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Advanced Organic Chemistry Exam Preparation Guide - 2476 Verified Questions

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Advanced Organic Chemistry Exam

Course Introduction

Preparation Guide

Advanced Organic Chemistry delves into the intricate principles governing organic molecular structure, reactivity, and synthesis. This course covers advanced reaction mechanisms, stereochemistry, pericyclic reactions, organometallics, and modern synthetic strategies, emphasizing the interpretation of spectroscopic data and applications in complex molecule construction. It is designed to provide students with a deep understanding of contemporary topics and problem-solving approaches in organic chemistry, preparing them for research or professional work in the chemical sciences.

Recommended Textbook

Organic Chemistry 7th Edition by William H. Brown

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29 Chapters

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Chapter 1: Covalent Bonding and Shapes of Molecules

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Sample Questions

Q1) The following molecules all contain the same functional group except 2. CH<sub>3</sub>OH CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub> CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH CH<sub>3</sub>CH(OH)CH<sub>3</sub>

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Provide a neatly drawn figure to show the atomic orbitals that overlap to form each of the bonds in ethene (ethylene, H<sub>2</sub>C=CH<sub>2</sub>). Label each bond (e.g., C-H \(\sigma\) bond) and indicate which atomic orbitals contribute to this bond (e.g., C 2sp<sup>3</sup> + H 1s).

Answer: 11ea7d75_f5da_47da_b9bd_8ded5e0f86e4_TB1813_00_TB1813_00

Q3) Draw bond-line structures of all of the alcohols that have the formula C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>O.

Answer: 11ea7d75_f5da_6eed_b9bd_eb5435d24ac2_TB1813_00_TB1813_00

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Chapter 2: Alkanes and Cycloalkanes

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Q1) How many hydrogen atoms are there in decane?

Answer: 22

Q2) Which of the following cycloalkanes has the most ring strain?

A)cyclopropane

B)cyclobutane

C)cyclopentane

D)cyclohexane

Answer: A

Q3) Conformation B is represented by Roman numeral ____. Answer: III

Q4) How many hydrogen atoms are there in nonane, the linear hydrocarbon with nine carbon atoms?

A)16

B)18

C)20

D)22

Answer: C

Q5) Conformation C is represented by Roman numeral ____. Answer: IV

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Chapter 3: Stereoisomerism and Chirality

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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding optical rotation is not true?

A)All (+) enantiomers are dextrorotatory.

B)All R enantiomers are dextrorotatory.

C)All (-) enantiomers rotate plane-polarized light in a counterclockwise direction.

D)All (+) and (-) enantiomers rotate plane-polarized light in opposite directions.

Answer: B

Q2) How many stereoisomers of 3-bromo-2-butanol, CH<sub>3</sub>CH(OH)CHBrCH<sub>3</sub>, exist?

A)1

B)2

C)3

D)4

Answer: D

Q3) A work glove is chiral but disposable surgical gloves are not.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Acids and Bases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following compounds is the strongest acid?

A)CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>

B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH

C)CH<sub>3</sub>CHO

D)CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H

Q2) Which of the following is present in the highest concentration upon dissolution of acetic acid in water?

A)OH<sup>-</sup>

B)H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>

C)CH<sub>3</sub>COOH

D)CH<sub>3</sub>COOH<sup>+</sup>

Q3) Provide a brief explanation, based on features of the molecules, for the following trend in pK<sub>a</sub> values?

CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH > CF<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH ethanol 2,2,2-trifluoromethanol 15.9 12.4

Q4) Which acid has the smallest K<sub>a</sub>?

Q5) Which acid will be almost completely deprotonated by NaOH?

Q6) The energy needed by reactants to reach the transition state is the____________________,

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Chapter 5: Alkenes: Bonding, Nomenclature, and Properties

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Q1) Provide the bond-line structure of (Z)-4,5-dichloro-2-pentene.

Q2) What is the index of hydrogen deficiency of a compound with a molecular formula of C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>N<sub>2</sub>?

A)0

B)1

C)2

D)3

Q3) What is the approximate value of the H-C-H bonds angle in ethene?

A)90<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>

B)109<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>

C)120<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>

D)180<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>

Q4) How many isomers of 1,3-heptadiene exist?

A)1

B)2

C)3

D)4

Q5) What is the value of the index of hydrogen deficiency of a molecule with the formula C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>12</sub>?

Q6) Provide the bond-line structure of (2E,5E)-2,5-octadiene.

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Chapter 6: Reactions of Alkenes

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Q1) Br<sub>2 </sub>in CCl<sub>4</sub> can be used to distinguish cyclohexene from cyclohexane.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following concepts explains why tertiary carbocations are more stable than primary and secondary carbocations?

A)electronegativity

B)resonance

C)hyperconjugation

D)the octet rule

Q3) What type of reactive intermediate is formed in the reaction of an alkene with Br<sub>2</sub> and water to give a bromohydrin?

A)carbocation

B)carbanion

C)radical

D)cyclic bromonium ion

Q4) ____________________ predicts that the more stable carbocation intermediate is formed in electrophilic additions to alkenes.

Q5) Product _____would be formed via a primary carbocation.

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Chapter 7: Alkynes

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Q1) Approximately how long is a carbon-carbon triple bond of an alkyne?

A)110 pm

B)121 pm

C)135 pm

D)156 pm

Q2) What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?

CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>-C\(\equiv\)C-CH(CH<sub>3</sub>) <sub>2</sub>

A)1-isopropyl-1-pentyne

B)2-methyl-3-heptyne

C)6-methyl-4-heptyne

D)isopropyl propyl ethyne

Q3) Which of the following has the lowest pK<sub>a</sub>?

A)butane

B)1-butene

C)1-butyne

D)2-butyne

Q4) Addition of H<sub>2</sub> to 2-pentyne in the presence of the Lindlar's catalyst will produce ___-2-pentene.

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Chapter 8: Haloalkanes, Halogenation, and Radical Reactions

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Q1) Autoxidation occurs by a radical chain mechanism that requires oxygen and an initiator.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What is the major product obtained from the reaction of 2-methyl-2-butene with hydrogen bromide in the presence of peroxides?

A)2,3-dibromo-2-methylbutane

B)2-bromo-3-methylbutane

C)2-bromo-2-methylbutane

D)(E)-1-bromo-2-methyl-2-butene

Q3) What is the major product formed upon radical bromination of (S)-3-methylhexane?

A)(S) 3-bromo-3-methylhexane

B)(R) 3-bromo-3-methylhexane

C)a mixture of (R) and (S) 3-bromo-3-methylhexane

D)(3R) 1-bromo-3-methylhexane

Q4) What is the characteristic of a radical chain propagation step?

A)Radicals are formed.

B)Byproducts are formed.

C)A radical reacts with a molecule to give a new radical and a new molecule.

D)Two radicals combine to give a molecule.

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Chapter 9: Nucleophilic Substitution and Beta-Elimination

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Q1) Which of the following alkyl halides undergoes the fastest solvolysis reaction with methanol, CH<sub>3</sub>OH?

A)methyl chloride

B)ethyl chloride

C)2-chloropropane

D)tert-butyl chloride

Q2) Which of the following alkyl halides undergoes the fastest S<sub>N</sub>2 reaction with sodium methylthiolate, NaSMe?

A)methyl iodide

B)ethyl iodide

C)2-bromopropane

D)tert-butyl chloride

Q3) The solvent in these reactions would be classified as ______ ________.

Q4) These reactions are classified as ________________reactions.

Q5) Which of the following reactions corresponds to a substitution?

A)propene \(\rarr\) 1,2-dibromopropane

B)1-iodopropane \(\rarr\) propene

C)propene \(\rarr\) propane

D)1-iodopropane \(\rarr\) 1-bromopropane

Q6) Compound C is formed by an _____ mechanism.

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Chapter 10: Alcohols

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Q1) Including stereoisomers, the number alkene isomers produced by the acid-catalyzed dehydration of 3-methyl-3-hexanol is _____.

Q2) What is the major organic product obtained upon heating a mixture of 2-methylcyclopentanol and 85% H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>?

A)1-methylcyclopentene

B)3-methylcyclopentene

C)4-methylcyclopentene

D)methylenecyclopentene

Q3) What is the major organic product obtained upon heating a mixture of 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanol, (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>CCH(OH)CH<sub>3</sub>, with sulfuric acid?

A)3,3-dimethyl-1-butene

B)2,3-dimethyl-1-butene

C)2,3-dimethyl-2-butene

D)tert-butyl alcohol

Q4) The pK<sub>a</sub> of CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH is _______than that of CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>SH.

Q5) Provide the complete IUPAC name for the starting material in this reaction.

Q6) The mechanism of this reaction would be classified as ______.

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Chapter 11: Ethers, Epoxides, and Sulfides

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Q1) Which of the following statements are true?

1)ethanol is more soluble in water than dimethyl ether

2)ethanol has a higher boiling point than dimethyl ether

3)ethanol has the same molecular weight as dimethyl ether

A)only 1

B)only 1 and 2

C)only 1 and 3

D)1, 2 and 3

Q2) Which of the following ethers cannot be prepared by a Williamson ether synthesis?

A)tert-butyl phenyl ether

B)isopropyl methyl ether

C)anisole

D)tert-butyl methyl ether

Q3) What are the major products obtained upon treatment of anisole, PhOCH<sub>3</sub>, with excess HBr?

A)phenol and methanol

B)bromobenzene and bromomethane

C)phenol and bromomethane

D)bromobenzene and methanol

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Chapter 12: Infrared Spectroscopy

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Q1) Which of the following functional groups is likely to be present in a molecule that has peaks in the infrared spectrum at 1000-1250 cm<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup> (strong), but does not have peaks 3200-3650 at 1630-1820 or cm<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>?

A)alcohol

B)aldehyde or ketone

C)ether

D)ester

Q2) Which of the following bonds gives rise to an absorbance at approximately 2700-3300 cmS1U1P1-S1S1P011S1S1P0 in the infrared spectrum?

A)C\(\equiv\)C

B)C=O

C)C=C

D)C-H

Q3) Which of the following relationships is not valid as applied to infrared spectroscopy?

A)"wavenumber = 1/\(\lambda\) (in cm)"

B)"\(\Delta\)E = h \(\upsilon\) "

C)"\(\Delta\)E = \(\lambda\) \(\upsilon\) "

D)"\(\upsilon\) = 4.12 \( \surd\)(K/\(\mu\))"

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Chapter 13: Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy

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Q1) Which of the following combinations of peaks appears in the <sup>1</sup>H NMR spectrum of 1,4-dimethyoxyethane, CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OC H<sub>3</sub>?

A)three singlets

B)a singlet, a triplet, and a quintet

C)a singlet and two triplets

D)a doublet and a triplet

Q2) Which feature in the <sup>1</sup>H NMR spectrum provides information about the number of types of different protons in a compound?

A)number of signals

B)integral

C)splitting

D)chemical shift

Q3) How many signals appear in the proton-decoupled <sup>13</sup>C NMR spectrum of 1,3-dibromobenzene?

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Chapter 14: Mass Spectrometry

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Q1) What is the most likely molecular formula of a compound that has a molecular ion in the EI mass spectrum with m/z of 136, with a M+1 and M+2 peaks that are 4.4% and 49% of the intensity of the molecular ion peak, respectively.

Q2) The peak at a m/z of _____ represents the base peak.

Q3) A monochloroalkane shows two parent ion peaks m/z at 92 and 94. The molecular formula of this compound might be C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>7</sub>Cl.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following gives rise to a prominent peak in the mass spectrum at m/z of 39?

A)1-octyne

B)4-octyne

C)5-methyl-3-octyne

D)2,2-dimethyl-3-heptyne

Q5) Which C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O carbonyl-containing compound shows a molecular ion peak at m/z 100 and significant fragment peaks at m/z 85, 58, 57, 43 and 42 in the EI mass spectrum?

Q6) The peak at a m/z of _____ represents M<sup>+</sup>.

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Chapter 15: An Introduction to Organometallic Compounds

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Q1) Substance A is formed from the reaction of Mg with ______________.

Q2) The first step in this conversion would be reaction with:

A) Mg/ether

B) PCC

C) oxirane

Q3) Substance ____ is the nucleophile in the reaction.

A)A

B)B

C)C

Q4) In the formation of the ether soluble complex in a Grignard reaction, magnesium acts as a Lewis base and the ether as a Lewis acid.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The second step in this conversion would be reaction with: A) Mg/ether

B) PCC

C) oxirane

Q6) Substance A is termed a ___________reagent.

Q7) The reaction intermediate formed by the reaction of KOH with the alkene is called_____________.

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Chapter 16: Aldehydes and Ketones

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Sample Questions

Q1) The catalyst in this reaction is _____.

A)A

B)B

C)C

D)D

Q2) Which of the following statements is not true?

A)Reaction of benzophenone with methanol in the presence of acid gives a acetal

B)Reaction of butanal with ethanol in the presence of base gives an acetal

C)Reaction of benzaldehyde with ethanol in the presence of acid gives an acetal

D)Reaction of acetone with methanol in the presence of base gives a hemiacetal

Q3) The first step in the reaction mechanism is the protonation of the ________group.

Q4) Which of the following is a reactive intermediate in the base-catalyzed racemization of (R)-3-phenyl-2-butanone?

A)carbanion

B)enol

C)enolate

D)radical

Q5) The product of this reaction is called a(n)___________.

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Chapter 17: Carboxylic Acids

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Q1) Benzoic acid can be produced by the treatment of bromobenzene with 1. Mg, ether, and 2.) CO<sub>2</sub> followed by acidification.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The 2,3,4,5-tetramethylbenzene will be recovered from the _______ layer.

Q3) Malonic acid is an example of a \(\beta\)-ketoacid.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following is the most soluble in water?

A)acetic acid

B)pentanol

C)butanoic acid

D)pentanal

Q5) When CO<sub>2</sub> is bubbled through an ether solution of benzylmagnesium bromide, and the resulting mixture is acidified, ____________ _____ is produced.

Q6) Ethyl propanoate (CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>COOCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>) can be prepared by the reaction of ethanol with ____________ acid.

Q7) The 2-hydroxybenzoic acid will be recovered from the _______ layer.

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Chapter 18: Functional Derivatives of Carboxylic Acids

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Q1) The substance that is the most reactive toward nucleophilic acyl substitution is

Q2) Which of the following statements is not true in relation to the hydrolysis of esters?

A)Hydrolysis of esters under acid conditions requires only a catalytic amount of a strong acid

B)Hydrolysis of esters under basic conditions requires a stoichiometric amount of hydroxide

C)Under acidic conditions for hydrolysis of esters protonation of the ester increases its electrophilicity

D)Under basic conditions for hydrolysis of esters deprotonation of the ester increases its nucleophilicity

Q3) Which of the following best describes the key mechanistic steps in the reaction of an acid chloride and an alcohol to form an ester?

A)elimination followed by addition

B)addition followed by decarboxylation

C)addition followed by elimination

D)substitution followed by addition

Q4) An anhydride is represented by the structure numbered ____.

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Chapter 19: Enolate Anions and Enamines

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Q1) Which of the following are intermediates in the base catalyzed aldol reaction of propanal to form 2-methyl-2-pentenal?

1)enol

2)enolate

3)tetrahedral carbonyl intermediate

4)aldol

A)only 1 and 2

B)only 1, 3 and 4

C)only 2, 3 and 4

D)1, 2, 3 and 4

Q2) A 1,6-diester will produce a five-membered ring via a Dieckmann cyclization.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A Claisen condensation could be considered to the an ester analog of an aldol condensation.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Tautomerization is catalyzed by both acids and bases.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Dienes, Conjugated Systems, and Pericyclic Reactions

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Q1) Which of 1,3-cyclohexadiene and 1,4-cyclohexadiene has the greatest heat of hydrogenation (i.e., the most exothermic reaction with H<sub>2</sub> in the presence of a catalyst). Provide a brief explanation for your choice ?

Q2) The kinetically controlled product in this reaction is _____.

A)A

B)B

C)C

D)D

Q3) The nucleophile in this reaction is ____.

A)A

B)B

C)C

D)D

Q4) What are the units of absorbance, A, in ultraviolet-visible spectroscopy?

A)J.mol<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>

B)nm.mol<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>

C)J.mol<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>.M<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>

D)none, A is a dimensionless quantity

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Benzene and the Concept of Aromaticity

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Q1) According to Hückel criteria, sulfathiazole is predicted to be ___________.

Q2) What is the approximate length of the carbon-carbon bonds in benzene?

A)110 pm

B)121 pm

C)139 pm

D)156 pm

Q3) Which orbital contains the lone pair on the nitrogen atom of pyrrole?

A)s

B)p

C)sp

D)sp<sup>2</sup>

Q4) How many p orbital electrons are present in cyclopentadienyl anion?

A)4

B)6

C)7

D)8

Q5) Assuming that the sulfur atom is sp<sup>2</sup>-hybridized, there are _____ \(\pi\)-electrons in the sulfathiazole ring.

Q6) Using the Hückel criteria, the compound would be ______________.

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Q7) According the Hückel criteria this anion would be classified as ______________.

Chapter 22: Reactions of Benzene and Its Derivatives

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Q1) Why does anisole undergo bromination with Br<sub>2</sub> in the absence of FeBr<sub>3</sub> whereas bromination of benzene requires the presence of FeBr<sub>3</sub>?

A)anisole is a better nucleophile than benzene B)the methoxy group of anisole is an inductive electron withdrawing substituent C)Br<sub>2</sub> is a good nucleophile D)the reaction is accelerated by light

Q2) All of the following can act as an electrophile in an electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction.

SO<sub>3

</sub>(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>C<sup>+</sup> NO<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following sets of substituents are all deactivating groups in electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions?

A)Cl, OH, CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>

B)CH<sub>3</sub>, Br, COCH<sub>3</sub>

C)CH<sub>3</sub>, NH<sub>2</sub>, OH

D)COCH<sub>3</sub>, NO<sub>2</sub>, Br

Q4) This reaction proceeds _____ (faster or slower) than when benzene is used.

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Chapter 23: Amines

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Q1) Substance _____ is pyrrole.

Q2) What is the intermediate in the Cope elimination, in which a 3<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> amine is treated with hydrogen peroxide followed by heat?

A)a tetraalkylammonium hydroxide salt

B)an amine oxide

C)a 3<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> carbocation

D)an amide anion

Q3) Which of the following amines can be prepared by reduction of an amide?

A)tert-butyl amine

B)2-hexanamine

C)N-methyl-1-butanamine

D)aniline

Q4) Substance _____ is a primary alkyl amine.

Q5) Which of the following is the strongest base?

A)phenol

B)aniline

C)methylamine

D)4-nitroaniline

Q6) Provide a line-bond structure of N-methylaniline.

Q7) The ammonia ion of substance ____ will have the largest pK<sub>a</sub>.

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Chapter 24: Catalytic Carbon-Carbon Bond Formation

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Q1) ______involves the use of alkynyl complexes.

A)Heck reaction

B)Stille coupling

C)Suzuki coupling

D)Sonogashira coupling

E)Alkene metathesis

Q2) ______involves the use of stannates.

A)Heck reaction

B)Stille coupling

C)Suzuki coupling

D)Sonogashira coupling

E)Alkene metathesis

Q3) Which of the following terms describes the mechanism of a Diels-Alder reaction?

A)electrophilic addition

B)nucleophilic addition

C)pericyclic addition

D)conjugate addition

Q4) During oxidative addition, the coordination (number) of the metal ________ by two.

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Chapter 25: Carbohydrates

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Q1) Which of the following is vitamin C?

A)D-glucose

B)D-mannitol

C)L-ascorbic acid

D)L-sorbose

Q2) Structure ____ represents a aldopentose.

Q3) The difference between the pyranose and furanose forms of a given aldohexose is the ring size.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?

A)amylose

B)amylopectin

C)glycogen

D)ribulose

Q5) The anomer of ribose is drawn is _______. (alpha or beta)

Q6) The correct name for the cyclic structure is__________________________.

Q7) A glycoside is formed upon reaction of glucopyranose with NaBH<sub>4</sub>.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 26: Lipids

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Q1) Saponification followed by protonation of structure _____ produces three moles of the same saturated fatty acid.

Q2) Explain the formation of "soap scum", formed in areas which have "hard" water. What chemical reaction takes place, and what physical process results?

Q3) How many triglycerides (including stereoisomers) are there which contain two molecules of stearic acid, and one of myristic acid?

A)3

B)6

C)9

D)12

Q4) Saponification followed by protonation of structure _____ produces two moles of the salt of stearic acid and one mole of the salt of oleic acid.

Q5) Briefly describe the chemical reaction that is used to "harden" a vegetable oil to give a fat.

Q6) Female sex hormones like estrone are called _____________.

Q7) Salts of long chain fatty acids are called detergents.

A)True

B)False

Page 28

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Chapter 27: Amino Acids and Proteins

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Q1) The Edman degradation is used to identify the ___-terminal amino acid of a peptide.

Q2) Provide the structure of dicylcohexylcarbodiimide, a common reagent that is used to couple two amino acid residues by formation of a peptide bond, and the structure N,N'-dicyclohexylurea, the byproduct of this reaction.

Q3) How does phenyl isothiocyanate, Ph-N=C=S, react with a peptide in the Edman degradation?

A)the sp carbon acts as an electrophile in a reaction with an amino group of the peptide

B)the sulfur acts as a nucleophile and adds to the carbon of the peptide bond

C)the nitrogen acts as a nucleophile and adds to the carbon of the peptide bond

D)the sp carbon acts as an electrophile in a reaction with a carboxylate of the peptide

Q4) For leucine the pI is the average of pK<sub>a1</sub> and pK<sub>a2</sub>.

A)True

B)False

Q5) In terms of the number of amino acid residues Cys-Ile-Ser-Asp-Gly-His-Gly-Gly would be classified as a(n) ________________.

Q6) Provide the structure of Ser-Ala.

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Chapter 28: Nucleic Acids

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Q1) The G-C base pair is the weaker than the A-T base pair as it has two hydrogen bonds whereas the A-T base pair has three.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Relative to the secondary structure of DNA, there is no restriction on the sequence of bases along a polynucleotide chain. The exact sequence carries the genetic information.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is a definition of messenger RNA (mRNA)?

A)RNA found in the ribosome, the site in cells where synthesis of proteins takes place

B)RNA which carries a specific amino acid to the site of protein synthesis

C)RNA which has coded genetic information

D)RNA which signals cell death

Q4) What is the approximate diameter of double helix of DNA?

A)340 pm

B)800 pm

C)2000 pm

D)3400 pm

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Chapter 29: Organic Polymer Chemistry

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Q1) Which of the following combinations of terms best describes the polymerization of a diisocyanate (OCN-R-NCO) and a diol to form a polyurethane?

A)step growth addition

B)step growth condensation

C)chain growth addition

D)chain growth condensation

Q2) The number of types of monomers in this structure is _______.

Q3) Which of the following relationships is not true?

A)T<sub>g</sub> < T<sub>m</sub>

B)M<sub>w</sub> \(\ge\)M<sub>n</sub>

C)polydispersity index \(\le\) 1

D)M<sub>n</sub> = (average degree of polymerization, n) * (molecular weight of repeat unit)

Q4) Provide the structure of poly(methyl methacrylate).

Q5) Provide the structure of azoisobutyronitrile, AIBN, and show the mechanism whereby it undergoes thermal decomposition to give two radicals and a molecule of N<sub>2</sub>.

Q6) Provide the structure of polystyrene.

Q7) This polymer would be classified as a poly______.

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