is in physical education class. What diagnostic testing or treatment does the healthcare professional prepare the family for?
A)Immediate cardiac catheterization
B)Administration of prostaglandin
C)Multiple-stage surgical correction
D)An echocardiogram
Q2) An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. The healthcare professional suspects an atrial septal defect (ASD). For what other manifestation does the healthcare professional assess to confirm the suspicion?
A)Wide, fixed splitting of the second heart sound
B)Loud, harsh holosystolic murmur
C)Cyanosis with crying and feeding
D)Rapid deterioration with acidosis
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Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx?
A)Nasal turbinates
B)Alveolar macrophages
C)Cilia
D)Irritant receptors on the nares
Q2) How low must the partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO ) drop before the peripheral chemoreceptors influence ventilation?
A)Below 100 mmHg
B)Below 80 mmHg
C)Below 70 mmHg
D)Below 60 mmHg
Q3) Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system?
A)Decreased flow resistance
B)Fewer alveoli
C)Stiffening of the chest wall
D)Improved elastic recoil
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure(s) in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) release inflammatory mediators such as proteolytic enzymes, oxygen-free radicals, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and platelet-activating factor?
A)Complement cascade
B)Mast cells
C)Macrophages
D)Neutrophils
Q2) A patient has long-standing pulmonary disease and chronic hypoxia. The student assesses the patient's fingertips and notices bulbous enlargement of the distal segment of the digits. How does the student document this finding?
A)Edema
B)Clubbing
C)Angling
D)Osteoarthropathy
Q3) High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through which mechanism?
A)Shunting
B)Hypoventilation
C)Decreased inspired oxygen
D)Diffusion abnormalities
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement by the healthcare professional accurately describes childhood asthma?
A)An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
B)A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray imaging
C)A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens
D)An obstructive airway disease characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Q2) A student asks the healthcare professional why researchers are trying to link specific genes to specific asthma phenotypes. What response by the professional is best?
A)Some types of asthma are easier to treat than others.
B)Some people could use cheaper medications.
C)It can lead to personalized approaches to treatment.
D)More and more asthma phenotypes are being recognized.
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's urinalysis came back positive for glucose. What does the healthcare professional expect the patient's blood glucose to be at a minimum?
A)126 mg/dL
B)150 mg/dL
C)180 mg/dL
D)200 mg/dL
Q2) What is the end product of protein metabolism that is excreted in urine?
A)Glucose
B)Ketones
C)Bile
D)Urea
Q3) Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis?
A)Uromodulin
B)Nephrin
C)Urodilatin
D)Cystatin
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which renal disorders are considered causes of intrarenal kidney injury? (Select all that apply.)
A)Acute glomerulonephritis
B)Allograft rejection
C)Tumors
D)Acute tubular necrosis (ATN)
E)Prostatic hypertrophy
Q2) Which abnormal laboratory value is found in glomerular disorders?
A)Elevated creatinine concentration
B)Low blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
C)Elevated immunoglobulin A (IgA)
D)Low serum complement
Q3) An 85-year-old person has a urinary tract infection. What clinical manifestation does the healthcare professional expect to see in this person?
A)Confusion and poorly localized abdominal discomfort
B)Dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic pain
C)Hematuria and flank pain
D)Pyuria, urgency, and frequency
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is voiding smoky, brown-colored urine and asks the healthcare professional to explain what causes it. What explanation by the professional is best?
A)Presence of red blood cells
B)Presence of urobilinogen
C)Slough from the collecting tubules
D)Protein in the urine
Q2) The excretion of urea is low in infants because of which features? (Select all that apply.)
A)Medullary nephrons with comparatively short loops
B)Immature tubular transport capacity impairing the excretion of urea
C)High anabolic state
D)Dilute urine as a result of the immaturity of an infant's glomeruli
E)Available protein used for physical growth
Q3) When does an individual have their full complement of renal nephrons?
A)At birth
B)At 6 months of age
C)At puberty
D)Between the ages 18 and 21 years
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What requirements are necessary for calcium to be absorbed through the ileum at concentrations of less than 5 mmol/L? (Select all that apply.)
A)Receptor site on the ileum
B)Vitamin D<sub>3</sub>
C)Vitamin K
D)Carboxypeptidase
E)A carrier protein
Q2) Food enters the stomach via which orifice or sphincter?
A)Cardiac
B)Upper esophageal
C)Gastric
D)Fundal
Q3) Where in the small intestines are lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages produced?
A)Brush border
B)Microvilli
C)Lamina propria
D)Crypts of Lieberkühn
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43
Chapter 42: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks the healthcare professional to describe the cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). What response by the professional is best?
A)Excessive production of hydrochloric acid
B)Zone of low pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter
C)Presence of Helicobacter pylori in the esophagus
D)Reverse muscular peristalsis of the esophagus
Q2) Antiemetic agents, such as domperidone and metoclopramide, are antagonists for which receptors?
A)5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) serotonin
B)Histamine-2
C)Acetylcholine
D)Dopamine
Q3) An intestinal obstruction at the pylorus or high in the small intestine causes metabolic alkalosis by causing which outcome?
A)Gain of bicarbonate from pancreatic secretions that cannot be absorbed
B)Excessive loss of hydrogen ions normally absorbed from gastric juices
C)Excessive loss of potassium, promoting atony of the intestinal wall
D)Loss of bile acid secretions that cannot be absorbed
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Chapter 43: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes a person with cystic fibrosis to experience an exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?
A)Pancreatic ducts are obstructed with mucus.
B)Impaired blood supply to the pancreas causes ischemia.
C)A genetically impaired pancreas is unable to produce digestive enzymes.
D)The pancreas has a volvulus at the ampulla of Vater.
Q2) Which term is used to identify an intestinal obstruction caused by meconium formed in utero that is abnormally sticky and adheres firmly to the mucosa of the small intestine?
A)Meconium cecum
B)Meconium ileus
C)Meconium obstruction
D)Meconium vivax
Q3) Why is prolonged diarrhea more severe in children than it is in adults?
A)Less water is absorbed from the colon in children.
B)Fluid reserves are smaller in children.
C)Children have a higher fluid volume intake.
D)Children have diarrhea more often than adults.
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Chapter 44: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells function to maintain bone matrix?
A)Osteoclasts
B)Osteocytes
C)Osteoblasts
D)Osteophytes
Q2) Which type of joint holds teeth in the maxilla or mandible?
A)Amphiarthrosis
B)Diarthrosis
C)Synarthrosis
D)Gomphosis
Q3) Which bone cells are large and multinucleated and contain lysosomes filled with hydrolytic enzymes?
A)Osteoblasts
B)Osteoclasts
C)Osteocytes
D)Fibrocytes
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Chapter 45: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pathophysiologic presentation of gout is closely linked to the metabolism of which chemical?
A)Purine
B)Pyrimidine
C)Vitamin E
D)Amino acid
Q2) In osteoporosis, the receptor activator of nuclear factor kB (RANK) activates what?
A)Osteoclast apoptosis
B)Osteoblast survival
C)Osteoprotegerin
D)Osteoclast survival
Q3) By the time osteoporosis is visible on an x-ray examination, up to what percent of bone has been lost?
A)30%
B)40%
C)50%
D)60%
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Chapter 46: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional wants to estimate the total mass of muscle in a patient's body. What serum laboratory test should the professional evaluate?
A)Albumin
B)Blood urea nitrogen
C)Creatinine
D)Creatine
Q2) An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children?
A)C
B)B12
C)B6
D)D
Q3) Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with which gene?
A)TP53
B)src
C)myc
D)TSC2
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Sample Questions
Q1) The healthcare professional is assessing four patients for pressure ulcer formation. What is the first change in the skin that the professional would note if a patient were developing a pressure ulcer?
A)Blanchable erythema of intact skin
B)Nonblanchable erythema of intact skin
C)Blister at the site of pressure
D)Reddish-purple discoloration
Q2) The student learns that which skin lesion is mediated by the immunoglobulin E (IgE)-stimulated release of histamine, bradykinin, or kallikrein from mast cells?
A)Dermatitis
B)Scleroderma
C)Urticaria
D)Cutaneous vasculitis
Q3) Which cell is thought to be the progenitor cell of Kaposi sarcoma?
A)Endothelial
B)Keratinocyte
C)Melanocyte
D)Exothelial
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Chapter 48: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The healthcare professional teaches a parent group that which organism causes thrush?
A)Staphylococcus
B)Streptococcus
C)Herpesvirus
D)Candida albicans
Q2) A child has atopic dermatitis. What assessment finding does the healthcare professional associate with this condition?
A)Papular rash
B)High fever
C)Vesicles that burst and form crusts
D)Itching
Q3) Parents do not want the child to contract tinea corporis. Which animal would they limit the child's exposure to?
A)Mites
B)Kittens
C)Ponies
D)Ticks
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Chapter 49: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with septic shock. What action by the healthcare professional will address the main underlying pathophysiologic mechanism of this disorder?
A)Administer antibiotics as soon as possible.
B)Provide high volumes of isotonic fluid.
C)Place patient on an intra-aortic balloon pump.
D)Give the patient antihistamines and steroids.
Q2) Hypovolemic shock begins to develop when intravascular volume has decreased by what percentage?
A)5
B)10
C)15
D)20
Q3) In septic shock, which mediators are antiinflammatory? (Select all that apply.)
A)Interleukin (IL)-4 (IL-4)
B)IL-10
C)IL-13
D)Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a)
E)Prostaglandin
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Chapter 50: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional is assessing the severity of a burn injury. What factors does the professional include in this assessment? (Select all that apply.)
A)Amount of fluid lost over a 24-hour period
B)Circumference of the burn injury
C)Depth of the burn injury
D)Severity of the injury caused to other body systems
E)Percentage of total body surface area involved
Q2) A healthcare professional assesses that a child's capillary refill time is 4 sec. What does the healthcare professional evaluate that finding to mean?
A)The child is in shock.
B)The child must have septic shock.
C)The child has compensated shock.
D)This finding is normal.
Q3) What causes renal failure after electrical burns in children?
A)Cytokines are released after the damaged tissue.
B)Immature kidneys are unable to compensate for the electrical burn.
C)Cardiac output is reduced.
D)Myoglobin is released from damaged muscles.
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