Advanced Nursing Practice
Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Nursing Practice explores the expanded role of nurses in clinical decision-making, leadership, and evidence-based care. This course delves into advanced assessment, diagnostic reasoning, and therapeutic interventions across diverse populations. Emphasizing collaboration, ethical decision-making, and health policy, students will develop skills to lead healthcare teams, manage complex cases, and drive effective patient outcomes in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Copstead
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54 Chapters
1230 Verified Questions
1230 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient's red blood cell is slightly elevated today.This might be explained by A) gender difference.
B) situational factors.
C) normal variation.
D) cultural variation.
E) illness.
Answer: A, B, C, E
Q2) A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake.This is an example of
A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: B
Q3) When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be ________.
Answer: idiopathic
Many diseases are idiopathic in nature.
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allostasis is best defined as A) steady state.
B) a state of equilibrium, of balance within the organism.
C) the process by which the body heals following disease.
D) the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well-being.
Answer: D
Q2) Events which occur during the alarm stage of the stress response include secretion of
A) catecholamines.
B) ACTH.
C) glucocorticoids.
D) immune cytokines.
E) TSH.
Answer: A, B, C, D
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cardiac drug digitalis enhances myocardial contraction, because it
A) increases intracellular calcium level in cardiac cells.
B) inhibits sodium from entering cardiac cells.
C) enhances the sodium-potassium pump.
D) increases the sodium gradient across the cell membrane.
Answer: A
Q2) Repolarization of a neuron after a depolarizing action potential is due to
A) activation of the Na<sup>+</sup>-K<sup>+</sup> pump.
B) influx of calcium.
C) efflux of potassium.
D) influx of sodium.
Answer: C
Q3) Phospholipids spontaneously form lipid bilayers, because they are A) polar.
B) charged.
C) insoluble.
D) amphipathic.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is A) anaplasia.
B) dysplasia.
C) metaplasia.
D) hyperplasia.
Q2) Infectious injury often results from A) exotoxins.
B) endotoxins.
C) self-destruction of cells.
D) anti-inflammatory reactions.
E) enzymes from white blood cells.
Q3) The primary effect of aging on all body systems is A) decreased functional reserve.
B) diseased function.
C) programmed senescence.
D) senility.
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6
Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary role of genes is to A) code for reproduction.
B) direct the synthesis of proteins.
C) determine differentiation.
D) determine cellular apoptosis.
Q2) Protein synthesis involves
A) direction from mRNA.
B) amino acid movement into the nucleus.
C) nucleotide triplets.
D) RNA polymerase.
E) removal of introns from the DNA template.
Q3) Characteristics of smooth muscle include
A) being under voluntary control.
B) having striations.
C) contraction being short-lived.
D) being found in blood vessels.
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Results of biochemical tests indicate an infant has phenylketonuria (PKU).The parents ask what PKU means.Correct responses would include all the following except PKU
A) is an enzyme deficiency resulting in the inability to metabolize phenylalanine.
B) is an inborn error of metabolism.
C) results from a chromosome abnormality called nondisjunction.
D) is transmitted as an autosomal recessive disorder.
Q2) Children with PKU must avoid phenylalanine in the diet.Phenylalanine is most likely to be a component of A) fat.
B) sugar.
C) protein.
D) carbohydrate.
Q3) Characteristics of Marfan syndrome include that it
A) is a single-gene disorder.
B) involves alterations in connective tissue.
C) leads to skeletal and joint deformities.
D) leads to short stocky build.
E) results in dangerous cardiovascular disorders.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of telomerase include
A) repairs the end caps of chromosomes.
B) contributes to cancer cell immortality.
C) is deficient in cancer cells.
D) activity allows a cell to replicate indefinitely.
Q2) After bronchoscopy and histologic examination of a suspected tumor, your patient is diagnosed with primary bronchial carcinoma.Thus, the tumor
A) is benign.
B) is malignant.
C) is secondary to cancer elsewhere in the body.
D) has spread.
Q3) A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival.Which response is correct?
A) "Lung cancer is always fatal."
B) "Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate."
C) "Lung cancer is highly curable when diagnosed early."
D) "Lung cancer death rate has decreased significantly, as with all other cancers."
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drug resistance of microbes occurs secondary to
A) patient allergy to a drug.
B) mutation of the microbe.
C) enhance pathogenicity of the microbe.
D) using high doses of drugs.
Q2) The most common method of disease transmission is
A) airborne.
B) droplet.
C) vector.
D) inoculant.
Q3) Characteristics of immunization include which of the following?
A) Giving injections of preformed antibodies provides immediate immunity
B) Immunization provides life-long immunity
C) Immunization with killed vaccines may lead to infection from the agent
D) Herd immunity controls disease without immunizing everyone in the population
E) Lack of immunization may lead to an epidemic
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10
Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunity to a specific organism can be determined by A) active phase protein count.
B) antibody titer.
C) erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
D) WBC count.
Q2) The primary function of kinins is
A) phagocytosis of antigens.
B) production of antibodies.
C) to limit immune reactions.
D) vasodilation to enhance inflammation.
Q3) Proteins that are increased in the bloodstream during acute inflammation are called A) membrane attack complexes.
B) selectin receptors.
C) acute phase proteins.
D) major histocompatibility complexes.
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11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary immune deficiency problems may be caused by A) surgery.
B) high blood sugar.
C) corticosteroids.
D) genetic disorders.
E) low protein level.
Q2) The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is A) IgA.
B) IgG.
C) IgM.
D) IgE.
Q3) Anaphylaxis may occur in certain hypersensitivity reactions, including type A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
Q4) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type ____ hypersensitivity reactions.
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 58-year-old woman is seen in the clinic for reports of severe back pain.Her chest X-ray demonstrates generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture.Blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium levels.The most likely diagnosis is A) leukemia.
B) myeloma.
C) Hodgkin disease.
D) back trauma.
Q2) A 5-year-old patient's parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child.The parents also state that the child refuses to walk due to pain.The child's most likely diagnosis is
A) ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)
B) CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)
C) AML (acute myeloid leukemia)
D) CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)
Q3) Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with
A) Epstein-Barr virus.
B) radiation exposure.
C) immunodeficiency syndromes.
D) history of cigarette smoking.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV infection of T-helper cells is facilitated by attachment of the viral envelope protein gp120 to
A) CD8 proteins on suppressor cells.
B) reverse transcriptase.
C) CD4 proteins on helper cells.
D) the macrophage lipid bilayer.
Q2) HIV replicates very quickly from the onset of infection.What is the major site of HIV replication?
A) Vaginal mucosa
B) Anal mucosa
C) GI tract
D) Respiratory tract
Q3) Opportunistic infections are a hallmark of HIV and AIDS.Which infections are considered opportunistic?
A) Acinetobacter
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Candida albicans
D) Pneumocystis carinii
E) Clostridium difficile
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of A) iron.
B) intrinsic factor.
C) folate.
D) erythropoietin.
Q2) The strength of the bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is known as the A) Bohr effect.
B) oxygen-hemoglobin affinity.
C) dissociation curve.
D) hemoglobin synthesis.
Q3) The primary source of erythropoietin is provided by the A) bone marrow.
B) kidney.
C) lung.
D) liver.
Q4) An increase in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen occurs with A) hyperthermia.
B) shift to the right.
C) elevated PCO .
D) shift to the left.
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with a tortuous blood vessel of the right hand that bleeds spontaneously.This patient presents with A) petechiae.
B) purpura.
C) telangiectasia.
D) thrombocytosis.
Q2) Widespread activation of the clotting cascade secondary to massive trauma is called
A) hemophilia B.
B) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
C) Hageman disease.
D) idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.
Q3) A 3-year-old boy who exhibits prolonged bleeding after minor trauma and a prolonged aPTT, but a normal platelet count, is likely to be diagnosed with A) hemophilia.
B) liver dysfunction.
C) disseminated intravascular coagulation.
D) thrombocytopenia.
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as ________ disease.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)________ is a stationary blood clot formed within a vessel or a chamber of the heart.
Q2) Which condition enhances lymphatic flow?
A) Increased tissue hydrostatic pressure
B) Increased colloid osmotic pressure
C) Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
D) Increased capillary oncotic pressure
Q3) Which vessel normally demonstrates the most rapid blood flow?
A) An arteriole
B) A capillary
C) A venule
D) The vena cava
Q4) Risk factors for atherosclerosis include
A) female gender.
B) hyperlipidemia.
C) high-protein diet.
D) low-fiber diet.
Q5) Venules are composed of ________ tissue.
Q6) The relationship between blood flow and resistance is a(n)________ one.
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A middle-aged patient has a follow up visit for a recorded blood pressure of 162/96 mm Hg taken 3 weeks ago.The patient has no significant past medical history and takes no medications, but smokes 1 1/2 packs of cigarettes per day, drinks alcohol regularly, and exercises infrequently.The patient is about 40 lbs.overweight and admits to a high-fat, high-calorie diet.At the office visit today, the patient's blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg.What is the least appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?
A) Begin lifestyle modifications.
B) Begin antihypertensive drug therapy.
C) Recheck blood pressure in 4 to 6 weeks.
D) Encourage smoking cessation.
Q2) The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in
A) non-Hispanic white adults.
B) Mexican-American adults.
C) non-Hispanic black adults.
D) Asian children.
Q3) The ingestion of certain drugs, foods, or chemicals can lead to ____________.
Q4) ________ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration.
Q5) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is ____________.
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which proteins are associated with the thin filament in the cardiac muscle?
A) Actin
B) Titin
C) Nebulin
D) Troponin
E) Myosin
Q2) In lead II of a normal electrocardiogram (ECG), the Q wave is a downward deflection resulting from ________ depolarization.
A) atrial
B) apical
C) lateral wall
D) septal
Q3) Myocardial cells are connected by gap junctions enabling them to
A) all be stimulated simultaneously.
B) function as a coordinated syncytium.
C) be affected by the autonomic nervous system.
D) share ATP.
Q4) A requirement for rhythmicity is that the cell membrane has channels that automatically open during phase ________.
Q5) The R wave is responsible for ________ depolarization.
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of cardiac cells that die after myocardial infarction do so because of A) cell rupture.
B) insufficient glucose. C) thrombus.
D) apoptosis.
Q2) Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone to A) dislodgement.
B) binding.
C) rupture.
D) attachment.
Q3) Patent ductus arteriosus is accurately described as a(n) A) opening between the atria.
B) stricture of the aorta that impedes blood flow.
C) communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery.
D) cyanotic heart defect associated with right-to-left shunt.
Q4) Atherosclerotic plaque formation is due to injury to the ____________.
Q5) __________ is a congenital malformation that results in the formation of one large vessel that receives blood from both the right and left ventricles.
Q6) The cause of Prinzmetal angina is ________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The common denominator in all forms of heart failure is
A) poor diastolic filling.
B) reduced cardiac output.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) tissue ischemia.
Q2) A patient who reports dizziness and who has absent P waves, wide QRS complexes, and a heart rate of 38 beats/min on an ECG is most likely in which rhythm?
A) Third-degree heart block
B) Junctional tachycardia
C) Ventricular escape rhythm
D) Sinus bradycardia
Q3) The majority of tachydysrhythmias are believed to occur because of A) triggered activity.
B) enhanced automaticity.
C) defective gap junctions.
D) reentry mechanisms.
Q4) First-degree block is identified by a prolonged ________.
Q5) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is ____________.
Q2) A patient presenting with fever, hypotension, and lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock?
A) Cardiogenic
B) Septic
C) Anaphylactic
D) Neurogenic
Q3) The effect of nitric oxide on systemic arterioles is
A) vasodilation.
B) vasoconstriction.
C) not significant.
D) opposed by nitrate drugs.
Q4) A patient is diagnosed with cardiogenic shock.The patient is hyperventilating and is therefore at risk for the respiratory complication of ____________.
Q5) _________________ is a serious complication of septic shock characterized by abnormal clot formation in the microvasculature throughout the body.
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22
Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true about lung compliance?
A) Represents lung expandability
B) Decreases in the elderly
C) Can be decreased by obesity, abdominal distention, pregnancy
D) Is decreased in emphysema
E) Is affected by body position
Q2) The peripheral chemoreceptors
A) are located in the medulla oblongata.
B) lead to hypoventilation when stimulated.
C) respond to the arterial oxygen level.
D) are unresponsive to pH and CO levels.
Q3) An increase in filtration of fluid from the pulmonary capillaries into the interstitium occurs with ________ pressure.
A) increased capillary colloid
B) increased capillary hydrostatic
C) decreased capillary hydrostatic
D) decreased interstitial colloid
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) An acute asthma attack is associated with
A) bronchoconstriction.
B) bronchial mucosal edema.
C) hypersecretion of mucus.
D) alveolar collapse.
E) hypoxemia.
Q2) Which assessment would support a diagnosis of type A COPD rather than type B COPD
A) Copious sputum, dyspnea, cor pulmonale
B) Noisy breath sounds, fatigue, high PaO , overweight
C) Normal PaO , scant sputum, accessory muscle use, barrel chest
D) Barrel chest, productive cough, cyanosis, very decreased PaO
Q3) In individuals who have asthma, exposure to an allergen to which they are sensitized leads to which pathophysiological event?
A) Loss of alveolar elastin and premature closure of airways
B) Pulmonary edema and decreased alveolar compliance
C) Mast cell degranulation that causes decreased surfactant
D) Inflammation, mucosal edema, and bronchoconstriction
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorder is caused by inhalation of organic substances?
A) Diffuse interstitial lung disease
B) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
C) Sarcoidosis
D) Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Q2) Which is indicative of a left tension pneumothorax?
A) Course crackles throughout the left chest
B) Tracheal deviation to the left
C) Absent breath sounds on the left
D) Respiratory acidosis
Q3) Empyema is defined as an A) exudative bronchitis.
B) infection in the pleural space.
C) infection localized in the lung.
D) infection in the blood.
Q4) The primary cause of infant respiratory distress syndrome is A) prematurity.
B) lack of surfactant.
C) maternal illegal drug use during pregnancy.
D) umbilical cord compression.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Signs and symptoms of extracellular fluid volume excess include A) tachycardia.
B) increased serum sodium concentration.
C) bounding pulse.
D) increased hematocrit.
Q2) A patient has a positive Chvostek sign.The nurse interprets this as a sign of A) hypercalcemia.
B) hypermagnesemia.
C) decreased neuromuscular excitability.
D) increased neuromuscular excitability.
Q3) Effects of hypernatremia on the central nervous system typically include A) confusion.
B) excitation.
C) insomnia.
D) hallucinations.
Q4) An increase in the resting membrane potential (hyperpolarized)is associated with A) hypokalemia.
B) hyperkalemia.
C) hypocalcemia.
D) hypercalcemia.
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diarrhea causes
A) respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
Q2) Diarrhea and other lower intestinal fluid losses will contribute to
A) metabolic alkalosis.
B) metabolic acidosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) mixed acid-base disorders.
Q3) Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis would result in
A) increased pH, increased HCO <sup>-</sup>-.
B) increased pH, decreased HCO <sup>-</sup>.
C) decreased pH, increased HCO <sup>-</sup>.
D) decreased pH, decreased HCO <sup>-</sup>.
Q4) Early manifestations of a developing metabolic acidosis include A) coma.
B) headache.
C) muscle cramps.
D) short and shallow respirations.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important sign of glomerular basement membrane dysfunction is A) proteinuria.
B) hematuria.
C) glycosuria.
D) urinary casts.
Q2) Which finding on urinalysis should prompt further evaluation?
A) pH 4.5
B) Red blood cells 2 per high-power field
C) Specific gravity of 1.015
D) White blood cells 20 per high-power field
Q3) Serum creatinine may be increased by
A) carbohydrate intake.
B) fat intake.
C) muscle breakdown.
D) fluid intake.
Q4) The glucose transporter in the proximal tubule
A) has no transport maximum.
B) does not depend on sodium reabsorption.
C) is ATP dependent.
D) may be saturated at high filtered glucose loads.
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary risk factors for renal cell carcinoma include
A) genetics.
B) cigarette smoking.
C) obesity.
D) hypertension.
E) nulliparous women.
Q2) A person who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is also experiencing hypoalbuminemia.This happens because
A) hepatocyte failure decreases albumin synthesis.
B) albumin is excreted in the urine.
C) albumin leaks into the interstitial spaces.
D) malnutrition is part of nephrotic syndrome.
Q3) The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is
A) pneumonia.
B) throat infection.
C) endocarditis.
D) urinary tract infection.
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29
Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)is
A) ischemic conditions.
B) cytotoxic agents.
C) immune reaction.
D) prolonged postrenal kidney injury.
Q2) At his most recent clinic visit, a patient with end-stage renal disease is noted to have edema, congestive signs in the pulmonary system, and a pericardial friction rub.Appropriate therapy at this time would include A) initiation of dialysis.
B) fluid restriction.
C) antibiotics.
D) phlebotomy.
Q3) Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes A) potassium supplementation.
B) a high-protein diet.
C) erythropoietin administration.
D) a high-phosphate diet.
Q4) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is ________.
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Q5) ________ is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.
Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urge incontinence is often due to A) aging.
B) bladder infections.
C) obesity.
D) prostate enlargement.
E) diuretics.
Q2) Detrusor muscle overactivity can be improved by administration of A) alpha-receptor agonists.
B) botulinum toxin.
C) cholinergic agents.
D) nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents.
Q3) The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is A) bladder infection.
B) hematuria.
C) sudden incontinence.
D) dysuria.
Q4) Infection can lead to bladder ________ formation.
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main function of the prostate is to A) produce sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid to support sperm.
C) secrete male hormones.
D) provide innervation for erection.
Q2) Characteristics of declining reproductive function in the aged male include A) decline in sperm production.
B) reduced testosterone production.
C) shrinking testes.
D) increased penile sensation.
E) reduction in size of the penis.
Q3) Production of LH occurs in response to serum levels of A) estrogen.
B) prostate-specific antigen.
C) cortisol.
D) testosterone.
Q4) The _________ nervous system mediates the process of ejaculation.
Q5) The thick covering of the ovum is called the ________.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of A) prostatitis.
B) testicular cancer.
C) testicular torsion.
D) epididymitis.
Q2) The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis.The cancer is at what stage?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q3) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the ________ during sexual stimulation.
Q4) The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as
A) hypospadias.
B) urethral fistula.
C) epispadias.
D) priapism.
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 48-year-old female who is having hot flashes, tachycardia, palpitations, and sleep disturbance may be experiencing symptoms related to A) pregnancy.
B) perimenopause.
C) ovulation.
D) endometriosis.
Q2) Which organs are part of the female reproductive tract?
A) Ovaries
B) Uterus
C) Cervix
D) Vagina
E) Urethra
Q3) The heartbeat becomes audible through a stethoscope during which phase of fetal development?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) Parturition
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Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23398
Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that fibrocystic breast disease
A) commonly progresses to breast cancer.
B) may be exacerbated by methylxanthines.
C) is characterized by painless breast lumps.
D) is a contraindication for progesterone birth control pills.
Q2) Which symptom would be manifested in a woman diagnosed with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Excessive vomiting
B) Proteinuria
C) Peripheral edema
D) Increased arterial pressure
E) Hemorrhage
Q3) What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence?
A) Rectocele
B) Menopause
C) Cystocele
D) Cervicitis
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Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first choice of treatment for the management of syphilis is A) penicillin G.
B) doxycycline.
C) antiviral agents.
D) antimicrobial agents.
Q2) Herpes lesions are fluid-filled vesicles that appear __________days after infection.
A) 1 to 2
B) 3 to 7
C) 7 to 10
D) 10 to 14
Q3) The organism most commonly associated with pelvic inflammatory disease is A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) Treponema pallidum.
C) Escherichia coli.
D) Pseudomonas.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Older individuals may experience which change in the mouth?
A) Increase in salivation
B) Increase in taste for salt
C) Increase in the number of papillae
D) Increased exposure of dentin
Q2) The portion of the stomach that controls gastric emptying is the A) fundus.
B) body.
C) antrum.
D) pylorus.
Q3) Which enzyme assists with protein digestion?
A) Amylase
B) Chymotrypsin
C) Lactase
D) Lipase
Q4) Absorption of glucose and amino acids across the intestinal epithelium occurs by A) endocytosis.
B) ATP-driven transporters.
C) sodium-dependent carriers.
D) passive diffusion.
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What finding should prompt further diagnostic testing in a child presenting with diarrhea?
A) Periumbilical discomfort
B) Greenish, watery diarrhea
C) Frequent, large-volume diarrhea
D) Blood and mucus in the stools
Q2) Epigastric pain that is relieved by food is suggestive of A) pancreatitis.
B) cardiac angina.
C) gastric ulcer.
D) dysphagia.
Q3) An early indicator of colon cancer is A) rectal pain.
B) bloody diarrhea.
C) a change in bowel habits.
D) jaundice.
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) More than half of the initial cases of pancreatitis are associated with A) trauma.
B) stones.
C) alcoholism.
D) high cholesterol.
Q2) Chronic cholecystitis can lead to A) biliary sepsis.
B) calcified gallbladder.
C) porcelain gallbladder.
D) cirrhosis.
E) diabetes mellitus.
Q3) Normal bile is composed of A) water, electrolytes, and organic solutes.
B) proteins.
C) bile acids.
D) phospholipids.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Confusion, subtle behavioral changes, no liver flap
A)Grade 1
B)Grade 2
C)Grade 3
D)Grade 4
Q2) A patient being treated for hepatic encephalopathy could be expected to receive a(n)________diet.
A) low-protein and high-fiber
B) high-protein and high-carbohydrate
C) high-sodium
D) unrestricted
Q3) What laboratory data would support a diagnosis of hemochromatosis?
A) Deficient protease inhibitor
B) Elevated ferritin
C) Elevated urine copper
D) Positive antinuclear antibody
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Up-regulation of target cell receptors results in A) decreased target cell sensitivity to hormone.
B) reduced production of hormone.
C) increased target cell responsiveness to hormone.
D) an increased hormone half-life.
Q2) An example of a secondary endocrine disorder is A) pituitary hyposecretion of TSH.
B) adrenal insufficiency following adrenalectomy.
C) congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
D) pheochromocytoma.
Q3) Growth hormone has several effects on the body, including A) decreasing plasma glucose level.
B) increasing lean body mass.
C) enhancing deposition of fat.
D) depressing immune function.
Q4) Oversecretion of ACTH occurs in A) Cushing disease.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) diabetes insipidus.
D) hypoglycemia.
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A laboratory finding that would help confirm the diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism is A) hypernatremia.
B) hyperkalemia.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hyperglycemia.
Q2) A patient reporting vision changes, photophobia, and lid lag may be exhibiting signs of
A) Addison disease.
B) Cushing syndrome.
C) myxedema.
D) Graves disease.
Q3) A thyroid gland that grows larger than normal is known as A) cretinism.
B) myxedema.
C) goiter.
D) colloidosis.
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin binding to its receptor on target cells results in A) increased active transport of glucose into the cell.
B) glycogen breakdown within target cells.
C) increased facilitated cellular diffusion of glucose.
D) gluconeogenesis.
Q2) A clinical finding consistent with a hypoglycemic reaction is A) acetone breath.
B) warm, dry skin.
C) tremors.
D) hyperventilation.
Q3) What indicator is most helpful in evaluating long-term blood glucose management in patients with diabetes mellitus?
A) Blood glucose levels
B) Urine glucose levels
C) Glycosylated hemoglobin levels (HbA c)
D) Clinical manifestations of hyperglycemia
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Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main source of energy for the body comes from A) proteins.
B) fats.
C) carbohydrates.
D) water.
Q2) The metabolic response to fever is
A) anabolic.
B) catabolic.
C) both anabolic and catabolic.
D) related to gluconeogenesis.
Q3) Which hormone promotes protein synthesis?
A) Glucagon
B) Epinephrine
C) Cortisol
D) Testosterone
Q4) Malnutrition affecting the respiratory system can lead to
A) increased respiratory function.
B) increased surfactant release.
C) increased vital capacity.
D) respiratory failure.
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The resting membrane potential in nerve and skeletal muscle is determined primarily by
A) extracellular sodium ion concentration.
B) the ratio of intracellular to extracellular potassium ion.
C) activation of voltage-gated sodium channels.
D) activity of energy-dependent membrane ion pumps.
Q2) Exocytosis of neurotransmitter in response to depolarization of the presynaptic nerve membrane is mediated by
A) neurotransmitter binding to presynaptic carrier proteins.
B) potassium influx through voltage-gated channels.
C) sodium-potassium ATPase.
D) calcium influx through voltage-gated channels.
Q3) It is true that the arachnoid layer of the meninges
A) is thick and tough for support and protection.
B) lies between the dura and the skull.
C) contains spaces that are only evident in the presence of pathologic processes.
D) is semitransparent and weblike.
E) contains collagenous connective tissue.
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important preventative measure for hemorrhagic stroke is A) anticoagulation.
B) blood pressure control.
C) thrombolytics.
D) management of dysrhythmias.
Q2) In the acute phase of stroke, treatment is focused on A) stabilization of respiratory and cardiovascular function.
B) risk factor modification.
C) prevention of bedsores and contractures.
D) neurologic rehabilitation.
Q3) ________ occurs when a brainstem impaired patient exhibits a persistent rhythmic or jerky movement in one or both eyes.
A) Nystagmus
B) Dysconjugate movement
C) Ocular palsy
D) Doll's eye
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary reason that prolonged seizure activity predisposes to ischemic brain damage is that
A) neurons are unable to transport glucose.
B) cardiovascular regulation is impaired.
C) the brainstem is depressed.
D) the lack of airway maintenance can lead to hypoxia.
Q2) Seizures that involve both hemispheres at the outset are termed A) partial.
B) complex.
C) focal.
D) generalized.
Q3) Parkinson disease is associated with A) demyelination of CNS neurons.
B) a pyramidal nerve tract lesion.
C) insufficient production of acetylcholine in the basal ganglia.
D) a deficiency of dopamine in the substantia nigra.
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myopia is due to an error of light refraction in which
A) light rays are scattered as they pass through the cornea.
B) the focal point of an image is behind the retina.
C) far vision is impaired.
D) accommodation is impaired.
Q2) Expected management of acute otitis media includes
A) surgical removal of debris in the middle ear.
B) placement of ventilation tubes in the tympanic membrane.
C) antibiotic therapy.
D) adenoidectomy.
Q3) Opacification of the lens is commonly referred to as A) hyperopia.
B) glaucoma.
C) presbyopia.
D) cataract.
Q4) Ménière disease is characterized by A) bilateral hearing impairment.
B) vertigo in association with hearing loss.
C) middle ear infection.
D) ossification of bones in the middle ear.
48
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most sensory afferent pain fibers enter the spinal cord by way of the ________ nerve roots.
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) C fiber
D) anterolateral
Q2) The gate control theory of pain transmission predicts that activity in touch receptors will
A) enhance perception of pain.
B) decrease pain signal transmission in the spinal cord.
C) activate opioid receptors in the CNS.
D) increase secretion of substance P in the spinal cord.
Q3) Pain that waxes and wanes and is exacerbated by physical exertion is likely related to
A) neuralgia.
B) intermittent claudication.
C) fibromyalgia syndrome.
D) neuropathy.
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The usual age of onset for schizophrenia in men is
A) before puberty.
B) 15 to 25 years.
C) 40 to 65 years.
D) after 65 years.
Q2) A client who reported hearing voices, some of them saying bad and hurtful things, will now eat only food from unopened sealed packages.The behaviors described indicate that the patient may be experiencing a(n)_____ disorder.
A) bipolar
B) obsessive-compulsive
C) personality
D) psychotic
Q3) The action of most antidepressants currently available is to
A) improve brain norepinephrine and serotonin activity.
B) inhibit norepinephrine and serotonin activity.
C) convert into catecholamines in the brain.
D) block D2 receptors in the brain.
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) As many as ____ of children in the United States aged 3 to 17 years are affected by some type of neurodevelopmental disorder.
A) 5%
B) 12%
C) 25%
D) 30%
Q2) Repetitive or ritualistic acts that a person performs with urgency are referred to as A) obsessions.
B) delusions.
C) hallucinations.
D) compulsions.
Q3) PET scans performed on the brains of individuals diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)has shown
A) decreases in glucose metabolism.
B) increases in glucose metabolism.
C) increases in serotonin activity.
D) decreases in serotonin activity.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Troponin is a muscle protein that
A) binds the myosin protein to form cross-bridges.
B) forms the noncontractile Z lines.
C) binds calcium and regulates tropomyosin.
D) hydrolyzes ATP to provide energy for contraction.
Q2) A concentric contraction results in A) muscle shortening.
B) no change in muscle length.
C) muscle lengthening.
D) muscle damage.
Q3) It is true that articular cartilage
A) is comprised of mostly protein.
B) dries out with aging.
C) spreads weight load.
D) needs synovial fluid lubrication.
E) has limited regeneration ability.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paget's disease is characterized by
A) overactivity of osteoblasts leading to multiple bone tumors.
B) excessive bone resorption followed by excessive formation of fragile bone.
C) inflammatory disorder resulting in fusion of spine joints.
D) failure of resorption by osteoclasts resulting in hard bones.
Q2) The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called
A) subluxation.
B) subjugation
C) sublimation.
D) dislocation.
Q3) Healing of a fractured bone with a poor alignment is called A) malunion.
B) nonunion.
C) disunion.
D) delayed union.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function: Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that scleroderma involves
A) inflammation and fibrosis of connective tissue.
B) autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors.
C) infection by beta-hemolytic streptococcus.
D) inflammation due to antigenic fragments of dead organisms.
Q2) Rheumatoid arthritis is commonly associated with the presence of rheumatoid factor autoantibodies in the bloodstream.This indicates that rheumatoid arthritis is likely to be
A) due to bacterial infection.
B) an autoimmune process.
C) an infective process.
D) due to an enzymatic defect.
Q3) The most common presenting sign/symptom with rheumatic fever is
A) cardiac murmur.
B) polyarthritis.
C) rash.
D) painless nodules.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A major difference between a vesicle and a wheal is that vesicles
A) contains fluid, but wheals are edematous tissue.
B) are palpable, but a wheal is not.
C) are larger than wheals.
D) are smaller than wheals.
Q2) Herpes simplex I infection
A) causes both oral and genital infections.
B) begins with a burning or tingling sensation.
C) reactivates with stress, sun exposure, menses.
D) is painless.
E) remains latent in spinal ganglia between outbreaks.
Q3) What is the most common, benign form of skin cancer?
A) Basal
B) Squamous
C) Melanoma
D) Actinic keratosis
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of electrical burns in children are caused by A) playing with electrical outlets.
B) playing with defective electrical cords.
C) biting on extension cords.
D) putting fingers in electrical sockets.
Q2) The third element essential to survival after major burn injury is
A) excision of the burn followed by skin grafting.
B) frequent wound debridement to encourage wound healing.
C) hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
D) continuous topical antibiotic therapy.
Q3) The time between the end of burn shock and closure of the burn to less than 20% of total body surface area is called the ________ phase.
A) postshock
B) rehabilitation
C) critical
D) emergent
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