Advanced Nursing Pharmacology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Advanced Nursing Pharmacology delves into the complex principles of pharmacology as they relate to advanced nursing practice. The course emphasizes the pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and pharmacogenomics of major drug classes, focusing on therapeutic uses, side effects, drug interactions, and contraindications. Students will analyze the mechanisms of drugs used to treat prevalent diseases across the lifespan, integrating evidence-based decision-making and ethical considerations into medication management. This course equips advanced practice nurses with in-depth knowledge to safely and effectively prescribe, monitor, and educate patients about pharmacological therapies.
Recommended Textbook
Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 9th Edition by Burchum
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110 Chapters
1446 Verified Questions
1446 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a desired outcome when a drug is described as easy to administer?
A) It can be stored indefinitely without need for refrigeration.
B) It does not interact significantly with other medications.
C) It enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen.
D) It is usually relatively inexpensive to produce.
Answer: C
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that an analgesic he will begin taking may cause drowsiness and will decrease pain up to 4 hours at a time. Based on this understanding of the drug's effects by the patient,the nurse will anticipate which outcome?
A) Decreased chance of having a placebo effect
B) Decreased motivation to take the drug
C) Improved compliance with the drug regimen
D) Increased likelihood of drug overdose
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative patient reports pain,which the patient rates as an 8 on a scale from 1 to 10 (10 being the most extreme pain). The prescriber has ordered acetaminophen [Tylenol] 650 mg PO every 6 hours PRN pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient what medications have helped with pain in the past.
B) Contact the provider to request a different analgesic medication.
C) Give the pain medication and reposition the patient to promote comfort.
D) Request an order to administer the medication every 4 hours.
Answer: B
Q2) A postoperative patient is being discharged home with acetaminophen/hydrocodone [Lortab] for pain. The patient asks the nurse about using Tylenol for fever. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "It is not safe to take over-the-counter drugs with prescription medications."
B) "Taking the two medications together poses a risk of drug toxicity."
C) "There are no known drug interactions, so this will be safe."
D) "Tylenol and Lortab are different drugs, so there is no risk of overdose."
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Someone asks a nurse about a new drug that is in preclinical testing and wants to know why it cannot be used to treat a friend's illness. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "A drug at this stage of development can be used only in patients with serious disease."
B) "At this stage of drug development, the safety and usefulness of the medication is unknown."
C) "Clinical trials must be completed to make sure the drug is safe to use in humans."
D) "Until postmarketing surveillance data are available, the drug cannot be used."
Answer: B
Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?
A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.
B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.
C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.
D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that the oral drug that has been prescribed has caused a lot of stomach discomfort in the past. What will the nurse ask the prescriber?
A) Whether a sublingual form of the medication can be given
B) Whether the medication can be given by a parenteral route instead
C) Whether an enteric-coated form of the drug is available
D) Whether the patient can receive a sustained-release preparation of the drug
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer penicillin G intramuscularly to a child. The child's parents ask why the drug cannot be given in an oral liquid form. What is the nurse's reply?
A) "This drug causes severe gastric upset if given orally."
B) "This drug has a narrow therapeutic range, and the dose must be tightly controlled."
C) "This drug is absorbed much too quickly in an oral form."
D) "This drug would be inactivated by enzymes in the stomach."
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6
Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse administers naloxone [Narcan] to a patient who has received a toxic dose of morphine sulfate. The nurse understands that the naloxone is effective because of which action?
A) Countering the effects of morphine sulfate by agonist actions
B) Increasing the excretion of morphine sulfate by altering serum pH
C) Preventing activation of opioid receptors through antagonist actions
D) Regulating the sensitivity of opioid receptors by neurochemical alterations
Q2) Which drugs will not be affected by interpatient variability? (Select all that apply.)
A) Antiseptics applied to the skin to slow bacterial growth
B) Antacids to help with the discomfort of heartburn
C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics that are effective against many organisms
D) Chelating agents that remove metal compounds from the body
E) Topical analgesics used to treat localized pain
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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about food and drug interactions is true?
A) Foods alter drug absorption and metabolism but not drug action.
B) Medications are best absorbed on an empty stomach.
C) Patient discomfort is the food and drug interaction of most concern.
D) Some foods can inhibit CYP isoenzymes and alter drug metabolism.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient about a prescription for a monoamine oxidase (MAO)inhibitor for depression. What will the nurse teach the patient to avoid while taking this drug?
A) Alcoholic beverages
B) Aged cheeses
C) Brussels sprouts and cabbage
D) Grapefruit juice
Q3) A patient taking oral contraceptives thinks she may be pregnant. As part of this patient's history,what will the nurse ask the patient?
A) "Do you drink grapefruit juice?"
B) "Do you take seizure medication?"
C) "Do you take your contraception with milk?"
D) "Do you use laxatives regularly?"
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8
Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is given a new medication and reports nausea within an hour after taking the drug. The nurse consults the drug information manual and learns that nausea is not an expected adverse effect of this drug. When the next dose is due,what will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug and tell the patient to report further nausea.
B) Hold the drug and notify the provider of the patient's symptoms.
C) Report the symptoms of nausea to the MEDWATCH program.
D) Request an order for an antiemetic to counter this drug's effects.
Q2) Which actions occur in 90% of fatal medication errors? (Select all that apply.)
A) Confusing drugs with similar packaging
B) Giving a drug intravenously instead of intramuscularly
C) Giving Nasarel instead of Nizoral
D) Using an infusion device that malfunctions
E) Writing a prescription illegibly
Q3) A nurse is reviewing a medication administration record before administering medications. Which order will the nurse implement?
A) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg QD PO
B) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg qd PO
C) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg daily
D) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg PO daily
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Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)recommends genetic testing of patients receiving certain medications. Genetic testing helps prescribers:
A) better establish a drug's therapeutic index.
B) determine whether a patient is a rapid or slow metabolizer of the drug.
C) identify racial characteristics that affect psychosocial variation in drug response.
D) produce a drug that is tailored to an individual patient's genetic makeup.
Q2) A postoperative patient who is worried about pain control will be discharged several days after surgery. The nurse providing discharge teaching tells the patient that the prescribed Lortab is not as strong as the morphine the patient was given in the immediate postoperative period. Which response is the patient likely to experience?
A) A decreased likelihood of filling the prescription for the drug
B) A negative placebo effect when taking the medication
C) An increased compliance with the drug regimen
D) Optimistic, realistic expectations about the drug
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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has just learned she is pregnant has stopped using a prescription medication that she takes for asthma because she doesn't want to harm her baby. What will the nurse tell her?
A) That asthma medications will not affect the fetus
B) That her baby's health is dependent on hers
C) To avoid taking medications during her pregnancy
D) To resume the medication in her second trimester
Q2) A pregnant patient in active labor is admitted to the emergency department. A toxicology screen and a physical assessment reveal that the patient is an active heroin addict. The nurse who cares for the neonate after delivery should anticipate which clinical manifestations?
A) Passivity and flat affect
B) Diarrhea and salivation
C) A shrill cry and irritability
D) Restless sleep and seizures
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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parents of a child with asthma ask the nurse why their child cannot use oral corticosteroids more often,because they are so effective. The nurse will offer which information that is true for children?
A) Chronic steroid use can inhibit growth.
B) Frequent use of this drug may lead to a decreased response.
C) A hypersensitivity reaction to this drug may occur.
D) Systemic steroids are more toxic in children.
Q2) A nurse caring for a 5-year-old child notes that the child has discoloration of several teeth. When taking a medication history,the nurse will ask about which group of medications?
A) Glucocorticoids
B) Salicylates
C) Sulfonamides
D) Tetracyclines
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Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is making a home visit to an older adult woman who was recently discharged home from the hospital with a new prescription. The nurse notes that a serum drug level drawn the day before was subtherapeutic. What will the nurse do next?
A) Ask the patient if she has difficulty swallowing pills.
B) Count the pills in the prescription bottle.
C) Notify the provider to request more frequent dosing.
D) Request an order for renal function tests.
Q2) A thin older adult woman is admitted to the hospital after several days of vomiting,diarrhea,and poor intake of foods and fluids. She has not voided since admission. In preparing to care for this patient,the nurse will look for what laboratory values to help guide medication administration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Creatinine clearance
B) Gastric pH
C) Plasma drug levels
D) Serum albumin
E) Serum creatinine
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Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse learns about a drug that interferes with transmitter storage in the PNS. The transmitter affected by this drug causes an increased heart rate. What response will the nurse expect to see when this drug is administered?
A) Bradycardia
B) Positive inotropic effects
C) Prolonged receptor activation
D) Tachycardia
Q2) A patient receiving botulinum toxin injections to control muscle spasticity asks how the drug works. The nurse knows that this drug affects the transmitter acetylcholine by:
A) inhibiting its release.
B) interfering with its storage.
C) preventing its reuptake.
D) promoting its synthesis.
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14
Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient is in premature labor. Which class of drug will she be given?
A) Alpha<sub>1</sub> agonist
B) Anticholinergic
C) Beta<sub>2</sub> agonist
D) Beta<sub>2</sub> antagonist
Q2) Many medications list side effects that include dry mouth,constipation,and urinary retention. What kinds of effects are these?
A) Alpha adrenergic
B) Anticholinergic
C) Beta adrenergic
D) Sympathetic
Q3) A nurse is teaching a patient about a medication that alters sympathetic nervous system functions. To evaluate understanding,the nurse asks the patient to describe which functions the sympathetic nervous system regulates. Which answer indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "The digestive functions of the body"
B) "The cardiovascular system"
C) "The fight-or-flight response"
D) "Body temperature"
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receives topical atropine to facilitate an eye examination. The nurse will tell the patient to remain in a darkened room or to wear sunglasses for several hours until the effects of the medication wear off. This teaching is based on the nurse's knowledge that muscarinic antagonists cause:
A) elevation of intraocular pressure.
B) miosis and ciliary muscle contraction.
C) paralysis of the iris sphincter.
D) relaxation of ciliary muscles.
Q2) A patient who has esophageal cancer is experiencing dry mouth and the provider orders oral pilocarpine to treat this symptom. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient about this medication?
A) "This medication may cause rapid heart rate and elevated blood pressure."
B) "This medication may cause constipation and gastric discomfort in large doses."
C) "You should experience sweating with this medication and should not have other side effects."
D) "You will begin taking 5 mg three times daily and may increase the dose to 10 mg."
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16
Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in
Myasthenia Gravis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Diazepam is given to reverse inhibition of cholinesterase when overdose occurs."
B) "Irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors are rapidly absorbed by all routes."
C) "These agents are often used to treat glaucoma."
D) "Toxic doses of these agents produce an anticholinergic crisis."
Q2) A patient with myasthenia gravis who is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor is being admitted to the intensive care unit and is on mechanical ventilation. The prescriber has ordered a challenge dose of edrophonium to distinguish between a myasthenic crisis and a medication overdose. The nurse will expect to do what?
A) Administer neostigmine if muscle strength decreases.
B) Be prepared to administer atropine and oxygen if muscle weakness increases.
C) Give a second dose of edrophonium if no improvement is seen.
D) Give pralidoxime [Protopam] if cholinergic symptoms worsen.
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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic
Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who will undergo electroconvulsive therapy to treat severe depression will be given succinylcholine just prior to the procedure. When teaching the patient about the procedure the nurse will explain that the succinylcholine is given for what purpose?
A) To minimize the amount of electroshock treatment required
B) To prevent harm caused by electroshock-induced convulsions
C) To prolong the therapeutic electroshock-induced convulsions
D) To stop the electroshock-induced convulsions once therapeutic effects have occurred
Q2) A patient receives a neuromuscular blocking agent before a procedure. The patient's eyes close. The nurse knows this is a sign that the patient:
A) has fallen asleep.
B) has received a toxic dose of the medication.
C) is beginning to feel the drug's effects.
D) may need mechanical ventilation.
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Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because they cause vasoconstriction,alpha<sub>1</sub>-adrenergic agonists are especially useful for:
A) causing hemostasis in skin and mucous membranes.
B) producing mydriasis to facilitate ophthalmic examinations.
C) slowing the heart rate in tachycardic patients.
D) treating hypotension.
Q2) A patient brought to the emergency department requires sutures. The prescriber orders a local anesthetic with epinephrine. The nurse understands that epinephrine is ordered to:
A) prevent hypertension induced by the anesthetic.
B) allow a reduced dose of the anesthetic.
C) reduce anesthetic-induced nausea.
D) reduce the pain of an injection.
Q3) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about the two classes of adrenergic agonist drugs. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Catecholamines may be given orally."
B) "Catecholamines often require continuous infusion to be effective."
C) "Noncatecholamines do not cross the blood-brain barrier."
D) "Noncatecholamines undergo rapid degradation by monoamine oxidase."
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male patient is being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia and has stopped taking his alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication because of ejaculatory difficulties. Which medication does the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?
A) Alfuzosin [Uroxatral]
B) Prazosin [Minipress]
C) Silodosin [Rapaflo]
D) Tamsulosin [Flomax]
Q2) The nurse assesses a patient who has been given phentolamine [OraVerse] to treat pheochromocytoma. The nurse notes a blood pressure of 76/52 mm Hg and a heart rate of 90 beats per minute. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Contact the provider to request an order for epinephrine.
B) Continue to monitor the patient's vital signs and notify the provider if the heart rate increases.
C) Notify the provider and request an order for a beta blocker.
D) Notify the provider and request an order for norepinephrine.
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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient complains to the nurse that the clonidine [Catapres] recently prescribed for hypertension is causing drowsiness. Which response by the nurse to this concern is appropriate?
A) "Drowsiness is a common side effect initially, but it will lessen with time."
B) "You may also experience orthostatic hypotension along with the drowsiness."
C) "You may be at risk for addiction if you have central nervous system side effects."
D) "You should discontinue the medication and contact your prescriber."
Q2) A prescriber has ordered clonidine [Catapres] for a patient who has hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about side effects of this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should chew sugar-free gum or drink water to reduce dry mouth."
B) "I should not drive as long as I am taking this drug."
C) "I should stand up slowly when taking this medication."
D) "I should stop taking this drug if I feel anxious or depressed."
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant who receives a drug that does not produce CNS side effects in adults exhibits drowsiness and sedation. The nurse understands that this is because of differences in which physiologic system in infants and adults?
A) Blood-brain barrier
B) First-pass effect
C) Gastrointestinal absorption
D) Renal filtration
Q2) A patient asks a nurse to explain what drug tolerance means. The nurse responds by telling the patient that when tolerance occurs,it means the patient:
A) has developed a psychologic dependence on the drug.
B) may need increased amounts of the drug over time.
C) will cause an abstinence syndrome if the drug is discontinued abruptly.
D) will have increased sensitivity to drug side effects.
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22
Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinsons Disease
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa [Dopar]. The patient asks the nurse about drugs to prevent disease progression. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "Levodopa may prevent disease progression in higher doses and is safe to use for this purpose."
B) "MAO-B inhibitors and dopamine agonists have both shown neuroprotective effects in human studies."
C) "Vitamin E has been shown to delay neuron degeneration and may be used as adjunctive therapy."
D) "While some drugs show promise, there are no studies that have proven a neuroprotective effect."
Q2) A nurse is discussing motor symptoms with a patient with Parkinson's disease who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] for 9 months and who is now having regular tics. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this symptom?
A) "I may need to try a lower dose of Sinemet to reduce my tics."
B) "My provider may order clozapine to treat these tics."
C) "These tics are an indication that my dose of Sinemet is too low."
D) "This means I will have to have surgery to stop the symptoms."
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Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to the hospital. The patient's spouse reports that the patient is often confused and gets lost walking to the store,which is three blocks from their home. That evening,the nurse observes the patient pacing the hall and screaming. What will the nurse do?
A) Notify the provider of this patient's worsening symptoms.
B) Prepare the patient's spouse for impending death from Alzheimer's disease.
C) Request an increase in the medication dose to treat the exacerbation in symptoms.
D) Tell the spouse that this is an expected progression of the disease.
Q2) A patient is worried about the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease,because both parents had the disease. The nurse will tell this patient that known risk factors include what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Advanced age
B) Alcoholism
C) Family history
D) Gender
E) Obesity
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Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with multiple sclerosis is to begin treatment with interferon beta. The patient comes to the clinic to have pretreatment laboratory tests. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about these tests?
A) "After the first year of treatment, I will need once yearly blood work."
B) "I will need to have lab tests done every 3 months for the first year."
C) "If my liver function tests are abnormal, I will need to stop using this drug."
D) "These lab tests will measure liver and bone marrow function."
Q2) Which drugs may be selected by the provider for initial treatment for a patient who is diagnosed with relapsing-remitting MS? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dimethyl fumarate [Tecfidera] PO
B) Interferon beta 1a [Avonex] IM
C) Mitoxantrone [Novantrone] IV
D) Methotrexate [Rheumatrex] PO
E) Teriflunomide [Aubagio] PO
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Chapter 24: Drugs for Epilepsy
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has been taking an antiepileptic drug for several weeks. The nurse asks the patient if the therapy is effective. The patient reports little change in seizure frequency. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient to complete a seizure frequency chart for the past few weeks.
B) Contact the provider to request an order for serum drug levels.
C) Reinforce the need to take the medications as prescribed.
D) Request an order to increase the dose of the antiepileptic drug.
Q2) A patient who has been taking phenobarbital for epilepsy begins taking valproic acid [Depakote] as adjunct therapy. The nurse notes that the patient is very drowsy. What will the nurse do?
A) Explain to the patient that tolerance to sedation eventually will develop.
B) Notify the prescriber, and request an order to reduce the dose of phenobarbital.
C) Notify the prescriber of the need to increase the dose of valproic acid.
D) Request an order for liver function tests to monitor for hepatotoxicity.
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26
Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cerebral palsy has severe muscle spasticity and muscle weakness. The patient is unable to take anything by mouth. The nurse is correct to anticipate that which medication will be ordered for home therapy?
A) Baclofen [Lioresal]
B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]
C) Diazepam [Valium]
D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]
Q2) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?
A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury
B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia
C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis
D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy
Q3) A nurse is caring for a patient receiving intrathecal baclofen [Lioresal]. The patient is unresponsive. After asking a coworker to contact the provider,the nurse anticipates performing which intervention?
A) Preparing to support respirations
B) Administering an antidote to baclofen
C) Administering diazepam to prevent seizures
D) Obtaining an electrocardiogram
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing a patient to go home from the emergency department after receiving sutures for a laceration on one hand. The provider used lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic. Which symptom in this patient causes the most concern?
A) Difficulty moving the fingers of the affected hand
B) Inability to feel pressure at the suture site
C) Nervousness and tachycardia
D) Sensation of pain returning to the wound
Q2) A nurse is assisting the physician during a procedure in which a local anesthetic is administered. Within a few minutes of administration of the anesthetic,the patient has a pulse of 54 beats per minute,respirations of 18 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 90/42 mm Hg. The nurse should monitor the patient for further signs of:
A) heart block.
B) anaphylaxis.
C) central nervous system excitation.
D) respiratory depression.
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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse administers atropine to a patient before induction of anesthesia for a surgical procedure. When evaluating the effects of this medication,the nurse will:
A) assess for excessive bronchial secretions.
B) expect a reduction in the patient's anxiety.
C) monitor the patient's heart rate.
D) observe for muscle paralysis.
Q2) A patient receives a neuromuscular blocking agent as an adjunct to inhalation anesthesia. When caring for this patient,it is important for the nurse to remember that neuromuscular blocking agents:
A) cause vagal slowing of the heart.
B) increase the required dose of inhalation anesthetics.
C) increase the depth of unconsciousness.
D) prevent contraction of the diaphragm.
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29
Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8421
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman in labor receives meperidine [Demerol] for pain. The nurse caring for the infant will observe the infant closely for:
A) congenital anomalies.
B) excessive crying and sneezing.
C) respiratory depression.
D) tremors and hyperreflexia.
Q2) Which side effects of opioid analgesics can have therapeutic benefits? (Select all that apply.)
A) Biliary colic
B) Cough suppression
C) Suppression of bowel motility
D) Urinary retention
E) Vasodilation
Q3) A patient will receive buprenorphine [Butrans] as a transdermal patch for pain. What is important to teach this patient about the use of this drug?
A) Avoid prolonged exposure to the sun.
B) Cleanse the site with soap or alcohol.
C) Remove the patch daily at bedtime.
D) Remove hair by shaving before applying the patch.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients with Cancer
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8422
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient newly diagnosed with cancer reports having pain at a level of 7 to 8 on a scale of 10. Which type of pain management will be used initially to treat pain in this patient?
A) Acetaminophen [Tylenol]
B) Ibuprofen [Motrin]
C) Nonpharmacologic measures
D) Opioid analgesics
Q2) A patient is taking hydrocodone and ibuprofen for cancer pain and is admitted to the hospital for chemotherapy. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will ____ ibuprofen.
A) reduce the dose of B) discontinue the C) increase the dose of D) order aspirin (ASA) instead of
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8423
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has migraine headaches is prescribed sumatriptan [Imitrex] 5 mg unit-dose nasal spray. The patient has administered two sprays at 1400,1600,and 1800 and calls to report little relief from headache pain. What will the nurse instruct the patient to do?
A) Administer 2 sprays at 2000 and call the provider if no relief.
B) Continue using 2 sprays every 2 hours as needed to relieve discomfort.
C) Contact the provider to ask about using an ergot alkaloid medication.
D) Use 3 sprays at the next dose to increase the dose.
Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of numbness in the extremities. The nurse notes that the patient's hands and feet are cool and pale. When conducting a health history,the nurse learns that the patient has a history of migraine headaches. The nurse recognizes this patient's symptoms as:
A) ergotamine withdrawal.
B) ergotism.
C) severe migraine symptoms.
D) sumatriptan side effects.
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32
Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8424
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in whom drug therapy has failed several times in the past is readmitted to a hospital to begin therapy for schizophrenia. What will the nurse do to help improve adherence?
A) Encourage the patient to take responsibility for medication management.
B) Teach the patient about drug side effects and how to manage them.
C) Tell the patient that an abstinence syndrome will occur if the drug is stopped.
D) Tell the patient that the drug may be taken as needed to control symptoms.
Q2) A patient with schizophrenia has been taking an antipsychotic drug for several days. The nurse enters the patient's room to administer a dose of haloperidol [Haldol] and finds the patient having facial spasms. The patient's head is thrust back,and the patient is unable to speak. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the haloperidol as ordered.
B) Discuss increasing the haloperidol dose with the provider.
C) Request an order to give diphenhydramine.
D) Request an order to give levodopa.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Antidepressants
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8425
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking an MAOI is seen in the clinic with a blood pressure of 170/96 mm Hg. What will the nurse ask this patient?
A) Whether any antihypertensive medications are used
B) Whether the patient drinks grapefruit juice
C) To list all foods eaten that day
D) Whether SSRIs are taken in addition to the MAOI
Q2) A patient whose spouse has died recently reports feeling down most of each day for the past 2 months. On further questioning,the nurse learns that the patient has quit participating in church and social activities,has difficulty falling asleep,and has lost 5 pounds. The patient reports feeling tired and confused all the time but does not have suicidal thoughts. What does the nurse suspect?
A) Grief and sadness
B) Hypomania
C) Major depression
D) Situational depression
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Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8426
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder who wants to minimize the need for drug therapy asks the nurse what else can be done to treat the disorder. The nurse will recommend which measures? (Select all that apply.)
A) Electroconvulsive therapy
B) Moderate use of alcohol to reduce stress
C) Psychotherapy
D) Regular sleep and exercise
E) Using a chart to monitor mood changes
Q2) A patient recently was diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The patient,who has a history of seasonal allergies,is an athlete who participates in track. The nurse is teaching the patient about lithium [Lithobid],which the prescriber has just ordered. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "I can continue to use ibuprofen as needed for muscle pain."
B) "I should drink extra fluids before and during exercise."
C) "I should not use antihistamines while taking lithium."
D) "I should report muscle weakness and tremors to my provider."
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Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8427
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of depression and suicidal ideation is taking fluoxetine [Prozac]. The patient reports difficulty maintaining sleep and is prescribed secobarbital [Seconal] as a sedative-hypnotic. The nurse preparing this patient for discharge from the hospital will:
A) contact the provider to suggest an order for ramelteon [Rozerem].
B) instruct the patient to use alcohol in moderation.
C) request an order to change to trazodone [Desyrel] for sleep.
D) suggest that the patient try alternative remedies for sleep.
Q2) A patient who travels frequently for business reports occasional instances of being unable to fall asleep. The patient tells the nurse that job demands require staying up late and then getting up early for meetings. The nurse expects that the provider will prescribe which medication for this patient?
A) Flurazepam
B) Trazodone [Desyrel]
C) Zaleplon [Sonata]
D) Zolpidem [Ambien]
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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8428
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing a patient who will stop taking lorazepam [Ativan] for anxiety and begin taking buspirone [Buspar]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I can drink alcohol when taking Buspar, but not grapefruit juice."
B) "I may need to use a sedative medication if I experience insomnia."
C) "I may not feel the effects of Buspar for a few weeks."
D) "I should stop taking the Ativan when I start taking the Buspar."
Q2) An agitated,extremely anxious patient is brought to the emergency department. The prescriber orders a benzodiazepine. The nurse understands that benzodiazepines are used in this clinical situation based on which principle?
A) Benzodiazepines have a very short half-life.
B) Physical dependence is not a risk when taking benzodiazepines.
C) Benzodiazepines are known to cure generalized anxiety.
D) Benzodiazepines have a rapid onset of action.
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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and
Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8429
Sample Questions
Q1) An adult patient will begin taking atomoxetine [Strattera] for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) Appetite suppression does not occur, because this drug is not a stimulant.
B) Stopping the drug abruptly will cause an abstinence syndrome.
C) Suicidal thoughts may occur and should be reported to the provider.
D) Therapeutic effects may not be felt for 1 to 3 weeks after beginning therapy.
Q2) A nurse working the night shift begins taking modafinil [Alertec]. The nurse is telling a coworker about the medication. Which statement is correct?
A) "I can take it during pregnancy."
B) "It doesn't have cardiovascular side effects."
C) "It is safe and has no serious adverse effects."
D) "It will not interfere with my normal sleep."
Q3) A patient who is morbidly obese is admitted for treatment. The prescriber orders lisdexamfetamine [Vyvanse]. The nurse will be concerned if this patient shows signs of:
A) anorexia.
B) dyspnea.
C) insomnia.
D) loquaciousness.
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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8430
Sample Questions
Q1) A psychiatric nurse is caring for a drug-addicted patient. The nurse knows that the ideal goal of drug rehabilitation for this patient is:
A) abstinence from the drug.
B) decreasing episodes of relapse.
C) minimizing drug cravings.
D) reduction of drug use.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a class on addiction. Which statement by one of the class participants indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Addictive drugs lead to dopamine release in amounts similar to those released by normal reward circuits."
B) "Neural remodeling leads to decreased dopamine release, leaving users with feelings of lifelessness and depression."
C) "Over time, the brain will develop reduced responses to many addictive drugs."
D) "With the use of a drug over time, the brain undergoes synaptic remodeling."
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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8431
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has undergone treatment for alcoholism several times,with relapse occurring shortly after each treatment,has just completed detoxification. The patient requests a medication to help maintain abstinence. Which drug will the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?
A) Acamprosate [Campral]
B) Chlordiazepoxide [Librium]
C) Disulfiram [Antabuse]
D) Naltrexone [ReVia]
Q2) A nurse is discussing alcohol abuse with a group of nursing students. One student asks whether alcohol consumption has any beneficial effects. The nurse replies that,in moderate amounts,alcohol:
A) helps people to sleep well.
B) improves sexual responsiveness.
C) may protect against dementia.
D) prevents hypothermia.
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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8432
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who wants to quit smoking has a prescription for varenicline [Chantix],which will be used with a nicotine patch. The patient asks the nurse why the varenicline is necessary. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "It helps patients experiencing withdrawal to sleep better."
B) "It helps reduce anxiety and other withdrawal symptoms."
C) "It will help reduce the likelihood of addiction to the patch."
D) "The drug blocks nicotine's access to 'pleasure' receptors."
Q2) The spouse of a patient who smokes wonders why anyone would want to engage in "such a disgusting habit." What will the nurse tell the spouse?
A) Nicotine causes relaxation and helps with sleep.
B) Nicotine increases alertness and promotes dopamine release.
C) Nicotine lowers blood pressure.
D) Nicotine settles the stomach and reduces nausea and vomiting.
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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other
Than Alcohol and Nicotine
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8433
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who is addicted to barbiturates and who will begin receiving phenobarbital. The nurse discusses the care of this patient with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Phenobarbital acts as an antagonist to barbiturates and prevents toxicity."
B) "Phenobarbital has a long half-life and can be tapered gradually to minimize abstinence symptoms."
C) "Phenobarbital can be administered on an as-needed basis to treat withdrawal symptoms."
D) "Phenobarbital prevents respiratory depression associated with barbiturate withdrawal."
Q2) A pregnant patient reports using marijuana during her pregnancy. She asks the nurse whether this will affect the fetus. What should the nurse tell her?
A) Children born to patients who use marijuana will have smaller brains.
B) Neonates born to patients who use marijuana will have withdrawal syndromes.
C) Preschool-aged children born to patients who use marijuana are more likely to be hyperactive.
D) School-aged children born to patients who use marijuana often have difficulty with memory.
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Chapter 41: Diuretics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8434
Sample Questions
Q1) Besides having diuretic effects for patients with congestive heart failure,thiazides are also used to treat what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Hepatic failure
C) Increased intracranial pressure
D) Intraocular pressure
E) Postmenopausal osteoporosis
Q2) A patient is taking gentamicin [Garamycin] and furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse should counsel this patient to report which symptom?
A) Frequent nocturia
B) Headaches
C) Ringing in the ears
D) Urinary retention
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Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8435
Sample Questions
Q1) Which order for potassium (KCl)would the nurse question? (Select all that apply.)
A) \( D_{5} 1 / 2 \) NS with 20 mEq KCl to start after patient voids
B) \( D_{5} 1 / 2 \) NS with 60 mEq KCl for a patient with a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
C) K-Dur, 1 tablet daily for a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis
D) K-Dur, 1 tablet with a full glass of water
E) Potassium chloride, 10 mEq rapid IV push
Q2) A patient with congestive heart failure is admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment,the nurse learns that the patient is taking a thiazide diuretic. The nurse notes that the admission electrolyte levels include a sodium level of 142 mEq/L,a chloride level of 95 mEq/L,and a potassium level of 3 mEq/L. The prescriber has ordered digoxin to be given immediately. What will the nurse do initially?
A) Give the digoxin and maintain close cardiac monitoring.
B) Hold the digoxin and report the laboratory values to the provider.
C) Hold the thiazide diuretic and give the digoxin.
D) Request an order for an electrocardiogram (ECG).
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Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8436
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is assessing a patient who has heart failure. The patient complains of shortness of breath,and the nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. The nurse understands that these symptoms are the result of:
A) decreased force of ventricular contraction.
B) increased force of ventricular contraction.
C) decreased ventricular filling.
D) increased ventricular filling.
Q2) A patient with hypertension is admitted to the hospital. On admission the patient's heart rate is 72 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 140/95 mm Hg. After administering an antihypertensive medication,the nurse notes a heart rate of 85 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg. What does the nurse expect to occur?
A) A decrease in the heart rate back to baseline in 1 to 2 days
B) An increase in the blood pressure within a few days
C) An increase in potassium retention in 1 to 2 days
D) A decrease in fluid retention within a week
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Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8437
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who stops taking an ACE inhibitor because of its side effects will begin taking an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)medication. Which side effect of ACE inhibitors will not occur with an ARB medication?
A) Angioedema
B) Cough
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Renal failure
Q2) A provider has ordered captopril [Capoten] for a patient who has hypertension. The patient reports a history of swelling of the tongue and lips after taking enalapril [Vasotec] in the past. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Administer the captopril and monitor for adverse effects.
B) Hold the dose and notify the provider.
C) Request an order to administer fosinopril instead of captopril.
D) Reassure the patient that this is not a serious side effect.
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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers
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7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia],along with metoprolol,to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to:
A) reduce flushing.
B) minimize gingival hyperplasia.
C) prevent constipation.
D) prevent reflex tachycardia.
Q2) Which are therapeutic uses for verapamil? (Select all that apply.)
A) Angina of effort
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Essential hypertension
D) Sick sinus syndrome
E) Suppression of preterm labor
Q3) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension about the drug's side effects. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may become constipated, so I should increase fluids and fiber."
B) "I may experience a rapid heart rate as a result of taking this drug."
C) "I may have swelling of my hands and feet, but this will subside."
D) "I may need to increase my digoxin dose while taking this drug."
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Vasodilators
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse why a patient in hypertensive crisis is receiving both intravenous sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] and oral hydralazine. The nurse will explain that this is done to prevent:
A) cyanide poisoning.
B) fluid retention.
C) rebound hypertension.
D) reflex tachycardia.
Q2) A nurse is reviewing the phenomenon of reflex tachycardia with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this phenomenon?
A) "Baroreceptors in the aortic arch stimulate the heart to beat faster."
B) "Reflex tachycardia can negate the desired effects of vasodilators."
C) "Reflex tachycardia is more likely to occur when beta blockers are given."
D) "Venous dilation must occur for reflex tachycardia to occur."
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Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension
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19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8440
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking chlorthalidone to treat hypertension. The patient's prescriber has just ordered the addition of spironolactone to the patient's drug regimen. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should continue following the DASH diet when adding this drug."
B) "I should not take an ACE inhibitor when adding this drug."
C) "I will need to take potassium supplements when adding this drug."
D) "I will not experience a significant increase in diuresis when adding this drug."
Q2) A nurse has provided education for a patient newly diagnosed with hypertension who is just beginning therapy with antihypertensive medications. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may experience serious long-term problems even if I am not having symptoms."
B) "I should report side effects to the provider since other drugs may be substituted."
C) "I will need to take medications on a long-term basis."
D) "When my symptoms subside, I may discontinue the medications."
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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure
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20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8441
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin. The nurse finds a new laboratory report showing a plasma digoxin level of 0.7 ng/mL. What action should the nurse take?
A) Withhold the drug for an hour and reassess the level.
B) Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber immediately.
C) Administer Digibind to counteract the toxicity.
D) Check the patient's apical pulse, and if it is within a safe range, administer the digoxin.
Q2) A patient with chronic hypertension is admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment,the nurse notes a heart rate of 96 beats per minute,a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg,bibasilar crackles,2+ pitting edema of the ankles,and distension of the jugular veins. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which medication?
A) ACE inhibitor
B) Digoxin [Lanoxin]
C) Furosemide [Lasix]
D) Spironolactone [Aldactone]
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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching for a patient who will begin taking procainamide [Procanbid] for long-term suppression of a dysrhythmia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I need to take this drug at evenly spaced intervals around the clock."
B) "I may have increased bruising, but this is a temporary side effect."
C) "I should report pain and swelling in my joints when taking this drug."
D) "I will need to have blood tests at regular intervals while taking this drug."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who is about to undergo direct-current (DC)cardioversion to treat atrial flutter. The patient has been taking verapamil and warfarin for 6 months. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may need long-term therapy with another cardiac medication after the procedure."
B) "I should stop taking warfarin a few days before the procedure."
C) "I will need to take a beta blocker after the procedure to prevent recurrence of atrial flutter."
D) "I will not have to take antidysrhythmia medications after the procedure."
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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular
Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An Asian patient will begin taking rosuvastatin [Crestor] to treat hypercholesterolemia. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication?
A) Higher than usual doses may be necessary for this patient.
B) Renal toxicity is a common adverse effect among Asian patients.
C) Serum drug levels must be monitored more frequently than with other patients.
D) Yellow skin and sclera are more common side effects with Asian patients but are not concerning.
Q2) A nurse is providing patient education about colesevelam [Welchol],a bile acid sequestrant. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?
A) "Colesevelam will reduce my levels of low-density lipoprotein."
B) "Colesevelam will augment my statin drug therapy."
C) "I will not have to worry about having as many drug interactions as I did when I took cholestyramine."
D) "I will need to take supplements of fat-soluble vitamins."
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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8444
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has begun using transdermal nitroglycerin for angina reports occasional periods of tachycardia. The nurse will expect the prescriber to order:
A) digoxin [Lanoxin] to slow the heart rate.
B) immediate discontinuation of the nitroglycerin.
C) periods of rest when the heart rate increases.
D) verapamil as an adjunct to nitroglycerin therapy.
Q2) A patient with new-onset exertional angina has taken three nitroglycerin sublingual tablets at 5-minute intervals,but the pain has intensified. The nurse notes that the patient has a heart rate of 76 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg. The electrocardiogram is normal. The patient's lips and nail beds are pink,and there is no respiratory distress. The nurse will anticipate providing:
A) an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.
B) intravenous nitroglycerin and a beta blocker.
C) ranolazine (Ranexa) and quinidine.
D) supplemental oxygen and intravenous morphine.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been receiving heparin while in the hospital to treat deep vein thromboses and will be discharged home with a prescription for enoxaparin [Lovenox]. The nurse provides teaching for the nursing student who asks about the advantages of enoxaparin over heparin. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Enoxaparin does not require coagulation monitoring."
B) "Enoxaparin has greater bioavailability than heparin."
C) "Enoxaparin is more cost-effective than heparin."
D) "Enoxaparin may be given using a fixed dosage."
Q2) A patient who is taking warfarin [Coumadin] has just vomited blood. The nurse notifies the provider,who orders lab work revealing a PT of 42 seconds and an INR of 3.5. The nurse will expect to administer:
A) phytonadione (vitamin K1) 1 mg IV over 1 hour.
B) phytonadione (vitamin K1) 2.5 mg PO.
C) protamine sulfate 20 mg PO.
D) protamine sulfate 20 mg slow IV push.
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Chapter 53: Management of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8446
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has undergone a PCI,and the provider orders clopidogrel to be given for 12 months,along with an ACE inhibitor and heparin. What will the nurse do?
A) Question the need for heparin.
B) Request an order for a beta blocker.
C) Request an order for aspirin.
D) Suggest ordering clopidogrel for 14 days.
Q2) A patient has undergone a primary percutaneous coronary intervention with a stent placement. The provider has ordered a daily dose of 81 mg of aspirin and clopidogrel. The patient asks the nurse how long the medications must be taken. What will the nurse tell this patient about the medication regimen?
A) This drug regimen will continue indefinitely.
B) The clopidogrel will be discontinued in one year and the aspirin will be given indefinitely.
C) The aspirin will be discontinued in one year and the clopidogrel will be given indefinitely.
D) Both drugs will be discontinued in one year.
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Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8447
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hemophilia B is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The patient's history reveals long-term use of factor replacement as prophylaxis for bleeding episodes. The nurse anticipates that the provider will order which medication to prevent excessive perioperative bleeding?
A) Desmopressin
B) Factor VIII
C) Ibuprofen
D) Tranexamic acid
Q2) A patient with hemophilia is hospitalized for infusion of factor VIII replacement through a venous port. While giving the drug,the nurse notes that the patient's temperature is 101.5°F. The nurse will contact the provider to report which possibility?
A) Anaphylactic reaction
B) Contamination of factor replacement
C) Port infection
D) Thrombolytic event
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Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8448
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been prescribed oral ferrous sulfate reports taking extra doses for the past few months. The patient's serum iron level is 560 mcg/dL. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Discontinuing the ferrous sulfate and rechecking the iron level in 1 month
B) Gastric lavage and treatment for acidosis and shock
C) Giving oral deferasirox [Exjade]
D) Giving parenteral deferoxamine [Desferal]
Q2) A patient with renal failure is undergoing chronic hemodialysis. The patient's hemoglobin is 10.6 gm/dL. The provider orders sodium-ferric gluconate complex (SFGC [Ferrlecit]). What will the nurse expect to do?
A) Administer the drug intravenously with erythropoietin.
B) Give a test dose before each administration of the drug.
C) Have epinephrine on hand to treat anaphylaxis if needed.
D) Infuse the drug rapidly to achieve maximum effects quickly.
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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8449
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a hemoglobin of 7.2 gm/dL begins therapy with an ESA. Two weeks later the patient's hemoglobin is 8.3 gm/dL. The nurse anticipates that the provider will:
A) reduce the ESA dose.
B) discontinue the ESA.
C) order a blood transfusion.
D) order heparin.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who has chronic renal failure who will begin receiving epoetin alfa [Epogen] about this drug therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "If I have to start dialysis, I will have to stop taking this drug."
B) "Taking this drug will not eliminate my need for blood transfusions."
C) "Taking this medication will prevent the need for dialysis in the future."
D) "When I take this, my serum ferritin levels will increase."
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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8450
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse working on a high-acuity medical-surgical unit is prioritizing care for four patients who were just admitted. Which patient should the nurse assess first?
A) The NPO patient with a blood glucose level of 80 mg/dL who just received 20 units of 70/30 Novolin insulin
B) The patient with a pulse of 58 beats per minute who is about to receive digoxin [Lanoxin]
C) The patient with a blood pressure of 136/92 mm Hg who complains of having a headache
D) The patient with an allergy to penicillin who is receiving an infusion of vancomycin [Vancocin]
Q2) Which statement is correct about the contrast between acarbose and miglitol?
A) Miglitol has not been associated with hepatic dysfunction.
B) With miglitol, sucrose can be used to treat hypoglycemia.
C) Miglitol is less effective in African Americans.
D) Miglitol has no gastrointestinal side effects.
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59
Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8451
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking methimazole [Tapazole] for Graves' disease about the medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Because of the risk for liver toxicity, I will need frequent liver function tests."
B) "I should report a sore throat or fever to my provider if either occurs."
C) "I will need a complete blood count every few months."
D) "It is safe to get pregnant while taking this medication."
Q2) A 1-year-old child with cretinism has been receiving 8 mcg/kg/day of levothyroxine [Synthroid]. The child comes to the clinic for a well-child checkup. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) change the dose of levothyroxine to 6 mcg/kg/day.
B) discontinue the drug if the child's physical and mental development are normal.
C) increase the dose to accommodate the child's increased growth.
D) stop the drug for 4 weeks and check the child's TSH level.
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8452
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of growth hormone and reconstitutes the medication. After adding the diluent,the nurse notices that the preparation is cloudy. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug as ordered.
B) Discard the drug and prepare another dose.
C) Notify the prescriber.
D) Shake the drug to dissipate the particles.
Q2) A nurse teaches a nursing student about the differences between desmopressin (DDAVP)and vasopressin [Pitressin]. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Desmopressin has a shorter duration of action than vasopressin."
B) "Desmopressin is easier to administer than vasopressin."
C) "Vasopressin can be used in cardiac resuscitation."
D) "Vasopressin can cause serious adverse cardiovascular effects."
Q3) What are the effects of prolactin secretion in males? (Select all that apply.)
A) Breast development
B) Decreased libido
C) Delayed puberty
D) Galactorrhea
E) Infertility
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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8453
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has chronic adrenal insufficiency is admitted to the hospital for an open cholecystectomy. The nurse obtaining the admission history learns that the patient takes hydrocortisone 25 mg PO daily in the morning. The patient's surgery is scheduled for the next morning. The nurse will expect an order to:
A) administer the usual morning dose of hydrocortisone 25 mg PO.
B) administer hydrocortisone 50 mg PO in the morning.
C) administer hydrocortisone 50 mg IV before surgery.
D) withhold the morning dose of hydrocortisone and give it after surgery.
Q2) A patient who has been newly diagnosed with adrenal hormone deficiency will begin taking hydrocortisone. The nurse provides teaching for this patient. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may take all of my daily dose in the morning or divide it in half and take it twice daily."
B) "I will need to take this medication until my symptoms completely clear, and then I may stop."
C) "Side effects are common with hydrocortisone, even with therapeutic doses."
D) "When I am sick, I should take three times the normal dose for 3 days in a row."
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62
Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and
Noncontraceptive Applications
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8454
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing patient education for a postmenopausal patient who is considering EPT. Which risks associated with EPT should the nurse discuss with the patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased colon cancer
B) Stroke
C) Deep vein thrombosis
D) Ovarian cancer
E) Decreased bone density
Q2) A patient who is at risk for osteoporosis will begin taking the selective estrogen receptor modulator raloxifene [Evista]. Which statement will the nurse include when teaching this patient about the medication?
A) Raloxifene reduces the risk of thromboembolism.
B) The drug is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer.
C) Use of this drug increases the risk of endometrial carcinoma.
D) Vasomotor symptoms are a common side effect of this drug.
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Chapter 62: Birth Control
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8455
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been experiencing side effects with a combination oral contraceptive,and her provider has ordered a different combination product. The nurse will instruct the patient to do what?
A) Begin taking the new product immediately.
B) Change products at the beginning of her next cycle.
C) Stop taking the old OC 1 week before starting the new OC.
D) Use an alternate method of contraception for 1 month before starting the new OC.
Q2) A nurse is teaching an adolescent female patient about 28-day monophasic combination oral contraceptives. The provider has instructed the patient to begin taking the pills on the first Sunday after the onset of her next period. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "If breakthrough spotting occurs, you should begin taking a new pack of pills."
B) "Protection from pregnancy will begin immediately."
C) "Use another form of contraception for the next month."
D) "You may take the pills at different times of day."
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64
Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8456
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has endometriosis has been unable to conceive. She asks the nurse about medications to treat the condition. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Combination oral contraceptives are effective for improving fertility.
B) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists are used for long-term treatment.
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are second-line agents for treating pain.
D) Pharmacologic agents used to treat endometriosis do not enhance fertility.
Q2) The nurse counseling a couple who cannot conceive learns that female infertility problems have been ruled out. What will the nurse expect to tell this couple?
A) "If medication is necessary for male infertility, treatment will last a few months."
B) "Male infertility is usually treatable with a combination of medications."
C) "Most male infertility is not linked to known endocrine disorders."
D) "Treatment with sildenafil [Viagra] will be necessary to improve fertility."
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65
Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8457
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has experienced preterm births with her previous two pregnancies will begin receiving hydroxyprogesterone caproate [Makena] to prevent preterm delivery with her current pregnancy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about this drug?
A) "I should report any calf pain immediately."
B) "I will eventually learn to administer the injections of this drug myself."
C) "This drug may cause fluid retention and glucose intolerance."
D) "This medication must be given once a week until 37 weeks' gestation."
Q2) A nurse is caring for a woman during the perinatal and postnatal period. To stop postpartum hemorrhage,how will the nurse administer oxytocin [Pitocin] to this patient?
A) 20 units in 1000 mL of IV solution after delivery of the placenta
B) 20 units intramuscularly prior to delivery of the placenta
C) 40 units intramuscularly after delivery of the placenta
D) 60 units per rectum prior to delivery of the placenta
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Chapter 65: Androgens
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8458
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of parents about the role of testosterone in puberty for boys. To evaluate the group's understanding,the nurse asks,"What physiologic effects related to testosterone can you expect to see in your sons?" Which responses indicate an understanding of the role of testosterone in male puberty? (Select all that apply.)
A) "It promotes skeletal muscle growth."
B) "It increases height and weight."
C) "It delays epiphyseal closure."
D) "It causes a high-pitched voice."
E) "It causes acne."
Q2) A clinic nurse is assessing an adolescent male patient who has been receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism via a transdermal patch. The patient's last clinic visit was 4 weeks earlier. Which part of the interval history is of most concern to the nurse?
A) Five-pound weight gain
B) Increased growth of pubic hair
C) Rash at the site of the patch
D) Presence of acne
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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8459
Sample Questions
Q1) A male patient tells the nurse he awakens once or twice each night to void and has difficulty starting his stream of urine. He describes these symptoms as "annoying." The patient's provider examines him and notes that the prostate is moderately enlarged. The patient is sexually active and tells the nurse that he does not want to take any medication that will interfere with sexual function. The nurse anticipates the provider will order:
A) doxazosin [Cardura].
B) finasteride [Proscar].
C) silodosin [Rapaflo].
D) a transurethral prostatectomy.
Q2) A 68-year-old male patient receives a prescription for 25-mg tablets of sildenafil [Viagra] for erectile dysfunction. When he asks the nurse how to take the medication,the nurse will tell him to:
A) begin taking one tablet twice daily, 12 hours apart.
B) start with one tablet about 1 hour before anticipated sexual activity.
C) take 25 to 100 mg per dose 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity.
D) take two tablets 1 hour before sexual activity with a high-fat meal.
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Page 68
Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8460
Sample Questions
Q1) Which immune responses can result in harm to the body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Activation of the complement system
B) Autoimmune response
C) IgE binding to mast cells and basophils
D) Opsonization
E) Recognition of MHC molecules as nonself
Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about a specific acquired immunity system. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity are both types of specific acquired immune responses."
B) "Each exposure to an antigen causes a faster, more intense response."
C) "Immune responses occur only after exposure to a foreign substance."
D) "The skin is a factor in specific acquired immunity."
Q3) Which statement is true about helper T cells?
A) They are useful but are not essential to immune responses.
B) They do not play a role in antibody production.
C) They have highly specific receptors to antigens on their surface.
D) They prevent CD4 molecules from attaching to antigens.
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69
Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8461
Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-year-old child who has asthma is in the clinic for a well-child checkup. The nurse notes that the child is up-to-date for the DTaP,Hepatitis A,Hepatitis B,and the MMR vaccines but has only had one each of the Hib,the Rotavirus,and the PCV13 vaccines. Which vaccine(s)will the nurse anticipate administering to this child?
A) Hib and Rotavirus vaccines
B) PCV13
C) PCV13 and Hib
D) Rotavirus
Q2) The public health nurse is teaching a group of parents about immunizations. The nurse tells the parents that after receiving the varicella virus vaccine,children should temporarily avoid close contact with whom? (Select all that apply.)
A) Neonates
B) Siblings
C) Relatives older than 65 years
D) Pregnant women
E) Individuals infected with HIV
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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8462
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who has undergone kidney transplantation and will begin taking cyclosporine [Sandimmune],a glucocorticoid,and sirolimus [Rapamune]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should take sirolimus at the same time as the cyclosporine."
B) "I will need to have my blood sugar checked regularly."
C) "I will need to take an antibiotic to prevent lung infections."
D) "Taking this combination of drugs lowers my risk of kidney damage."
Q2) A patient with a liver transplant has been receiving cyclosporine [Sandimmune] for 6 months. The nurse reviews this patient's laboratory results and notes a sharp increase in the blood urea nitrogen (BUN)and serum creatinine. Vital signs are normal,and the patient reports no discomfort. What does the nurse suspect?
A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Infection
C) Organ rejection
D) Nephrotoxicity
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Chapter 70: Antihistamines
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8463
Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old child with seasonal allergies has been taking 2.5 mL of cetirizine [Zyrtec] syrup once daily. The parents tell the nurse that the child does not like the syrup,and they do not think that the drug is effective. The nurse will suggest they discuss which drug with their child's healthcare provider?
A) Cetirizine [Zyrtec] 5-mg chewable tablet once daily
B) Loratadine [Claritin] 10-mg chewable tablet once daily
C) Fexofenadine [Allegra] syrup 5 mL twice daily
D) Desloratadine [Clarinex] 5-mg rapid-disintegrating tablet once daily
Q2) A patient who has chronic allergies takes loratadine [Claritin] and develops a severe reaction to bee stings. The patient asks the nurse why the antihistamine did not prevent the reaction. What will the nurse say?
A) "Allergy symptoms that are severe are caused by mediators other than histamine."
B) "H<sub>1</sub> blockers do not prevent the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils."
C) "Second-generation H<sub>1</sub> blockers contain less active drug and do not work in severe reactions."
D) "Severe allergic reactions occur through actions on muscarinic receptors."
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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal
Anti-inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8464
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that she takes aspirin for menstrual cramps,but she does not feel that it works well. What will the nurse suggest?
A) The patient should avoid any type of COX inhibitor because of the risk of Reye's syndrome.
B) The patient should increase the dose to a level that suppresses inflammation.
C) The patient should use a first-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication instead.
D) The patient should use acetaminophen because of its selective effects on uterine smooth muscle.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about cyclooxygenase (COX)inhibitors. A student asks the nurse about characteristics of COX-1 inhibitors. Which statement by the nurse is true?
A) "COX-1 inhibitors protect against colorectal cancer."
B) "COX-1 inhibitors protect against myocardial infarction and stroke."
C) "COX-1 inhibitors reduce fever."
D) "COX-1 inhibitors suppress inflammation."
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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8465
Sample Questions
Q1) The prescriber orders 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally once each day. The nurse will make sure the drug is scheduled to be administered at what time?
A) 8:00 AM
B) 12:00 PM
C) 4:00 PM
D) 9:00 PM
Q2) A nurse is discussing glucocorticoids with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Glucocorticoids have both endocrine and nonendocrine uses."
B) "Patients treated for adrenocortical insufficiency receive pharmacologic doses."
C) "Pharmacologic effects are achieved with low doses of glucocorticoids."
D) "Physiologic doses are used to treat inflammatory disorders."
Q3) Which disorders may be treated with glucocorticoids? (Select all that apply.)
A) Allergic rhinitis
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Bronchiolitis
D) Gout
E) Ulcerative colitis
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74
Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8466
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is beginning therapy with oral methotrexate [Rheumatrex] for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of:
A) having routine renal and hepatic function tests.
B) limiting folic acid consumption.
C) reporting alopecia and rash.
D) taking the medication on a daily basis.
Q2) A child who has juvenile idiopathic arthritis and who has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex] will begin a course of abatacept [Orencia]. What will the nurse include when teaching the child's family about this drug?
A) That abatacept and methotrexate must both be taken to be effective
B) To continue getting vaccinations during therapy with abatacept
C) That signs of infection may warrant immediate discontinuation of abatacept
D) That a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antagonist may be added if this therapy is not effective
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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8467
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has gout will begin taking febuxostat [Uloric] and colchicine. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug regimen?
A) "You are taking both drugs in order to prevent hepatic side effects."
B) "You may stop taking the febuxostat after your uric acid levels decrease."
C) "You will have to take both drugs indefinitely to treat your symptoms."
D) "You will stop taking the colchicine within 6 months after starting therapy."
Q2) A patient is admitted for treatment of gout that has been refractory to treatment with allopurinol and probenecid. The patient is taking colchicine,and the prescriber orders pegloticase [Krystexxa]. Before administering this drug,the nurse will expect to:
A) administer an antihistamine and a glucocorticoid.
B) discontinue the colchicine.
C) increase the dose of colchicine.
D) prepare to administer a bronchodilator if needed.
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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone
Mineralization
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8468
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with severe glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis will start therapy with teriparatide [Forteo]. What will the nurse expect to administer?
A) 20 mcg once daily subQ
B) 20 mcg twice daily subQ
C) 10 mcg once daily subQ
D) 10 mcg twice daily subQ
Q2) A patient is taking alendronate [Fosamax] to treat Paget's disease. The patient asks the nurse why calcium supplements are necessary. The nurse will tell the patient that calcium supplements are necessary to:
A) reduce the likelihood of atrial fibrillation.
B) maximize bone resorption of calcium.
C) minimize the risk of esophageal cancer.
D) prevent hyperparathyroidism.
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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8469
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with asthma will be using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI)for delivery of an inhaled medication. The provider has ordered 2 puffs to be given twice daily. It is important for the nurse to teach this patient that:
A) the patient should inhale suddenly to receive the maximum dose.
B) the patient should activate the device and then inhale.
C) the patient should store the MDI in the refrigerator between doses.
D) the patient should wait 1 minute between puffs.
Q2) A child is receiving a combination albuterol/ipratropium [DuoNeb] inhalation treatment. The patient complains of a dry mouth and sore throat. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to report systemic anticholinergic side effects.
B) Discontinue the aerosol treatment immediately.
C) Notify the provider of a possible allergic reaction.
D) Reassure the patient that these are expected side effects.
Q3) Which drugs are used to treat COPD? (Select all that apply.)
A) Anticholinergic medications
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Leukotriene modifiers
D) Long-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonists
E) Monoclonal antibodies
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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds
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14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8470
Sample Questions
Q1) A child with seasonal rhinitis has used budesonide [Rhinocort Aqua] for several years. The parents are concerned that the child's rate of growth has slowed. What will the nurse do?
A) Reassure the parents that this is an expected side effect.
B) Suggest that the parents discuss using fluticasone [Flonase] with the provider.
C) Tell the parents to administer the drug only when symptoms are severe.
D) Tell the parents that antihistamines work as well as intranasal glucocorticoids.
Q2) A parent asks a nurse about giving diphenhydramine [Benadryl] to a child to relieve cold symptoms. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Benadryl must be given in higher doses to provide relief for cold symptoms."
B) "Intranasal glucocorticoids are more effective for treating cold symptoms."
C) "Nasal antihistamines are more effective for treating cold symptoms."
D) "Because histamine doesn't cause cold symptoms, Benadryl would not be effective."
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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease
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14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8471
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient stops taking a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)after 6 weeks of therapy for treatment of peptic ulcer disease. The patient reports symptoms of dyspepsia to the nurse. The nurse will tell this patient to:
A) come to the clinic to be tested for Clostridium difficile.
B) resume taking the PPI, because long-term therapy is necessary.
C) resume taking the PPI until symptoms resolve completely.
D) try an antacid to see whether it relieves these symptoms.
Q2) Which are potentially worrisome adverse effects associated with proton pump inhibitor use in older patients? (Select all that apply.)
A) Gastric cancer
B) Headaches
C) Medication interactions
D) Osteoporosis
E) Vitamin and mineral deficiencies
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Chapter 79: Laxatives
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8472
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of chronic alcohol abuse has been admitted to the unit with cirrhosis. Upon review of the patient's laboratory test results,the nurse notes that the patient's ammonia level is elevated at 218 mcg/dL. What medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
A) 0.9% NS
B) Docusate sodium [Colace]
C) Lactulose
D) Polyethylene glycol [MiraLax]
Q2) The nurse is caring for an older adult patient after a right hip open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The patient is taking an opioid every 6 hours as needed for pain. The nurse discusses obtaining an order from the prescriber for which medication?
A) Docusate sodium [Colace]
B) GoLYTELY
C) Lactulose
D) Polyethylene glycol [MiraLax]
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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8473
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing education to a patient with ulcerative colitis who is being treated with sulfasalazine [Azulfidine]. What statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the action of sulfasalazine?
A) "It treats the infection that triggers the condition."
B) "It reduces the inflammation."
C) "It enhances the immune response."
D) "It increases the reabsorption of fluid."
Q2) A nurse explains to a nursing student why opioid antidiarrheal medications are classified as drugs with little or no abuse potential. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Formulations for the treatment of diarrhea have very short half-lives."
B) "Opioid antidiarrheal drugs contain other drugs with unpleasant side effects at higher doses."
C) "Some opioid antidiarrheal drugs do not cross the blood-brain barrier."
D) "Some opioid antidiarrheal medications are not water soluble and cannot be given parenterally."
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Chapter 81: Vitamins
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8474
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking iron supplements to treat anemia. The nurse will recommend that the patient take the iron with which food to facilitate absorption?
A) Cereal
B) Dairy products
C) Orange juice
D) Red meats
Q2) A nurse is discussing nutrition with a patient who expresses concern about not always consuming vitamins in amounts consistent with the recommended dietary allowances (RDAs). What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) The RDA is only an estimate of the amount of vitamins required and does not represent a scientific number.
B) The RDA is the amount of vitamin needed by 50% of the population regardless of age or gender.
C) The RDA represents the highest amount that can be consumed safely, so amounts less than this can be sufficient.
D) The RDA represents an average, so low intake one day can be compensated for by increased amounts on another day.
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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8475
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient with diabetes who is obese will begin taking lorcaserin [Belviq] to help with weight loss. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug?
A) "This drug is safe to take if you become pregnant."
B) "This drug does not have serious adverse effects."
C) "You may need to check your blood glucose levels more often."
D) "You will need to increase your insulin dose to prevent hyperglycemia."
Q2) A patient who has received a prescription for orlistat [Xenical] for weight loss asks the nurse how the drug works. The nurse will tell the patient that orlistat works by:
A) altering how the body stores energy.
B) reducing the body's absorption of fats.
C) increasing the body's metabolic rate.
D) suppressing the appetite.
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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8476
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a pharmacology refresher course to a group of nurses. A student asks what host factors affect the choice of agents in antimicrobial therapy. The nurse will tell the students that such host factors include what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Age
B) Gender
C) Immune system status
D) Infection site
E) Weight
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient on a medical-surgical unit who has a fever of unknown origin. The prescriber has ordered a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Which intervention is the priority?
A) Administering the antibiotic immediately
B) Administering antipyretics as soon as possible
C) Delaying administration of the antibiotic until the culture results are available
D) Obtaining all cultures before the antibiotic is administered
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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:
Penicillins
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8477
Sample Questions
Q1) A child with otitis media has had three ear infections in the past year. The child has just completed a 10-day course of amoxicillin [Amoxil] with no improvement. The parent asks the nurse why this drug is not working,because it has worked in the past. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "Amoxicillin is too narrow in spectrum."
B) "The bacteria have developed a three-layer cell envelope."
C) "The bacteria have developed penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) that have a low affinity for penicillins."
D) "The bacteria have synthesized penicillinase."
Q2) A patient is receiving intravenous potassium penicillin G,2 million units to be administered over 1 hour. At 1900,the nurse notes that the dose hung at 1830 has infused completely. What will the nurse do?
A) Assess the skin at the infusion site for signs of tissue necrosis.
B) Observe the patient closely for confusion and other neurotoxic effects.
C) Request an order for serum electrolytes and cardiac monitoring.
D) Watch the patient's actions and report any bizarre behaviors.
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86
Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall II:
Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, and Fosfomycin
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8478
Sample Questions
Q1) Which cephalosporin may be used to treat meningitis?
A) Cefaclor
B) Cefazolin
C) Cefoxitin
D) Cefotaxime
Q2) A provider has ordered ceftriaxone 4 gm once daily for a patient with renal impairment. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as prescribed.
B) Contact the provider to ask about giving the drug in divided doses.
C) Discuss increasing the interval between doses with the provider.
D) Discuss reducing the dose with the provider.
Q3) A patient who has cystic fibrosis has a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection and the provider has ordered aztreonam [Cayston]. What will the nurse teach this patient about administration of this drug?
A) Administer the drug intramuscularly twice daily.
B) Give a daily dose every day for 28 days and then stop.
C) Inhale the powdered drug as ordered three times each day.
Page 87
D) Use the nebulizer to administer the drug three times daily.
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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:
Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8479
Sample Questions
Q1) Which side effect of clindamycin [Cleocin] causes the most concern and may warrant discontinuation of the drug?
A) Diarrhea
B) Headache
C) Nausea
D) Vomiting
Q2) A patient received 500 mg of azithromycin [Zithromax] at 0800 as a first dose. What are the usual amount and time of the second dose of azithromycin?
A) 250 mg at 2000 the same day
B) 500 mg at 2000 the same day
C) 250 mg at 0800 the next day
D) 500 mg at 0800 the next day
Q3) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will begin taking clarithromycin ER [Biaxin XL] to treat an Helicobacter pylori infection. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may experience distorted taste when taking this medication."
B) "I should take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days."
C) "I should take this medication on an empty stomach."
D) "This medication does not interact with other drugs."
Page 88
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Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8480
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient shows signs and symptoms of conjunctivitis. Which aminoglycoside would the nurse expect to be ordered?
A) Amikacin [Amikin]
B) Kanamycin [Kantrex]
C) Neomycin [Neomycin]
D) Paromomycin [Humatin]
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with an infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus,and the prescriber orders intravenous gentamicin and penicillin (PCN). Both drugs will be given twice daily. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer gentamicin, flush the line, and then give the penicillin.
B) Give the gentamicin intravenously and the penicillin intramuscularly.
C) Infuse the gentamicin and the penicillin together to prevent fluid overload.
D) Request an order to change the penicillin to vancomycin.
Q3) A patient who has been taking gentamicin for 5 days reports a headache and dizziness. What will the nurse do?
A) Request an order for a gentamicin peak level.
B) Suspect ototoxicity and notify the prescriber.
C) Tell the patient to ask for help with ambulation.
D) Tell the patient to report any tinnitus.
Page 89
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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8481
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient is treated with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ)[Bactrim] for a urinary tract infection at 32 weeks' gestation. A week later,the woman delivers her infant prematurely. The nurse will expect to monitor the infant for:
A) birth defects.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) rash.
D) kernicterus.
Q2) A nurse teaches a patient about sulfonamides. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I need to drink extra fluids while taking this medication."
B) "I need to use sunscreen when taking this drug."
C) "I should call my provider if I develop a rash while taking this drug."
D) "I should stop taking this drug when my symptoms are gone."
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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8482
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is discussing upper and lower UTIs. Which of these conditions can be treated at home? (Select all that apply.)
A) Acute cystitis
B) Acute urethritis
C) Recurrent UTI
D) Severe pyelonephritis
E) Acute bacterial prostatitis
Q2) A pregnant female patient with bacteriuria,suprapubic pain,urinary urgency and frequency,and a low-grade fever is allergic to sulfa,ciprofloxacin,and amoxicillin. The nurse knows that the best alternative for treating this urinary tract infection is with:
A) cephalexin [Keflex].
B) fosfomycin [Monurol].
C) methenamine [Hiprex].
D) nitrofurantoin [Macrodantin].
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Chapter 90: Antimycobacterial Agents: Drugs for
Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium avium Complex
Infection
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8483
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with HIV who takes protease inhibitors develops tuberculosis and will begin treatment. Which drug regimen will be used for this patient?
A) Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol + rifabutin
B) Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol
C) Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol
D) Isoniazid + rifabutin
Q2) A patient who is taking drugs to treat HIV has tuberculosis and has been on a four-drug regimen for 3 months without improvement in symptoms. Which drug will the nurse anticipate that the provider will add to this patient's regimen?
A) bedaquiline [Sirturo]
B) capreomycin [Capastat Sulfate]
C) ethionamide [Trecator]
D) pyridoxine
Q3) Which patient(s)should be tested for latent TB? (Select all that apply.)
A) A day care employee
B) A worker in a mycobacteriology laboratory
C) A patient with cardiovascular disease
D) A patient with diabetes mellitus
E) An immigrant from a country where TB is prevalent
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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:
Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antibiotics may be administered topically? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bacitracin
B) Daptomycin
C) Ofloxacin
D) Polymyxin B
E) Rifampin
Q2) A nursing student is caring for a patient with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)who also has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)skin infection. The prescriber has ordered daptomycin [Cubicin]. The nurse encourages the student to approach the provider to request a different antibiotic because of which facts about daptomycin? (Select all that apply.)
A) It causes significant renal impairment.
B) It is approved only for bloodstream and skin infections.
C) It increases the risk of serious cardiorespiratory events.
D) It is more likely to produce resistant strains of bacteria.
E) It is not effective against MRSA infections.
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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8485
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer amphotericin B intravenously. The nurse will expect to pretreat the patient with which medications?
A) Acetaminophen [Tylenol], diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]
B) Aspirin, diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]
C) Ibuprofen [Motrin], diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]
D) Morphine sulphate [Morphine] and acetaminophen ]Tylenol]
Q2) A nursing student asks a nurse to explain the differences between amphotericin B [Abelcet] and the azoles group of antifungal agents. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Amphotericin B can be given orally or intravenously."
B) "Amphotericin B increases the levels of many other drugs."
C) "Azoles have lower toxicity than amphotericin B."
D) "Only the azoles are broad-spectrum antifungal agents."
Q3) A patient who is taking ketoconazole tells the nurse that her periods have become irregular. What will the nurse tell her?
A) This indicates that she should begin taking oral contraceptives.
B) This is caused by a reversible effect on estradiol synthesis.
C) This is a serious side effect that warrants discontinuation of the drug.
D) This is a sign of hepatic toxicity, and the drug dose should be lowered.
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Page 94
Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-HIV Viral
Infections
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8486
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient comes to the clinic and receives valacyclovir [Valtrex] for a herpes-zoster virus. The nurse instructs the patient to take the medication:
A) without regard to meals.
B) without any dairy products.
C) each morning.
D) on an empty stomach.
Q2) A male patient with hepatitis C will begin triple drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa 2a [Pegasys],ribavirin [Ribasphere],and boceprevir [Victrelis]. The patient tells the nurse that his wife is pregnant. What will the nurse tell him?
A) Boceprevir is contraindicated in males whose partners are pregnant.
B) He should use a barrier contraceptive when having sex.
C) He should use dual drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin only.
D) This combination drug therapy is safe for him to use.
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Chapter 94: Antiviral Agents II: Drugs for HIV Infection and Related Opportunistic Infections
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8487
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse asks a graduate nurse,"When a patient in the initial phase of HIV infection is assessed,which findings would you expect to see?" The graduate nurse would be correct to respond with which conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Respiratory distress
B) Fever
C) Myalgia
D) Lymphadenopathy
E) Insomnia
Q2) The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient with HIV who will continue to take enfuvirtide [Fuzeon] at home. The nurse is providing patient education about the medication. What information about the administration of enfuvirtide is most appropriate for the patient?
A) The importance of injecting the drug into two alternating sites daily
B) How to reconstitute and self-administer a subcutaneous injection
C) The importance of taking the drug with high doses of vitamin E
D) Likely drug interactions between enfuvirtide and other antiretroviral drugs
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96
Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8488
Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent patient comes to the clinic complaining of a burning sensation upon urination and a pus-like discharge from the penis. The nurse is correct to suspect that the patient has which disorder?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Herpes simplex
C) Nongonococcal urethritis
D) Syphilis
Q2) A female patient has come to the STD clinic and has been diagnosed with a Trichomonas vaginalis infection. What education should be provided to this patient?
A) Male partners should always be treated, even if they are asymptomatic.
B) The applicator for the vaginal gel should be washed after each application.
C) The infection is not completely eliminated with the medication.
D) The medication should be taken twice daily for 2 weeks.
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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8489
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has developed a local infection at an IV insertion site. Before the IV was inserted,the site was cleansed with a product with an ethanol concentration of 70%. The nurse will report the local infection to the provider and expect to receive an order to:
A) administer a systemic antimicrobial agent.
B) apply a topical antiseptic agent to the infected area.
C) culture the site to assess for C. difficile.
D) use a topical agent containing 95% ethanol.
Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department after a bicycle-automobile accident with multiple dirty abrasions. Which product might be used initially to cleanse this patient's wounds?
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Isopropanol (isopropyl alcohol)
C) Povidone iodine [Betadine]
D) Soap and water
Q3) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?
A) A patient with a systemic infection
B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess
C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate
D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis
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Page 98
Chapter 97: Anthelmintics
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8490
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is being treated for onchocerciasis with ivermectin [Stromectol] has a Mazotti reaction. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fever
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Rash with pruritus
D) Blurred vision
E) Bone and joint pain
Q2) A child has been diagnosed with enterobiasis,and the prescriber orders mebendazole [Vermox] to treat the infestation. When teaching this child's parents about the treatment,the nurse will include which statement?
A) "A single dose of mebendazole will eradicate the infestation."
B) "Everyone in the household should be treated with mebendazole."
C) "Serious complications of this type of infestation are common."
D) "Treatment should be limited to family members with symptoms."
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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8491
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who frequently travels to Africa has been treated for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. The patient asks the nurse about medications to prevent relapse. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "The form of malaria that you have does not relapse after a clinical cure has been achieved."
B) "Until you are no longer traveling to Africa, relapse drugs will be postponed."
C) "Using mosquito netting and DEET when you travel will prevent relapse."
D) "You will be given prophylactic medications when you travel to prevent relapse."
Q2) A patient has been treated for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. For relapse prevention,the nurse expects the provider to order which medication?
A) Chloroquine [Aralen Phosphate]
B) Doxycycline [Vibramax]
C) Primaquine phosphate
D) Quinine [Qualaquin]
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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8492
Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-kg pediatric patient is being treated for toxoplasmosis,and the provider orders pyrimethamine [Daraprim] 10 mg twice daily. The nurse caring for this patient will anticipate which additional order from the provider?
A) Administer 10 to 15 mg of folinic acid with each dose of pyrimethamine.
B) Give the medication intravenously over 30 to 45 minutes.
C) Increase the dose to 20 mg twice daily after 2 to 4 days.
D) Teach the family to monitor for muscle pain and joint stiffness.
Q2) The nurse is monitoring a patient who is receiving an inhalation treatment with pentamidine [NebuPent]. The patient begins to cough and states that he is having trouble breathing. What is the best action by the nurse?
A) Administer a PRN dose of a bronchodilator.
B) Discontinue the inhalation treatment.
C) Nothing, because these are expected adverse effects of pentamidine.
D) Reduce the rate of the inhalation treatment.
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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8493
Sample Questions
Q1) A parent has been instructed to apply a combination product of pyrethrins with piperonyl butoxide [RID] to treat head lice in a child. The parent asks the nurse why it is necessary to repeat the application in 9 days. The nurse will respond by telling the parent that:
A) a second treatment helps combat medication resistance.
B) the dose needed to kill lice is too toxic to use all at once.
C) the combination is active only against adult lice and not ova.
D) the second dose helps rid the hair of nits and ova.
Q2) A patient who has scabies is treated with permethrin 5% cream. The patient calls the nurse 1 week after treatment to report continued intense itching. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "This is a hypersensitivity reaction to the permethrin."
B) "This is the body's normal response to the scabies mites."
C) "You will need a second treatment of the permethrin."
D) "You will need to take ivermectin to clear up the infestation."
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Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8494
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has leukemia is receiving chemotherapy and develops severe anemia. The provider has ordered hospitalization and blood transfusions. The patient asks the nurse about using erythropoietin (epoetin alfa)instead. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "Ask your provider about ordering erythropoietin instead of a transfusion."
B) "Erythropoietin (epoetin alfa) can make your leukemia worse."
C) "Erythropoietin is used to prolong life in patients with myeloid malignancies."
D) "You will probably receive erythropoietin along with the transfusion."
Q2) A patient asks a nurse about ways to minimize side effects of chemotherapy. Which response is correct?
A) "Avoid contact with people who are ill."
B) "Take antiemetics immediately after receiving chemotherapy."
C) "Treat fevers immediately with ibuprofen."
D) "Use a firm-bristled toothbrush to stimulate gums."
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103
Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8495
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient on an oncology unit has been receiving ifosfamide [Ifex] for a few days. Before administering the next dose,the nurse reviews the patient's laboratory test results. Which finding would cause the nurse to hold the dose?
A) Elevated white blood cell count
B) Low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
C) Low levels of ketones in the urine
D) Microscopic hematuria
Q2) A patient will begin receiving vincristine [Oncovin] to treat Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which side effect(s)will the nurse tell the patient to report immediately?
A) Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting
B) Hair loss
C) Headaches
D) Tingling of the extremities
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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,
Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8496
Sample Questions
Q1) A 43-year-old patient with a strong family history of breast cancer considers taking tamoxifen [Nolvadex] for cancer prevention. Which assessment finding is a possible contraindication?
A) History of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
B) History of osteoporosis
C) Hyperlipidemia
D) Prior hysterectomy
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a first dose of ado-trastuzumab emtansine [Kadcycla] to a patient who has metastatic breast cancer. Which nursing action is correct?
A) Administer a test dose with an antihistamine.
B) Ensure that the patient has HER2-positive disease.
C) Infuse the initial dose over 30 to 45 minutes.
D) Review renal function tests.
Q3) The nurse would be correct to state that the purpose of angiogenesis inhibitors is to:
A) kill existing cancer cells directly.
B) suppress the formation of new blood vessels in tumors.
C) enhance the size of collateral vessels.
D) enhance red cell development in the bone marrow.
Page 105
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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8497
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse to discuss the differences between POAG and angle-closure glaucoma. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Angle-closure glaucoma may be asymptomatic until irreversible damage has occurred."
B) "Both types are more common in African American patients."
C) "Drug therapy is the definitive treatment for angle-closure glaucoma."
D) "Early treatment with prostaglandin analogs can stop the progression of POAG."
Q2) A patient begins using timolol [Timoptic] to treat primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). The nurse gives a dose and notes that the patient develops shortness of breath. The nurse assesses the patient and auscultates wheezes in both lungs. The nurse will ask this patient about a history of which condition?
A) Asthma
B) Atrioventricular heart block
C) Pulmonary hypertension
D) Sinus bradycardia
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106
Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8498
Sample Questions
Q1) A 14-year-old patient has moderate acne that has not responded to topical drugs. The nurse will suggest that the patient and her parents discuss which treatment with the provider?
A) Combination oral contraceptive medication
B) Doxycycline [Vibramycin]
C) Isotretinoin [Accutane]
D) Spironolactone
Q2) A 50-year-old patient asks about using tretinoin [Renova] to minimize wrinkles. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) The drug may be discontinued once results are obtained.
B) Results may be visible within a few weeks of starting therapy.
C) Systemic toxicity is a common effect in patients with sensitive skin.
D) The drug is not effective on coarse wrinkles or sun-damaged skin.
Q3) A nurse is teaching a group of lifeguards about safe sunning. Which statement by a lifeguard indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Sunscreen should be applied 30 minutes before going outside."
B) "I do not need sunscreen when it is cloudy outside."
C) "I should reapply sunscreen after swimming."
D) "UV radiation does not penetrate through water."
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Page 107
Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8499
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with fungal otitis externa (otomycosis). The nurse correctly explains that for the first course of treatment the patient should expect:
A) acidifying drops for 1 week.
B) antibiotic ear drops.
C) intravenous (IV) antifungal agents.
D) oral antibiotics.
Q2) Which are components of otitis externa management? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone otic drops
B) Cleaning the ear canals with a cotton-tipped applicator
C) Keeping the external ear canal dry after swimming
D) Taking systemic antibiotics, such as amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]
E) Using a solution of alcohol and acetic acid to dry and acidify the ear
Q3) An adolescent patient who is on the school swim team asks a nurse about ways to prevent swimmer's ear. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) allow the ears to drain well after every swim and shower.
B) clean the ears with a cotton-tipped applicator after swimming.
C) keep the ear canals free of cerumen.
D) use antifungal ear drops before and after swimming.
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Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8500
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse counsels a patient who is to begin taking gamma-hydroxybutyrate [Xyrem] for narcolepsy. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient that respiratory depression is a potential risk with concomitant use of:
A) alcohol.
B) beta blockers.
C) caffeine.
D) nicotine.
Q2) A pregnant patient begins active labor at 30 weeks' gestation. The provider orders dexamethasone 6 mg intramuscularly to be given twice daily for 4 doses. The patient asks the nurse what effect this drug will have on the fetus. The nurse will tell her that the dexamethasone is given to:
A) improve cognitive function in the fetus.
B) improve fetal neuromotor development.
C) increase fetal weight and length.
D) increase lung development in the fetus.
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Chapter 108: Dietary Supplements
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8501
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking immunosuppressant drugs for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will caution this patient to avoid which dietary supplement?
A) Black cohosh
B) Echinacea
C) Feverfew
D) Glucosamine
Q2) A nurse is performing a preoperative drug history on a patient who is admitted to the hospital for surgery. To evaluate the risk of hemorrhage,the nurse will ask the patient about antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications as well as which dietary supplement?
A) Coenzyme Q-10
B) Ginkgo biloba
C) Ma Huang (ephedra)
D) St. John's wort
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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8502
Sample Questions
Q1) A pediatric patient ingested a narcotic analgesic at a grandparent's house 15 minutes before arriving in the emergency department. The nurse is preparing to administer activated charcoal. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "The charcoal will cause the child's stools to be black."
B) "The charcoal should absorb about 37% of the drug."
C) "The charcoal will make the child vomit the medication."
D) "We will need to give the charcoal several times for it to work."
Q2) Which chelating agents can be used to treat iron toxicity? (Select all that apply.)
A) Calcium EDTA
B) Deferoxamine [Desferal]
C) Fomepizole [Antizole]
D) Penicillamine
E) Succimer [Chemet]
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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8503
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is attending a conference about terrorism and emergency response. During a discussion of radiation emergencies,the use of potassium iodide is reviewed. When should potassium iodide be administered to be most effective after exposure to radiation?
A) Immediately after exposure
B) Within 48 hours after exposure
C) Within 72 hours after exposure
D) The time frame is not important
Q2) A patient reported to have been exposed to mustard gas is brought to the emergency department. The patient's skin is red and swollen with small blisters,and the patient's eyes are red and tearing. The patient has a runny nose and a dry,barking cough. What should the nurse's initial action be?
A) Prepare for renal dialysis.
B) Provide oxygen and prepare for mechanical ventilation.
C) Remove the patient's clothing and clean the skin with soap and water.
D) Rush the patient to the intensive care unit for cardiorespiratory monitoring.
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