Advanced Pathophysiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Pathophysiology explores the complex physiological mechanisms underlying disease processes across the lifespan, with a focus on the molecular, cellular, and systemic changes that contribute to altered health states. The course emphasizes the integration of foundational knowledge with the latest research findings, enabling students to understand how genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors influence the progression of various diseases. Through case studies and clinical correlations, learners develop the ability to apply pathophysiological concepts to real-world scenarios and inform advanced nursing or clinical decision-making. This rigorous course is essential for graduate-level students preparing for advanced clinical practice roles.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Copstead
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1230 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis.This is an example of A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: A
Q2) After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication.This is an example of A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: C
Q3) When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be ________.
Answer: idiopathic
Many diseases are idiopathic in nature.
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to A) cardiovascular disease.
B) depression.
C) impaired cognitive function.
D) autoimmune disease.
E) overactive immune function.
Answer: A, B, C, D
Q2) Events which occur during the alarm stage of the stress response include secretion of
A) catecholamines.
B) ACTH.
C) glucocorticoids.
D) immune cytokines.
E) TSH.
Answer: A, B, C, D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excitable cells are able to conduct action potentials because they have A) receptors for neurotransmitters.
B) tight junctions.
C) ligand-gated channels.
D) voltage-gated channels.
Answer: D
Q2) The phase of cellular metabolism in which energy is released during breakdown of nutrient sources is ________.
Answer: CATABOLISM
Catabolism involves energy release via breakdown of nutrient sources such as glucose to provide ATP to the cell.In contrast, anabolism refers to energy-using processes that result in complex molecules such as fats.
Q3) An increase in extracellular potassium ion from 4.0 to 6.0 mEq/L would
A) hyperpolarize the resting membrane potential.
B) make it more difficult to reach threshold and produce an action potential.
C) hypopolarize the resting membrane potential.
D) alter the threshold potential.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infectious injury often results from A) exotoxins.
B) endotoxins.
C) self-destruction of cells.
D) anti-inflammatory reactions.
E) enzymes from white blood cells.
Q2) Reperfusion injury to cells
A) results in very little cellular damage.
B) results from calcium deficiency in cells.
C) occurs following nutritional injury.
D) involves formation of free radicals.
Q3) All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except A) necrosis.
B) metaplasia.
C) atrophy.
D) hyperplasia.
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6
Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of smooth muscle include A) being under voluntary control.
B) having striations.
C) contraction being short-lived.
D) being found in blood vessels.
Q2) In DNA replication DNA polymerase functions to A) pry DNA apart.
B) unwind and separate the DNA strands.
C) prevent tangling of DNA strands as they unwind.
D) match appropriate bases to the template base.
E) proofread the newly developed DNA for errors in base pairing.
Q3) An important difference between skeletal and cardiac muscle is that A) cardiac muscle is not striated.
B) only skeletal muscle is dependent upon actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) calcium does not leave the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac cells.
D) cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry.
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Results of biochemical tests indicate an infant has phenylketonuria (PKU).The parents ask what PKU means.Correct responses would include all the following except PKU
A) is an enzyme deficiency resulting in the inability to metabolize phenylalanine.
B) is an inborn error of metabolism.
C) results from a chromosome abnormality called nondisjunction.
D) is transmitted as an autosomal recessive disorder.
Q2) Information parents should be given about the consequences of PKU includes A) high dietary phenylalanine may help induce enzyme production.
B) PKU is commonly associated with other congenital anomalies.
C) failure to avoid phenylalanine results in progressive mental retardation.
D) mental retardation is inevitable.
Q3) A point mutation
A) results from the addition or loss of one or more bases.
B) is due to the translocation of a chromosomal segment.
C) always produces significant dysfunction.
D) involves the substitution of a single base pair.
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) After bronchoscopy and histologic examination of a suspected tumor, your patient is diagnosed with primary bronchial carcinoma.Thus, the tumor
A) is benign.
B) is malignant.
C) is secondary to cancer elsewhere in the body.
D) has spread.
Q2) Tumor markers
A) are found only in the blood.
B) are produced by normal cells.
C) help determine cancer origin.
D) help identify progression of cancer.
E) include prostatic-specific antigen.
Q3) A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival.Which response is correct?
A) "Lung cancer is always fatal."
B) "Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate."
C) "Lung cancer is highly curable when diagnosed early."
D) "Lung cancer death rate has decreased significantly, as with all other cancers."
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term used to describe fungal infections is A) sepsis.
B) mycoses.
C) amebiasis.
D) Chlamydia.
Q2) The term infectivity is defined as the ability to A) cause disease.
B) spread.
C) cause very severe disease.
D) invade and multiply.
Q3) Characteristics of immunization include which of the following?
A) Giving injections of preformed antibodies provides immediate immunity
B) Immunization provides life-long immunity
C) Immunization with killed vaccines may lead to infection from the agent
D) Herd immunity controls disease without immunizing everyone in the population
E) Lack of immunization may lead to an epidemic
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunity to a specific organism can be determined by
A) active phase protein count.
B) antibody titer.
C) erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
D) WBC count.
Q2) Which clinical finding is most indicative of an acute bacterial infection?
A) Increased (band) neutrophils.
B) Elevated temperature.
C) Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
D) Elevated WBC count.
Q3) Characteristics of complement include
A) stimulating chemotaxis.
B) lysing target cells.
C) having multiple plasma proteins.
D) being synthesized in the bone marrow.
E) enhancing phagocytosis.
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Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity disorder that involves A) impaired muscle function.
B) symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
C) symptoms of arthritis or polyarthralgia.
D) symptoms of glomerular disease.
Q2) A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis.This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction.
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q3) A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is A) monocytes.
B) mast cells.
C) neutrophils.
D) cytotoxic cells.
Q4) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type ____ hypersensitivity reactions.
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Q1) A patient is diagnosed with hairy cell leukemia.The patient's lab results would most likely indicate a decrease in
A) granulocytes.
B) platelets.
C) white blood cells.
D) red blood cells.
E) melanocytes.
Q2) Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with A) Epstein-Barr virus.
B) radiation exposure.
C) immunodeficiency syndromes.
D) history of cigarette smoking.
Q3) Which type of leukemia primarily affects children?
A) ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)
B) CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)
C) AML (acute myeloid leukemia)
D) CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)
Q4) The only known curative treatment for CML is _____ bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.
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Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS
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Sample Questions
Q1) As of 2010, _____ individuals worldwide have been infected with HIV infection.
A) 100,000
B) 1 million
C) slightly less than 16 million
D) nearly 35 million
Q2) Opportunistic infections are a hallmark of HIV and AIDS.Which infections are considered opportunistic?
A) Acinetobacter
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Candida albicans
D) Pneumocystis carinii
E) Clostridium difficile
Q3) An HIV-positive patient is hospitalized for evaluation of symptoms of progressive weakness, dyspnea, weight loss, and low-grade fever.A biopsy of lung tissue reveals Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.This diagnosis means that the patient
A) has AIDS.
B) has less than 2 years to live.
C) cannot be treated.
D) was an intravenous drug abuser.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thalassemia may be confused with iron-deficiency anemia, because they are both
A) hyperchromic.
B) microcytic.
C) genetic.
D) responsive to iron therapy.
Q2) Anemia related to vitamin B or folate deficiency is characterized by what laboratory features?
A) RBC counts of 775,000 to 900,000 cells/mm3
B) RBC counts of 500,000 to 750,000 cells/mm3
C) WBC counts of 3000 to 4000 cells/mm3
D) WBC counts of 4000 to 5000 cells/mm3
E) Platelet counts of 60,000 cells/mm3
Q3) The cause of the most common form of anemia is
A) acute bleeding.
B) iron deficiency.
C) protein malnutrition.
D) chronic disease.
Q4) Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before ____ years of age in patients with sickle cell anemia.
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The megakaryocyte is a precursor to
A) factor IX.
B) white blood cells.
C) red blood cells.
D) platelets.
Q2) A commonly ingested substance associated with prolongation of the bleeding time is
A) acetaminophen.
B) tobacco.
C) caffeine.
D) aspirin.
Q3) What is involved in the release of plasminogen activators?
A) Factor X
B) Factor XII
C) HMWK
D) Kallikrein
E) Thrombin
Q4) The ________ is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors, with the exception of part of factor VIII.
Q5) Hemophilia B is also known as ________ disease.
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the effect on resistance if the radius of a vessel is halved?
A) Resistance doubles.
B) Resistance decreases by a factor of 16.
C) Resistance decreases by half.
D) Resistance increases by a factor of 16.
Q2) Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation?
A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Vascular trauma
C) Stasis of blood flow
D) Circulatory shock
Q3) Velocity of blood flow is measured in
A) centimeters per second.
B) millimeters per minute.
C) yards per hour.
D) kilometers per minute.
Q4) Blood flow is slow through capillaries because capillaries
A) are so far away from the heart.
B) have the largest total cross-sectional area.
C) are so narrow.
D) have no smooth muscle.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitors block the A) release of rennin.
B) conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
C) conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
D) effect of aldosterone on the kidney.
Q2) The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in
A) non-Hispanic white adults.
B) Mexican-American adults.
C) non-Hispanic black adults.
D) Asian children.
Q3) The ingestion of certain drugs, foods, or chemicals can lead to ____________.
Q4) Which blood pressure reading is considered to be indicative of prehypertension according to the JNC-7 criteria?
A) 118/78
B) 128/82
C) 140/88
D) 138/94
Q5) ________ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration.
Q6) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is ____________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Creatine phosphate is
A) a waste product of cellular metabolism.
B) synthesized when ATP levels are high.
C) enzymatically degraded to form creatine kinase.
D) an indicator of myocardial cell damage.
Q2) Automatic pacemaker cells spontaneously depolarize, because
A) leak channels (If) allow calcium and sodium ions into the cell.
B) they lack efficient sodium/potassium pumps.
C) voltage-sensitive sodium channels open spontaneously.
D) chloride leaks into the cell during rest.
Q3) Which is true about blood flow from the atria?
A) Occurs primarily during systole, because perfusion pressure is high
B) Is controlled primarily by the autonomic nervous system
C) Is increased with elevated right atrial pressure
D) Occurs primarily during ventricular diastole
Q4) One role of ATP in cardiac muscle contraction is
A) providing energy to pump calcium into the cell.
B) inducing a conformational change in tropomyosin.
C) altering myosin affinity for actin-binding sites.
D) releasing sequestered calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diagnostic tests used to diagnose or confirm MI include A) electrocardiogram.
B) cardiac catheterization.
C) echocardiography.
D) radionuclide scintigraphy.
E) computed tomography.
Q2) Patients presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with
A) cardiac catheterization.
B) antiplatelet drugs.
C) acute reperfusion therapy.
D) cardiac biomarkers only.
Q3) Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds are classic manifestations of A) myocardial infarction.
B) cardiac tamponade.
C) congestive heart failure (CHF).
D) cardiomyopathy.
Q4) A reduction in _________ production after birth contributes to the heart's closure and constriction in patent ductus arteriosus.
20
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Q1) Beta-blockers are advocated in the management of heart failure because they A) increase cardiac output.
B) reduce cardiac output.
C) enhance sodium absorption.
D) reduce blood flow to the kidneys.
Q2) The common denominator in all forms of heart failure is A) poor diastolic filling.
B) reduced cardiac output.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) tissue ischemia.
Q3) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in ________.
Q4) Which dysrhythmia is thought to be associated with reentrant mechanisms?
A) Second-degree AV block
B) Sinus bradycardia
C) Junctional escape
D) Preexcitation syndrome tachycardia (Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome)
Q5) First-degree block is identified by a prolonged ________.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient experiencing shock may exhibit which signs and symptoms?
A) Warm, flushed skin
B) Pinpoint pupils
C) Pulse of more than 100 beats/minute
D) Increased urinary output
E) Fast and deep respirations
Q2) Low cardiac output in association with high preload is characteristic of ________ shock.
A) hypovolemic
B) cardiogenic
C) anaphylactic
D) septic
Q3) Overproduction of nitric oxide is an important aspect of the pathophysiologic process of what type of shock?
A) Cardiogenic
B) Hypovolemic
C) Anaphylactic
D) Septic
Q4) Lactated Ringer solution and normal saline are commonly used ________ solutions that contain electrolytes.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Q1) The amount of gas remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration is called the A) residual volume.
B) functional residual capacity.
C) expiratory reserve volume.
D) vital capacity.
Q2) Right-sided heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension is also called A) diastolic heart failure.
B) high output failure.
C) coronary disease.
D) cor pulmonale.
Q3) Structure(s)that engage in exchange of respiratory gases include(s)the A) trachea.
B) bronchi.
C) pulmonary artery.
D) pulmonary capillaries.
E) alveoli.
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lack of alpha -antitrypsin in emphysema causes
A) chronic mucus secretion and airway fibrosis.
B) destruction of alveolar tissue.
C) pulmonary edema and increased alveolar compliance.
D) bronchoconstriction and airway edema.
Q2) Characteristics of asthma include
A) chronic inflammatory disorder.
B) airway hyperresponsiveness.
C) alveolar collapse.
D) genetic susceptibility.
E) airway remodeling.
Q3) Allergic (extrinsic)asthma is associated with
A) hyporesponsiveness of airways.
B) unknown precipitating factors.
C) IgE-mediated airway inflammation.
D) irreversible airway obstruction.
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial pneumonia leads to hypoxemia due to A) cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
B) upper airway obstruction.
C) accumulation of alveolar exudates.
D) interstitial edema.
Q2) Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space is called A) an abscess.
B) pleurisy.
C) flail chest.
D) pleural effusion.
Q3) A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is A) high fever.
B) alveolar infiltrates on a chest x-ray.
C) increased white blood cell count.
D) dry cough.
Q4) Neuromuscular disorders impair lung function primarily due to A) inflammatory events in the lung.
B) secondary pneumonia.
C) weak muscles of respiration.
D) inactivity secondary to the disorder.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) What is the most likely explanation for a diagnosis of hypernatremia in an elderly patient receiving tube feeding?
A) Too much sodium in the feedings
B) Excess of feedings
C) Inadequate water intake
D) Kidney failure
Q2) Signs and symptoms of clinical dehydration include
A) decreased urine output.
B) increased skin turgor.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) decreased heart rate.
Q3) Signs and symptoms of extracellular fluid volume excess include A) tachycardia.
B) increased serum sodium concentration.
C) bounding pulse.
D) increased hematocrit.
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26
Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) Metabolic alkalosis is often accompanied by A) hypernatremia.
B) hyponatremia.
C) hyperkalemia.
D) hypokalemia.
Q2) A person with acute hypoxemia may hyperventilate and develop
A) respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic alkalosis.
D) metabolic acidosis.
Q3) The ________ system compensates for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.
A) gastrointestinal
B) renal
C) cardiovascular
D) respiratory
Q4) Which acid are the kidneys unable to excrete?
A) Metabolic
B) Carbonic
C) Bicarbonate
D) Ammonia
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Q1) Factors that increase the glomerular filtration rate include A) fluid volume excess.
B) increased hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman's capsule.
C) high oncotic pressure in glomerular capillary blood.
D) obstruction in the renal tubules.
Q2) It is true that glucose reabsorption in the tubules
A) occurs passively.
B) occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule.
C) is unlimited.
D) simply does not occur.
Q3) An important sign of glomerular basement membrane dysfunction is A) proteinuria.
B) hematuria.
C) glycosuria.
D) urinary casts.
Q4) The glucose transporter in the proximal tubule
A) has no transport maximum.
B) does not depend on sodium reabsorption.
C) is ATP dependent.
D) may be saturated at high filtered glucose loads.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Q1) Nephrotic syndrome involves loss of large amounts of ________ in the urine.
A) blood
B) sodium
C) glucose
D) protein
Q2) Glomerular disorders include
A) pyelonephritis.
B) obstructive uropathy.
C) interstitial cystitis.
D) nephrotic syndrome.
Q3) The primary risk factors for renal cell carcinoma include A) genetics.
B) cigarette smoking.
C) obesity.
D) hypertension.
E) nulliparous women.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Q1) One of the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)is
A) ischemic conditions.
B) cytotoxic agents.
C) immune reaction.
D) prolonged postrenal kidney injury.
Q2) One of the most frequent causes of chronic kidney disease is A) hypertension.
B) glomerulonephritis.
C) chronic pyelonephritis.
D) polycystic kidney disease.
Q3) The most likely cause of anemia in a patient with end-stage renal disease is A) insufficient erythropoietin.
B) blood loss secondary to hematuria.
C) vitamin B deficiency secondary to deficient intrinsic factor.
D) iron deficiency.
Q4) Prerenal acute kidney injury may be caused by A) severe hypotension.
B) glomerulonephritis.
C) bilateral kidney stones.
D) acute tubular necrosis.
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Q1) The normal post-void residual urine in the bladder is
A) less than 100 milliliters.
B) 150 to 200 milliliters.
C) 250 to 300 milliliters.
D) none of these; no normal residual volume is identified.
Q2) Characteristics of vesicoureteral reflux in children include
A) possibly being genetic in nature.
B) often leading to recurrent urinary tract infections.
C) possibly occurring secondary to bladder outlet obstruction.
D) possibly resulting in hypertension.
E) usually requiring surgical intervention.
Q3) Pelvic floor muscle training is appropriate for
A) overflow incontinence.
B) reflux prevention.
C) urge incontinence.
D) functional incontinence.
Q4) Infection can lead to bladder ________ formation.
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) Production of LH occurs in response to serum levels of A) estrogen.
B) prostate-specific antigen.
C) cortisol.
D) testosterone.
Q2) The thick covering of the ovum is called the ________.
Q3) In males, pituitary luteinizing hormone (LH)
A) induces Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone.
B) induces Sertoli cells to produce sperm.
C) stimulates ejaculation of semen.
D) has no known reproductive function.
Q4) Erectile function is most likely to be impaired if spinal cord injury occurs at A) L1-L2.
B) L2-L3.
C) S1-S2.
D) S2-S4.
Q5) The _________ nervous system mediates the process of ejaculation.
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32
Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23396
Sample Questions
Q1) The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as
A) hypospadias.
B) urethral fistula.
C) epispadias.
D) priapism.
Q2) Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of A) prostatitis.
B) testicular cancer.
C) testicular torsion.
D) epididymitis.
Q3) A patient presenting with a urethral stricture may experience A) decreased urinary stream.
B) urethral discharge.
C) infection.
D) urine retention.
E) inability to retract the glans of the penis.
Q4) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the ________ during sexual stimulation.
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Q5) The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the ________ of the disease.
Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ovulation occurs approximately how many days prior to the first day of menstruation?
A) 7
B) 10
C) 14
D) 21
Q2) What is the average maternal weight gain during pregnancy?
A) 7 lbs
B) 12 lbs
C) 24 lbs
D) 40 lbs
Q3) During the first 2 weeks of the menstrual cycle, the endometrium proliferates under the influence of A) estrogen.
B) testosterone.
C) progesterone.
D) hCG.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23398
Sample Questions
Q1) A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes
A) a history of fibrocystic breast disease.
B) more than three pregnancies prior to age 35.
C) malnourishment.
D) early menarche and late first pregnancy.
Q2) Which symptom would be manifested in a woman diagnosed with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Excessive vomiting
B) Proteinuria
C) Peripheral edema
D) Increased arterial pressure
E) Hemorrhage
Q3) The most common types of uterine tumors are known as
A) ovarian cysts.
B) endometriomas.
C) hydatidiform moles.
D) leiomyomas.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 23-year-old male presents with urethritis, dysuria, and purulent urethral discharge.The suspected diagnosis would be
A) gonorrhea.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) Chlamydia.
D) syphilis.
Q2) The initial incubation period of syphilis lasts for A) 2 to 3 days.
B) 10 to 90 days.
C) 3 to 6 weeks.
D) 40 years.
Q3) Herpes lesions are fluid-filled vesicles that appear __________days after infection.
A) 1 to 2
B) 3 to 7
C) 7 to 10
D) 10 to 14
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36
Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23400
Sample Questions
Q1) Parasympathetic stimulation of the stomach would
A) decrease motility.
B) decrease hydrogen chloride secretion.
C) inhibit acidity.
D) stimulate motility.
Q2) Which is associated with contraction of the gallbladder?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Morphine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Gastrin
Q3) Older individuals may experience which change in the mouth?
A) Increase in salivation
B) Increase in taste for salt
C) Increase in the number of papillae
D) Increased exposure of dentin
Q4) The action of bile is to
A) emulsify fats.
B) digest cellulose.
C) convert sucrose.
D) release free amino acids.
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) An urgent surgical consult is indicated for the patient with acute abdominal pain and A) vomiting.
B) CVA tenderness.
C) absent bowel sounds.
D) borborygmi.
Q2) What finding would rule out a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome in a patient with chronic diarrhea?
A) Negative stool leukocytes
B) Intermittent constipation
C) Abdominal pain and distention
D) Bloody stools
Q3) An early indicator of colon cancer is A) rectal pain.
B) bloody diarrhea.
C) a change in bowel habits.
D) jaundice.
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23402
Sample Questions
Q1) Most gallstones are composed of A) bile.
B) cholesterol.
C) calcium.
D) uric acid salts.
Q2) Elevated serum lipase and amylase levels are indicative of A) gallbladder disease.
B) appendicitis.
C) pancreatitis.
D) peritonitis.
Q3) The pain associated with chronic pancreatitis is generally described as ________ in nature.
A) sharp and constant
B) steady and boring
C) intermittent and burning
D) intermittent and stabbing
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39
Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common causes of prehepatic jaundice are ________ and ineffective erythropoiesis.
A) hemolysis
B) metabolism
C) fibrosis
D) canalicular bilirubin transport
Q2) Coma, no liver flap
A)Grade 1
B)Grade 2
C)Grade 3
D)Grade 4
Q3) Confusion, subtle behavioral changes, no liver flap
A)Grade 1
B)Grade 2
C)Grade 3
D)Grade 4
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone is responsible for regulation of immune and inflammatory reactions?
A) Thyrotropin
B) Androgen
C) Aldosterone
D) Cortisol
Q2) Thyroid hormones are derived from A) peptides.
B) tyrosine amino acids.
C) globulin.
D) catecholamines.
Q3) It is true that lipid-soluble hormones are
A) transported in a free state in the bloodstream.
B) bound to receptors on the plasma membranes of target cells.
C) diffused through cell membranes to activate intracellular receptors.
D) activated by second-messenger cascades within the target cell.
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tumor which results in excessive production and release of catecholamines is A) goiter.
B) pheochromocytoma.
C) Conn syndrome.
D) Cushing disease.
Q2) Propylthiouracil may be used to treat hyperthyroidism, because it
A) destroys thyroid gland cells.
B) inhibits the release of TSH.
C) suppresses production of autoantibodies.
D) inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis.
Q3) Aldosterone secretion is regulated by the presence of ________ in the circulation.
A) progesterone
B) corticoglobulin
C) ACTH
D) angiotensin II
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of insulin that would be most appropriate for acute management of hyperglycemia is
A) NPH.
B) Semilente.
C) regular.
D) Ultralente.
Q2) The underlying pathogenic mechanism for type 2 diabetes is
A) pancreatic b-cell destruction.
B) insulin resistance and b-cell dysfunction.
C) lack of exercise and chronic overeating.
D) impaired glucose transport into cells.
Q3) Which are complications of diabetes mellitus that are microvascular?
A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Retinopathy
C) Nephropathy
D) Neuropathy
E) Stroke
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nutritional effects of cancer can be severe and result in
A) malnutrition.
B) anorexia.
C) cachexia.
D) catabolism.
Q2) Which patient is at highest risk for severe negative nitrogen balance?
A) Postsurgical patient
B) Postburn patient
C) Posttrauma patient
D) Postsepsis patient
Q3) Which hormone promotes protein synthesis?
A) Glucagon
B) Epinephrine
C) Cortisol
D) Testosterone
Q4) The process of metabolizing proteins to provide energy is called
A) glycogenolysis.
B) glycolysis.
C) gluconeogenesis.
D) proteolysis.
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurons with one dendrite and one axon are
A) unipolar.
B) bipolar.
C) dipolar.
D) multipolar.
Q2) The ________ protects the soft tissue of the brain.
A) dural septa
B) dura
C) falx cerebri
D) tentorium cerebella
Q3) Voluntary fine-motor movements are produced by activation of the _____ tract(s).
A) dorsal horn-lemniscal
B) lateral corticospinal
C) spinothalamic
D) medial brainstem
Q4) A common inhibitory central nervous system (CNS)neurotransmitter is A) acetylcholine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) g-aminobutyric acid (GABA).
D) glutamate.
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tool used to assess levels of consciousness is A) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
B) intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring.
C) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS).
D) central perfusion pressure (CPP).
Q2) Cerebral aneurysm is most frequently the result of A) embolic stroke.
B) subarachnoid hemorrhage.
C) subdural hemorrhage.
D) meningitis.
Q3) The physiologic change most likely to lead to an increase in intracranial pressure is A) cerebral vasodilation.
B) hypernatremia.
C) respiratory hyperventilation.
D) REM sleep.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The initial treatment of an individual experiencing a seizure is concentrated on
A) maintaining an airway.
B) administering anticonvulsant medication.
C) documenting the seizure pattern.
D) obtaining an EEG.
Q2) Which conditions are risk factors for the development of cerebral palsy?
A) Birth trauma
B) Seizure disorder
C) Kernicterus
D) Prenatal maternal infection
E) Scoliosis
Q3) The classic manifestations of Parkinson disease include
A) intention tremor and akinesia.
B) rest tremor and skeletal muscle rigidity.
C) ataxia and intention tremor.
D) skeletal muscle rigidity and intention tremor.
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vestibular disorder that is manifested by the sensation of motion without actual motion is referred to as
A) equilibrium.
B) nystagmus.
C) vertigo.
D) effusion.
Q2) The nurse caring for an individual with vision impairment should be prepared to A) keep the patient on bedrest to avoid injury.
B) speak to the patient with a clear, loud voice.
C) announcing himself or herself at all interactions.
D) provide as much bright light as possible.
Q3) Hearing loss associated with aminoglycosides is known as A) sensorineural.
B) conductive.
C) presbycusis.
D) otosclerosis.
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presenting with a severe, pounding headache accompanied by nausea and photophobia is likely experiencing a ________ headache.
A) tension
B) migraine
C) sinus
D) chronic
Q2) Which treatment is helpful in neuropathic pain but not used for acute pain?
A) Narcotic analgesics
B) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs and aspirin
C) Anticonvulsants
D) Nonnarcotic analgesics
Q3) The physiologic mechanisms involved in the pain phenomenon are termed A) nociception.
B) sensitization.
C) neurotransmission.
D) proprioception.
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a client is diagnosed with schizophrenia and asks what could have caused the disorder, the statements that could serve as a basis for answering include which of the following?
A) Schizophrenia may be related to abnormal cerebral structure.
B) Schizophrenia is inherited as an autosomal recessive gene defect.
C) Schizophrenia often develops in the absence of family psychopathology.
D) Chronic prolonged stress may contribute to development of schizophrenia.
E) Symptoms of schizophrenia may be associated with smoking.
Q2) The action of most antidepressants currently available is to
A) improve brain norepinephrine and serotonin activity.
B) inhibit norepinephrine and serotonin activity.
C) convert into catecholamines in the brain.
D) block D2 receptors in the brain.
Q3) In youth, it is estimated that ____ will be diagnosed with serious mental illness between the ages of 13 and 18 years.
A) 5%
B) 26.2%
C) 46.3%
D) 75%
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tachycardia is a common finding in individuals with A) panic attacks.
B) generalized anxiety disorder.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) bipolar disorder.
Q2) Persistent, intrusive, uncontrollable thoughts that an individual recognizes as a product of his or her own mind are called A) compulsions.
B) delusions.
C) obsessions.
D) hallucinations.
Q3) Which disorders are classified as anxiety-related?
A) Panic
B) Generalized anxiety
C) Obsessive-compulsive
D) Borderline personality
E) Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The epiphyseal plate
A) provides support to long bones.
B) prevents overactivity of osteoblasts.
C) allows for continued bone lengthening during maturation.
D) has an unknown function.
Q2) It is true that synovial fluid
A) is found in spinal disks.
B) provides protection.
C) is reduced in volume with injury.
D) becomes thinner with aging.
Q3) The primary determinant of tendon strength is
A) collagen cross-linking.
B) actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) elastin composition.
D) calcium balance.
Q4) Articular cartilage is avascular and
A) completely incapable of regeneration.
B) nonliving.
C) nourished by synovial fluid.
D) rarely damaged.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain with passive stretching of a muscle is indicative of A) noncontractile tissue injury.
B) contractile tissue injury.
C) vascular insufficiency.
D) skeletal muscle damage.
Q2) Anticholinesterase inhibitors may be used to manage A) muscular dystrophy.
B) myasthenia gravis.
C) fibromyalgia.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.
Q3) The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called A) subluxation.
B) subjugation
C) sublimation.
D) dislocation.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Signs/symptoms of Lyme disease include
A) fever and chills.
B) migratory rash.
C) arthritic pain.
D) headache.
E) myalgia.
Q2) Systemic disorders include
A) adhesive capsulitis.
B) verrucae.
C) osteoarthritis.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.
Q3) The final stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial membranes, and soft tissue, is called
A) tophaceous gout.
B) gouty arthritis.
C) complicated gout.
D) asymptomatic hyperuricemia.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Herpes simplex I infection
A) causes both oral and genital infections.
B) begins with a burning or tingling sensation.
C) reactivates with stress, sun exposure, menses.
D) is painless.
E) remains latent in spinal ganglia between outbreaks.
Q2) Manifestations of herpes zoster include
A) multiple fluid-filled vesicles on the lips, tongue, and hands.
B) generalized, painful maculopapular rash.
C) red, itchy palms and soles of feet.
D) a dermatomal distribution of lesions and pain.
Q3) Shingles is caused by the same virus that causes
A) measles.
B) mumps.
C) chicken pox.
D) rubella.
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first priority when rescuing a burned individual is
A) establishing a patent airway.
B) removing his or her clothing.
C) eliminating the source of the burn.
D) covering the wounds with wet sheets.
Q2) The time between the end of burn shock and closure of the burn to less than 20% of total body surface area is called the ________ phase.
A) postshock
B) rehabilitation
C) critical
D) emergent
Q3) The majority of electrical burns in children are caused by
A) playing with electrical outlets.
B) playing with defective electrical cords.
C) biting on extension cords.
D) putting fingers in electrical sockets.
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