Advanced Neuropsychology Practice Exam - 2012 Verified Questions

Advanced Neuropsychology Practice Exam

Course Introduction

Advanced Neuropsychology delves into the intricate relationships between brain function and behavior, focusing on the neural mechanisms underlying cognitive, emotional, and behavioral processes. The course explores advanced topics such as functional neuroanatomy, neuropsychological assessment techniques, and the impact of brain injuries and neurological disorders on psychological functioning. Through examination of contemporary research, case studies, and clinical applications, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how specific brain regions contribute to language, memory, attention, executive functions, and other cognitive abilities. Emphasis is placed on current methodologies used in neuroimaging and neurodiagnosis, as well as emerging trends in neuropsychological rehabilitation and intervention.

Recommended Textbook

Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology 7th Edition by Bryan Kolb

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84 Chapters

2012 Verified Questions

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Extension: A - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Although the phrenologists were misguided in many respects, Gall actually did report, more or less accurately, the first case of _____ following left frontal damage.

A) cortical blindness

B) hysterical paralysis

C) loss of the ability to speak

D) personality change

Answer: C

Q2) The cortical area MOST closely associated with speech comprehension is the _____ lobe.

A) temporal

B) frontal

C) occipital

D) parietal

Answer: A

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Page 3

Chapter 1: Extension: B - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sketch and label the main parts of a neuron.

Answer: See Figure Answer: 9 Major Parts of a Neuron in the text.

Q2) Wernicke ___

A)conduction aphasia

B)recovery of function

C)electrical excitability of the cortex

D)left hemisphere localization for speech

Answer: A

Q3) Discuss the ways statistics are useful in dealing with individual differences in neuropsychological experiments.

Answer: Statistics have allowed for seeing patterns of abilities in large samples, as in the use of frequency distributions. Such summaries of data led to the discovery of the normal distributions of abilities and allow for the more accurate quantification of individual differences in ability associated with brain dysfunction in various specific brain regions.

Q4) What was Descartes's view of the mind-body problem?

Answer: Descartes believed the mind and body were separate entities. He viewed the nonmaterial mind as controlling the material body through the pineal body in the brain.

Page 4

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Chapter 1: Extension: C - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which subdivision of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for the transmission of sensory signals from the body to the contralateral side of the brain?

A) the somatic

B) the autonomic

C) the spinal

D) the parasympathetic

Answer: A

Q2) Who thought that mental processes came from the heart, not the brain?

A) Plato

B) Aristotle

C) Hippocrates

D) Galen

Answer: B

Q3) According to Descartes, which human brain structure was the locus of the mind?

A) the prefrontal lobe

B) the pineal body

C) the medial forebrain bundle

D) the cerebellum

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Extension: A - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following has the highest EQ?

A) dolphin

B) elephant

C) cat

D) rat

Q2) Which of the following is MOST ancient?

A) H. erectus

B) A. africanus

C) A. robustus

D) H. habilis

Q3) Down syndrome is an _____, while Tay - Sachs disease involves an _____.

A) inherited dominant allele; abnormality in chromosome number

B) inherited dominant allele; inherited dominant allele

C) inherited recessive allele; inherited dominant allele

D) abnormality in chromosome number; inherited recessive allele

Q4) Phenotypic plasticity is due in part to:

A) changes in a genotype.

B) a genome's capacity to express a large number of phenotypes.

C) the variability of the Y chromosome.

D) errors in chromosome number.

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Chapter 2: Extension: B - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Distinguish between autosomes and chromosome 23.

Q2) Describe how protein mutations can be used as "molecular clocks" to compare the evolution of species.

Q3) contributes to female physical and behavioral characteristics ___

A)dominant allele

B)recessive allele

C)codominance

D)X chromosome

Q4) routinely expressed as a trait ___

A)dominant allele

B)recessive allele

C)codominance

D)X chromosome

Q5) Define species - typical behaviors.

Q6) routinely unexpressed as a trait ___

A)dominant allele

B)recessive allele

C)codominance

D)X chromosome

Q7) Why might IQ tests be considered superficial or narrow measures of intelligence? Page 7

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Page 8

Chapter 2: Extension: C - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) The MOST appropriate alternative for Homo habilis is _____. A) chimpanzees

B) Louis Leakey

C) human adults, young chimps

D) southern ape

Q2) The MOST appropriate alternative for Jane Goodall is _____. A) chimpanzees

B) Louis Leakey

C) human adults, young chimps

D) southern ape

Q3) Animals are used in neuropsychological research for all of the following reasons EXCEPT _____.

A) to show the need to understand basic brain mechanisms

B) to show the usefulness of designing animal models of human neurological disorders

C) to describe the ontogenetic development of the brain

D) to describe evolutionary and genetic influences on brain development

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9

Chapter 3: Extension: A - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) The outermost layer of the brain covering is called the _____.

A) pia mater

B) meningeal layer

C) dura mater

D) arachnoid layer

Q2) An interruption of the blood supply to the brain is called a:

A) stroke.

B) seizure.

C) hematoma.

D) thrombus.

Q3) Your cerebral cortex is located in your _____.

A) diencephalon

B) telencephalon

C) myelencephalon

D) metencephalon

Q4) The brain originates from a single cell termed a _____.

A) blast cell

B) neuron

C) mother cell

D) neural stem cell

10

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Chapter 3: Extension: B - Nervous System Organization

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Sample Questions

Q1) thalamus ___

A)diencephalon

B)epithalamus

C)hindbrain

D)telencephalon

Q2) What are some of the difficulties in trying to get a severed human spinal cord to reestablish its original connections?

Q3) Identify four types of glial cells, and indicate their main function in the nervous system.

Q4) Identify the structures in the limbic lobe, and discuss the history of theorizing regarding their functions.

Q5) Purkinje cell ___

A)axon bundle in the CNS

B)groups of cell bodies in the CNS

C)netlike

D)cerebellum

Q6) Compare and contrast the functions of the spinal nerves and cranial nerves.

Q7) What is the relationship between primary, secondary, and tertiary regions of the cortex in information processing?

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Chapter 3: Extension: C - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) The _____ is NOT part of the basal ganglia.

A) putamen

B) globus pallidus

C) caudate nucleus

D) hippocampus.

Q2) Experimental stimulation of which section of the brainstem produces a state of "general arousal" or "consciousness"?

A) the medulla

B) the pons

C) the reticular system

D) the periaqueductal gray

Q3) Which is NOT a part of the adult brain of fish, amphibians, and reptiles?

A) the rhombencephalon

B) the myelencephalon

C) the prosencephalon

D) the mesencephalon

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Chapter 4: Extension: A - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) Exocytosis is the process by which:

A) old neural cells are replaced with newly generated neurons.

B) cellular constituents are transferred from dendrites to axons of neurons.

C) proteins are taken up by neural cells from the extracellular environment.

D) proteins are released by cells into the extracellular environment.

Q2) Multiple sclerosis is a neurodegenerative disorder in which:

A) myelin is damaged.

B) dendrites lose their spines.

C) neurotransmitter synthesis is blocked.

D) there is excess electrical activity.

Q3) The main ion responsible for the restoration of the resting potential is _____.

A) sodium

B) calcium

C) potassium

D) magnesium

Q4) The information - processing units of the nervous system are:

A) glial cells.

B) ependymal cells.

C) neurons.

D) nuclei.

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Chapter 4: Extension: B - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) ribosomal RNA ___

A)contains degrading enzymes; stores and moves wastes

B)contains genetic code for proteins

C)protein molecule assembly site

D)builds proteins

Q2) mitochondria ___

A)energy source

B)protein transport

C)degrades foreign substances

D)protein formation

Q3) Since ions are so small, why do they need special pores or channels to get through the neuronal membrane?

Q4) microtubules ___

A)energy source

B)protein transport

C)degrades foreign substances

D)protein formation

Q5) Describe the interaction between concentration and voltage gradients in the establishment of the membrane potential.

Q6) Distinguish between transcription and translation in protein synthesis. Page 14

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Page 15

Chapter 4: Extension: C - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) A _____ is a segment of a DNA strand that encodes the synthesis of a particular type of protein molecule.

A) chromosome

B) gene

C) double helix

D) ribosome

Q2) Which ion form is the most appropriate match for protein anion?

A) Cl^-

B) A^-

C) Na⁺

D) K⁺

Q3) The flow of information through a neuron _____.

A) starts with the dendrites and ends with the terminal button

B) starts with the axon and ends with the dendrites

C) starts with the terminal button and ends with the dendrites

D) starts with the dendrites and ends with the axon

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16

Chapter 5: Extension: A - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) An increase in the activity at a particular synapse is likely to be associated with:

A) increased synthesis and storage of neurotransmitters.

B) decreased synthesis and storage of neurotransmitters.

C) decreased energy consumption.

D) increased action potential speed.

Q2) Some peptide neurotransmitters are made in the:

A) axon terminals.

B) mitochondria.

C) endoplasmic reticulum.

D) nucleus.

Q3) The cell bodies of the neurons of the major activating systems are located in the: A) basal ganglia.

B) diencephalon.

C) frontal cortex.

D) brainstem.

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17

Chapter 5: Extension: B - Communication Between Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) Draw a representative neuron in the central nervous system, and identify the possible types of synapses that could occur on it.

Q2) Identify the four dominant neurotransmitters in the four major activating systems.

Q3) What is the functional result of the relative positioning of inhibitory and excitatory inputs to a neuron?

Q4) Describe the organization and function of the Renshaw loop.

Q5) Diagram the process by which the activation of a metabotropic receptor by a neurotransmitter molecule results in the modification of postsynaptic function.

Q6) locus coeruleus ___

A)norepinephrine

B)serotonin

C)dopamine

Q7) Characterize the anatomy and hypothesized functions of the nigrostriatal and mesolimbic dopamine pathways.

Q8) somatostatin ___

A) if the substance is a classical neurotransmitter or B) if it is a neuroactive peptide.

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Chapter 5: Extension: C - Communication Between

Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which ion is mainly responsible for transmitter release?

A) Ca²⁺

B) Na⁺

C) K⁺

D) Cl^-

Q2) Which type of postsynaptic receptor does NOT contain a pore and acts indirectly?

A) holotropic

B) ionotropic

C) second messenger

D) metabotropic

Q3) Transmitter - activated receptors are located _____.

A) on the presynaptic membrane

B) on the postsynaptic membrane

C) on both the pre- and postsynaptic membranes

D) in the nuclear membrane only

Q4) Which neurotransmitter is primarily affected by the drug Viagra?

A) met-enkephalin

B) acetylcholine

C) dopamine

D) nitric oxide

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Chapter 6: Extension: A - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Nicotine acts primarily on _____ receptors.

A) dopamine

B) acetylcholine

C) GABA

D) histamine

Q2) Diverse drugs of abuse may act through a common neurotransmitter system that releases:

A) endorphin.

B) serotonin.

C) dopamine.

D) GABA.

Q3) The need to take increasing amounts of a drug in order to experience the same physical effect is called:

A) sensitization.

B) tolerance.

C) addiction.

D) dependence.

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Page 20

Chapter 6: Extension: B - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the mechanisms by which excessive glutamate release is thought to injure neurons?

Q2) What is the blood-brain barrier?

Q3) physostigmine ___

A)GABA

B)serotonin

C)acetylcholine

D)dopamine

Q4) cocaine ___

A)adenosine agonist

B)opioid agonist

C)opioid antagonist

D)dopamine agonist

Q5) What is the evidence that the dopamine system is involved in drug addiction?

Q6) Prozac ___

A)GABA

B)serotonin

C)acetylcholine

D)dopamine

Q7) Identify and describe the three kinds of drug tolerance. Page 21

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Page 22

Chapter 6: Extension: C - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) Black widow spider venom causes the excess release of _____.

A) dopamine

B) acetylcholine

C) serotonin

D) GABA_A

Q2) Cannabis seems to act on receptors for the neurotransmitter _____.

A) psilocybin

B) serotonin

C) anandamide

D) glycine

Q3) It is now believed that _____ is the neurotransmitter involved in drug addiction.

A) beta-endorphin

B) dopamine

C) GABA_A

D) serotonin

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Chapter 7: Extension: A - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The fMRI technique makes use of activity - dependent changes in:

A) blood oxygen levels.

B) radioactive decay.

C) glucose accumulation.

D) myelin density.

Q2) Dynamic imaging technology can record changes in:

A) intelligence.

B) cell structure.

C) skull integrity.

D) brain activity.

Q3) The basis for many dynamic imaging systems is that active brain regions _____.

A) are warmer than less active brain regions

B) consume more glucose than less active regions

C) have more dendrites than less active regions

D) move slightly more than less active regions.

Q4) Your brain is probably producing _____ waves as you read this sentence.

A) delta

B) alpha

C) theta

D) beta

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Chapter 7: Extension: B - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) MRS ___

A)detects neurotransmitter molecules

B)detects subatomic particle annihilation events

C)detects induced magnetic fields from neural activity

D)detects energy emitted by spinning hydrogen ions

Q2) PET ___

A)detects neurotransmitter molecules

B)detects subatomic particle annihilation events

C)detects induced magnetic fields from neural activity

D)detects energy emitted by spinning hydrogen ions

Q3) Describe disadvantages of ERP and fMRI techniques when studying brain function in young subjects compared to fNIRS.

Q4) How have noninvasive imaging techniques made possible the compilation of multimodal brain atlases?

Answer Key

Q5) What has been found with using fNIRS to monitor the brain activity of newborns while listening to familiar and unfamiliar languages?

Q6) Describe how transcranial magnetic stimulation can affect neuronal function.

Q7) What distinguishes the ERP technique from standard EEG techniques?

Page 25

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Chapter 7: Extension: C - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is a method of enhancing conventional X - ray radiography by taking advantage of the fact that X - rays are not absorbed by air?

A) pneumoencephalography

B) computerized tomography

C) positron emission tomography

D) magnetic resonance imaging

Q2) Which method would be MOST practical in evaluating the depth of anesthesia?

A) MRI

B) MEG

C) EEG

D) EKG

Q3) The generators for the EEG are pyramidal neurons in layers _____ of the cerebral cortex.

A) I and II

B) III and IV

C) V and VI

D) I and VI.

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26

Chapter 8: Extension: A - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) The subjective experience that results from sensory processing is referred to as: A) sensation.

B) perception.

C) introspection.

D) intellection.

Q2) The sensory homunculus is a cortical representation of:

A) the body proportional to body surface area.

B) the body proportional to body surface sensitivity.

C) the body proportional to muscle number.

D) conscious bodily sensations.

Q3) The eardrum marks the boundary between the:

A) outer and middle ear.

B) middle and inner ear.

C) semicircular canals and cochlea.

D) outer ear and the stirrup.

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27

Chapter 8: Extension: B - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Identify, in correct order, the major connections of the pathway underlying fine touch, pressure, and proprioception from the spinal cord to the cortex.

Q2) What two kinds of events can take place at the neuronal synapses between one relay and the next in a sensory system?

Q3) Identify, in correct order, the major connections of the geniculostriate system from the eye to the cortex.

Q4) Identify, in correct order, the major neural connections of the auditory system from the inner ear to the cortex.

Q5) vision ___

A)lateral geniculate nucleus

B)dorsomedial nucleus

C)ventral posteromedial nucleus

D)ventrolateral nucleus

Q6) olfaction ___

A)lateral geniculate nucleus

B)dorsomedial nucleus

C)ventral posteromedial nucleus

D)ventrolateral nucleus

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Chapter 8: Extension: C - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Brodmann's area 41 is associated with which sense?

A) taste

B) vision

C) olfaction

D) audition

Q2) To communicate with the brain, the sensory systems use:

A) different codes depending on the type of receptors.

B) different codes depending on the target in the brain.

C) different codes depending on the reflexes and movements made in relation to the stimulation.

D) a common code to communicate, sending information to the brain with action potentials.

Q3) The retina is to seeing as the _____ is to hearing.

A) round window

B) ear drum

C) organ of Corti

D) cochlea

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Page 29

Chapter 9: Extension: A - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Movement sequences are organized by neurons in the: A) premotor cortex.

B) primary motor cortex.

C) prefrontal cortex.

D) cerebellum.

Q2) Neurons that respond both when the subject performs an action and when the subject observes the action being performed are called _____ neurons.

A) Renshaw

B) bipolar

C) mirror

D) copycat

Q3) Research by Evarts found that the firing rate of neurons in the monkey motor cortex: A) increased as the amount of force required to make a wrist movement increased. B) decreased as the amount of force required to make a wrist movement increased. C) was not related to the amount of force required to generate wrist movement. D) varied with the monkey's emotional state.

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Chapter 9: Extension: B - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Keele and Ivry ___

A)ethological categories of movement

B)cerebellum and timing of movements

C)movement direction-sensitive motor neurons

D)electrical mapping of motor cortex

Q2) Describe how motor cortex and corresponding parietal cortex topograghical regions produce movement.

Q3) Michael Graziano ___

A)ethological categories of movement

B)cerebellum and timing of movements

C)movement direction-sensitive motor neurons

D)electrical mapping of motor cortex

Q4) What are ethological categories of movement, as defined by Graziano? How are they represented in the brain?

Q5) Describe the homunculus as mapped by Penfield. What changes have been made subsequently?

Q6) What is meant by the term "movement lexicon"?

Q7) In which lobes of human cerebral cortex have "mirror neurons" been found?

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Q8) What conclusions can be drawn from Hess's research on electrical stimulation of the brain?

Chapter 9: Extension: C - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Which three components of motor cortex organization were proposed by Graziano?

A) the part of the body moved, duration of movement, and spatial location

B) the part of the body moved, spatial location to which movement is directed, and function of movement

C) the spatial location to which a movement is directed, duration of movement, and when movement is initiated

D) the function of the movement, when the movement is initiated, and the part of the body moved

Q2) "Mirror neurons" got their name because they discharge:

A) only when a monkey sees another monkey or human make a movement.

B) when a monkey makes a movement or sees another monkey or person make that movement.

C) only when a monkey can see itself making a movement.

D) contralateral to the side of the body that makes the movement.

Q3) Which of these neurons project to muscles?

A) extensor neurons

B) interneurons

C) corticospinal neurons

D) pyramidal neurons

Answer Key

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Chapter 10: Extension: A - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) All aspiny neurons are thought to release _____ as one of their neurotransmitters.

A) glutamate

B) GABA

C) histamine

D) dopamine

Q2) Specific thalamic afferents in the mammalian brain terminate primarily in layer _____ of the neocortex.

A) III

B) II

C) IV

D) V

Q3) The ability of one cortical area to influence another from which it receives input is referred to as _____.

A) binding

B) hierarchical communication

C) multiple representations

D) reentry

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Page 33

Chapter 10: Extension: B - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) List the major differences between pyramidal cells and aspiny neurons.

Q2) Name the general anatomical targets of the outputs from each of the six neocortical layers.

Q3) What are the behavioral similarities and differences between normal infants and mesencephalic infants, such as those examined by Gamper and Brackbill?

Q4) Contrast Luria's model of cortical function with that of Felleman and van Essen. Answer Key

Q5) What is a "plastic" neural system?

Q6) Zeki ___

A)cortical stimulation

B)hierarchical model

C)cortical maps

D)cortical modules

Q7) Distinguish between voluntary and automatic behaviors in terms of the level of the brain necessary for their production. Give two examples of each.

Q8) occipital lobe ___

A)auditory and visual

B)auditory and somatosensory

C)auditory, visual, and somatosensory

Page 34

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Chapter 10: Extension: C - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) The deepest layer of the cerebral cortex is given the Roman numeral _____.

A) I

B) III

C) IV

D) VI

Q2) In Luria's theory of cortical function, the frontal lobe is viewed as the _____.

A) reentry point

B) motor unit

C) sensory register

D) movement lexicon

Q3) The individual who first studied the development of myelin in the cortex was _____.

A) Bard

B) Gamper

C) Flechsig

D) Luria

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Chapter 11: Extension: A - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) The ability of the right hemisphere to support language abilities after damage to the left hemisphere supports:

A) isolationist models.

B) supermodels.

C) specialization models.

D) interaction models.

Q2) If you placed a common object such as a key out of sight in the left hand of a typical commissurotomy patient, she:

A) could neither recognize it by shape nor name it.

B) could recognize it by shape and verbally name it.

C) could identify the object verbally, but not describe its shape.

D) could recognize the object by its shape, but not identify it verbally.

Q3) When viewing chimeric stimuli, the commissurotomy patients studied by Levy and coworkers tended to recognize _____.

A) both faces, as do normal subjects

B) the face flashed to the right visual field only

C) the face flashed to the left visual field only

D) neither face

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Chapter 11: Extension: B - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) What might be the functional significance of the increased dendritic branching observed in the left hemisphere language areas relative to analogous areas in the right hemisphere?

Q2) gentler slope of Sylvian fissure ___

A) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the left hemisphere

B) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the right hemisphere.

Q3) Explain how cerebral functions differ more by "site" than by "side."

Q4) Using an example from the text or lecture, and describe a double dissociation of function.

Q5) rhythm perception ___

A) if there is typically a right-ear advantage

B) if there is typically a left-ear advantage

C) if there is no ear advantage.

Q6) What is the basis for Robert Efron's skepticism on the usefulness of laterality research?

Q7) Why has it been so difficult for neuropsychologists to discover the functions of the right hemisphere?

Q8) extends farther anteriorly ___

Page 38

A) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the left hemisphere

B) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the right hemisphere.

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Chapter 11: Extension: C - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Doubling of Heschl's gyrus is typically seen in _____.

A) the right hemisphere

B) men rather than women

C) the left hemisphere

D) individuals with high IQs

Q2) When measuring language lateralization, how do the results of dichotic - listening tasks differ from the results of brain stimulation in right - handed subjects?

A) Dichotic listening shows a higher rate of left lateralization.

B) Brain stimulation shows a higher rate of left lateralization.

C) Brain stimulation is more closely matched to the results of anatomical studies.

D) There is no difference in the results reported.

Q3) The tachistoscope is often used to test subjects with respect to _____.

A) motor skills

B) vision

C) memory for nonsense syllables

D) speech production

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Chapter 12: Extension: A - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Verbal fluency has been reported by Rahman and colleagues to be greatest in:

A) heterosexual women.

B) heterosexual men.

C) homosexual women.

D) homosexual men.

Q2) Anatomical asymmetries, including those of the brain:

A) are present before birth.

B) emerge at puberty.

C) emerge in adulthood.

D) decrease during development.

Answer Key

Q3) According to Ratcliffe and colleagues, anatomical asymmetries show a stronger correlation with _____ than with _____.

A) language; handedness

B) handedness; language

C) cognitive mode; handedness

D) language; cognitive mode

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Chapter 12: Extension: B - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Identify three environmental theories of hand preference. Discuss one in detail.

Q2) What is the relationship between anatomical asymmetry, handedness, and language lateralization?

Q3) What is the significance of a larger corpus callosum for cerebral asymmetry?

Q4) What explanations may account for the larger cross - sectional areas of the corpus callosum in left - handed individuals?

Q5) Briefly describe some behavioral tests that reliably distinguish between males and females.

Q6) superior mental rotation ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Q7) Describe the proposed developmental progression of cerebral asymmetry from the embryonic state through adulthood.

Q8) What is the evidence for cerebral lateralization in birds and nonhuman primates?

Answer Key

Q9) larger splenium of corpus callosum ___

A) if it is truer for males than for females

B) if it is truer for females than for males

C) if there is no reliable sex difference.

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Chapter 12: Extension: C - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Which is true for men when compared with women?

A) larger lateral frontal areas

B) greater relative amounts of gray matter

C) more densely packed neurons in the temporal lobe

D) a larger cingulate cortex area

Q2) According to McBurney and colleagues, women outperform men at _____.

A) mathematical reasoning

B) spatial memory

C) mental rotation

D) spatial navigation

Q3) According to Collins and Kimura, men outperform women at _____.

A) visual recognition memory

B) computation

C) mental rotation

D) fine motor skills

Q4) In general, which is true of women when compared with men?

A) more left-handedness

B) larger splenium of the corpus callosum

C) larger isthmus of the corpus callosum

D) larger absolute cross-sectional area of the corpus callosum

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Chapter 13: Extension: A - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) Complete unilateral destruction of the left occipital lobe would result in:

A) left visual field hemianopia.

B) right visual field hemianopia.

C) right monocular blindness.

D) left monocular blindness.

Q2) There are specialized regions of the visual cortex for processing all of the following stimuli EXCEPT:

A) color.

B) form.

C) motion.

D) emotion.

Q3) As seen in subject B.K., preceding his stroke and development of a lasting scotoma, he had a history of _____ in which the aura was usually a(n) _____ .

A) epilepsy; olfactory hallucination

B) classic migraine; auditory hallucination

C) epilepsy; lightheadedness

D) classic migraine; left visual field defect

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Chapter 13: Extension: B - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) Distinguish between apperceptive agnosia and associative agnosia.

Q2) prosopagnosia ___

A)right medial occipitotemporal damage, including at the fusiform and lingual gyri

B)bilateral damage below the calcarine fissure at the temporal junction

C)anterior temporal lobe damage

D)bilateral lateral occipital lobe damage

Q3) Characterize the dorsal stream and the ventral stream in the Milner-Goodale model of cortical organization.

Q4) associative agnosia ___

A)right medial occipitotemporal damage, including at the fusiform and lingual gyri

B)bilateral damage below the calcarine fissure at the temporal junction

C)anterior temporal lobe damage

D)bilateral lateral occipital lobe damage

Q5) V3 ___

A)required for "dynamic form" perception

B)required for conscious vision

C)required for color perception

D)required for motion perception

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Chapter 13: Extension: C - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) Destruction of one optic nerve will produce _____.

A) scotoma

B) monocular blindness

C) homonymous hemianopia

D) bitemporal hemianopia

Q2) Small blind spots resulting from small lesions in the occipital lobe are known as _____.

A) scotomas

B) nystagmus

C) macular sparing

D) hemianopia

Q3) Individuals with damage to area V1 can still receive visual input to higher levels, in part via a pathway involving the _____ nucleus of the thalamus.

A) medial geniculate

B) pulvinar

C) collicular

D) interstitial

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Chapter 14: Extension: A - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) The supramarginal gyrus and angular gyrus make up the:

A) superior parietal lobe.

B) inferior parietal lobe.

C) primary somatosensory cortex.

D) postcentral gyrus.

Q2) In von Economo's mapping system, area PE MOST closely corresponds to Brodmann area(s) _____.

A) 1, 2, and 3

B) 5 and 7

C) 39

D) 40 and 43

Q3) Which of the following is more likely to be seen in subjects with right parietal lobe lesions?

A) contralateral neglect

B) dyslexia

C) dyscalculia

D) ideomotor apraxia

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46

Chapter 14: Extension: B - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) dressing disability ___

A) if the percentage of subjects showing the symptom is greater following left parietal lobe damage

B) if the percentage of subjects showing the symptom is greater following right parietal lobe damage.

Q2) afferent paresis ___

A)indifference to illness

B)ability to point to touched area despite lack of conscious perception of the touch C)finger clumsiness due to lost sensory feedback

D)failure to perceive one of two similar stimuli presented simultaneously

Q3) anosodiaphoria ___

A)indifference to illness

B)ability to point to touched area despite lack of conscious perception of the touch C)finger clumsiness due to lost sensory feedback

D)failure to perceive one of two similar stimuli presented simultaneously

Q4) Describe the two stages of recovery of contralateral neglect.

Q5) Compare and contrast the roles of the parietal cortex in recognizing objects and guiding movement.

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Chapter 14: Extension: C - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) The _____ is used to test for apraxia.

A) Kimura Box Test

B) two-point discrimination test

C) Seguin-Goddard Form Board test

D) Token Test

Answer Key

Q2) A patient shaves only one side of his face, reads only half of compound words, and dresses and uses only half of his body. Collectively, this patient is exhibiting symptoms of

A) topographic disability

B) anosagnosia

C) constructional apraxia

D) contralateral neglect

Q3) Which is more likely after left parietal damage?

A) unilateral neglect

B) cube counting

C) dressing disability

D) more errors in Weigl's Sorting Test

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Chapter 15: Extension: A - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) Which of the following is an example of temporal lobe cross - modal matching?

A) perceiving both the form and color of an object simultaneously

B) using the left hemisphere and the right hemisphere simultaneously to perceive a voice

C) making an association between the vocal characteristics and the face of a well-known pop singer

D) distinguishing among melodies played in the Lydian, Aeolian, and Locrian scales

Q2) Imaging studies suggest that the fusiform face area may activate more generally during tasks that involve:

A) using experience to discriminate between complex stimuli within the same tactile category.

B) viewing faces in close proximity

C) accurately identifying the location of faces flashed briefly on a screen.

D) using experience to generate rapid, accurate motor responses.

Q3) Medial temporal lobe structures are BEST associated with:

A) visual attention.

B) long-term memory storage.

C) long-term memory formation.

D) pitch perception.

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Page 49

Chapter 15: Extension: B - The Temporal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) How would you know a temporal lobe personality if you met one?

Q2) inferotemporal cortex (TE) ___

A)fearful states

B)visual input

C)social cognition

D)taste perception

Q3) Choose one standard clinical neuropsychological test used to assess temporal lobe function, and describe it in some detail. Identify the specific cognitive function it is intended to evaluate.

Answer Key

Q4) Rey Complex - Figure test ___

A)verbal memory

B)language comprehension

C)nonverbal memory

D)auditory processing

Q5) What are the relationships between temporal - lobe anatomy and musicality? What do these relationships imply about the innateness of musical ability?

Q6) What is the relationship between the stimuli that most strongly activate neurons in the STS and the construct of social cognition?

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Chapter 15: Extension: C - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) The perception of emotional significance of stimuli appears to depend on the integrity of the _____.

A) hippocampus

B) insula

C) amygdala

D) superior temporal gyrus

Q2) The medial temporal cortex and amygdala on each side of the brain are connected via the _____.

A) corpus callosum

B) stria terminalis

C) arcuate fasciculus

D) anterior commissure

Q3) The perforant pathway is a set of projections that lead from _____ and are crucial to the proper functioning of learning and memory.

A) Heschl's gyrus

B) Brodmann's area 41

C) the hippocampus

D) the amygdala

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51

Chapter 16: Extension: A - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) Which of the following regions of the frontal cortex is characterized by the presence of multimodal neurons?

A) area 46

B) area 4

C) area 11

D) area 10

Q2) A subject who is asked to learn an arbitrary stimulus - response association would exhibit relatively more activity in the _____ than in the _____.

A) premotor cortex; supplementary motor cortex

B) supplementary motor cortex; premotor cortex

C) prefrontal cortex; orbitofrontal cortex

D) frontal eye fields; premotor cortex

Q3) Tests measuring finger - tapping speed and grip strength BEST measure the function of the:

A) superior frontal gyrus.

B) premotor gyrus.

C) postcentral gyrus.

D) precentral gyrus.

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Chapter 16: Extension: B - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) What are two possible interpretations of Passingham's findings concerning area 46 lesions in monkeys?

Q2) How would you answer someone who asked, "Are the frontal lobes in primates the site of advanced mammalian behavior"?

Q3) Just as you are about to complain to a friend about the unjustly bad grade you received on a recent exam, you recognize your professor approaching. You manage to smile and withhold your angry comments until he passes out of earshot. Describe the brain regions and their respective functions likely to have been particularly involved in helping you to avoid this potentially embarrassing social situation.

Q4) Name four cognitive skills impaired by dorsolateral frontal cortex damage.

Q5) Describe the neural networks that support successful performance of Bechara and Damasio's gambling task.

Q6) Compare and contrast the effects of temporal and frontal lobe lesions on tests of recency memory.

Q7) What are the general effects of frontal lesions on divergent thinking? On convergent thinking?

Q8) What is the "problem" for which the concept of corollary discharge is the "answer"?

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Chapter 16: Extension: C - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) Risk - taking behavior, particularly on tasks that involve gambling, has been shown to be influenced by which portion of the prefrontal cortex?

A) the orbitofrontal cortex

B) the cingulate cortex

C) area 44

D) Broca's area

Q2) The Wisconsin Card - Sorting Test is MOST appropriate to evaluate _____.

A) behavioral spontaneity

B) convergent thinking

C) response inhibition

D) memory

Q3) Defective performance in _____ is more likely following left, rather than right, frontal - lobe damage.

A) verbal fluency

B) block construction

C) time orientation

D) design copying

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Chapter 17: Extension: A - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) Most projections of the corpus callosum are:

A) organized topographically and project ipsilaterally.

B) diffusely distributed and project contralaterally.

C) organized topographically and project contralaterally.

D) organized homotopically and project subcortically.

Q2) A subject with damage to the anterior commissure would be impaired on a task examining interhemispheric transfer of:

A) visual stimuli.

B) tactile stimuli.

C) vestibular stimuli.

D) olfactory stimuli.

Q3) Mishkin and his colleagues have extended the study of cortical disconnection to:

A) animal models using monkeys.

B) human split-brain subjects.

C) animal models using rats and mice.

D) computer simulations of behavior.

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Chapter 17: Extension: B - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) anosmia ___

A)lack of sense of smell

B)inability to make coordinated voluntary movements

C)difficulty copying geometric designs

D)inability to read

Q2) Compare the verbal naming responses of commissurotomy patients with visual stimuli flashed to the left - and right - visual fields.

Q3) Describe the three general classes of projections of corpus callosal fibers.

Q4) Mishkin ___

A)constructed animal models of disconnection syndromes

B)hypothetized conduction aphasia

C)studied "split-brain" patients

D)defined disconnection syndromes

Q5) What do discussions regarding disconnecting cognitive functions conclude about the concept of localization of function within the brain?

Q6) What is the "zipper hypothesis"?

Q7) Why do the authors suggest that disconnection hypotheses are applicable in brain dysfunction?

Q8) Identify the three major types of fiber pathways found in the neocortex. Page 56

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Chapter 17: Extension: C - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) Typically, if you placed a common object in his or her right hand, a blindfolded commissurotomy patient would:

A) not recognize the object.

B) identify the object by saying its name.

C) point to a matching object with his or her left hand only after the blindfold is removed.

D) identify the object by drawing a picture.

Q2) Preilowski (1975) performed an experiment in which he required commissurized patients to draw a diagonal line using the popular children's toy Etch A Sketch. What was being tested in this experiment?

A) artistic abilities

B) the ability to use both hands in concert

C) divergent thinking

D) spatial abilities

Q3) Downer's experiment with monkeys involved lesions to the _____.

A) amygdala

B) visual cortex

C) hippocampal commissure

D) prefrontal cortex

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Chapter 18: Extension: A - Learning and Memory

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Q1) Degeneration of the cells of the basal ganglia is responsible for:

A) Parkinson's disease.

B) Huntington's chorea.

C) Korsakoff's syndrome.

D) Asperger's syndrome.

Q2) Enhanced neural activity during the delay phase of a task requiring short - term memory for the location of a stimulus in space would MOST likely be observed in the:

A) primary visual cortex.

B) orbitofrontal cortex.

C) frontal eye fields.

D) superior temporal cortex.

Q3) Based on findings with herpes encephalitis patients, it appears that the ability to access previously acquired memories depends in part on the:

A) substantia nigra.

B) right parietal cortex.

C) insula.

D) anterior cingulate.

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Chapter 18: Extension: B - Learning and Memory

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Q1) What are the neural pathways that differentiate fear conditioning and classical conditioning?

Q2) perirhinal cortex ___

A)episodic memory

B)confabulation

C)emotional coloring

D)recognition memory

Q3) Characterize the differences between left and right temporal lobe damage with respect to amnesic symptoms.

Q4) Hebb recurring - digits ___

A) if it is more disrupted by left hemisphere lesions

B) if it is more disrupted by right hemisphere lesions

C) if there is no discernible difference between left and right hemisphere lesions on performance of the task.

Q5) face recognition ___

A) if it is more disrupted by left hemisphere lesions

B) if it is more disrupted by right hemisphere lesions

C) if there is no discernible difference between left and right hemisphere lesions on performance of the task.

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Chapter 18: Extension: C - Learning and Memory

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Q1) The patient known as H.M. shows memory performance equal to that of normal control subjects in memory studies that include which manipulation?

A) visual search

B) spatial learning

C) mood congruence

D) priming

Q2) "HERA" stands for _____.

A) high emotional retrograde amnesia

B) hippocampal-entorhinal retrograde amnesia

C) hemispheric encoding and retrieval asymmetry

D) hologram encoding retrieval assessment

Q3) Both Ammon's horn and the dentate gyrus are components of which brain structure that is crucial to learning and memory?

A) the amygdala

B) the hypothalamus

C) the cerebellum

D) the hippocampus

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61

Chapter 19: Extension: A - Language

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Q1) Changes that have occurred to the human vocal tract through the course of evolution allow humans to produce a wide range of speech sounds known as:

A) formants.

B) phonemes.

C) morphemes.

D) morphants.

Q2) Damage to the right hemisphere affects aspects of language, including:

A) sequencing of speech.

B) speech rhythm perception.

C) generation and perception of prosody.

D) syntactic organization.

Q3) Studies using transcranial magnetic stimulation have suggested a close relationship between areas responsible for:

A) language and eye movements.

B) language and mouth movements.

C) hand movements and mouth movements.

D) language and consciousness.

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Chapter 19: Extension: B - Language

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Q1) Your patient has undergone a right hemispherectomy to remove cancerous tissue. What symptoms should the patient and the family expect?

Q2) anomia ___

A)unintended word production

B)word-finding deficit

C)muscular incoordination

D)reading deficit

Q3) List four major findings based on experiments involving electrical stimulation of the human brain. Which one do you think had the most influence on neuropsychology?

Q4) With regards to the dual language model, compare and contrast the roles of the dorsal and ventral language pathways

Q5) alexia ___

A)unintended word production

B)word-finding deficit

C)muscular incoordination

D)reading deficit

Q6) Identify three examples of phonemes and three examples of morphemes in this sentence.

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Chapter 19: Extension: C - Language

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Q1) An imaging study done by Damasio et al. (1996) demonstrated that:

A) both temporal lobes are functionally symmetrical in nonhuman animals.

B) phylogenetically the temporal lobe was the last part of the brain to develop.

C) temporal lobe seizures actually begin in the basal ganglia.

D) there are separate regions in the temporal lobe for the storage of different categories of information.

Q2) Syntax is more generally referred to as _____.

A) word flow

B) grammar

C) prosody

D) articulation

Q3) _____ may refer to a disorder of language apparent in speech, in writing (in this case also called _____), or in reading (also called _____), produced by injury to brain areas specialized for these functions.

A) Dysthymia; dyslexia; Wernicke's syndrome

B) Aphasia; agraphia; alexia

C) Agnosia; prosopagnosia; global aphasia

D) Akinetopsia; achromatopsia; dyslexia

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64

Chapter 20: Extension: A - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) The person who first performed frontal lobotomies in humans was:

A) Carlyle Jacobsen.

B) Paul Bucy.

C) Egas Moniz.

D) Philip Bard.

Q2) Based on Gainotti's study of the effects of unilateral cortical lesions on emotionality, a patient who shows pronounced indifference to emotional situations would be MOST likely also to show deficits on:

A) the paragraph recall test.

B) a verbal IQ test.

C) the line bisection test.

D) tests of right-left discrimination.

Q3) A normal subject would show a left - ear advantage when listening to:

A) the sounds of a crying baby.

B) a narrated fairy tale.

C) Morse code.

D) the sounds of a crying baby, a narrated fairy tale, and Morse code.

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65

Chapter 20: Extension: B - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) Support or attack the following statement: The emotional complexity of mammals is due to evolutionary changes in the frontal lobes.

Q2) Discuss the evidence for and against the idea that emotion enhances the ability to think rationally or logically rather than impairs it.

Q3) Identify the major contribution to the study of emotion for the following individuals: Papez, Klüver and Bucy, and Gainotti.

Q4) What is sensory aprosodia? What is motor aprosodia?

Q5) How might social and emotional behaviors differ between a person whose prefrontal cortex had been damaged early in childhood and one who had sustained similar damage in adulthood?

Q6) What are the key neural structures in the original (1937) Papez circuit? What structures have been added in the more current "limbic circuit of emotion"?

Q7) The patient has suffered a stroke involving the frontal lobes. You, as the attending neuropsychologist, have been asked to evaluate his emotional status. What do you do?

Q8) Present evidence that the right hemisphere is differently involved in emotional processes than is the left in humans.

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Chapter 20: Extension: C - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) Which is more characteristic of right - hemisphere damage than of left - hemisphere damage?

A) judgment of propositional affect

B) comprehension of verbal humor

C) matching emotional expressions

D) judgment of emotional expressions

Q2) Which is NOT a principal behavioral component that must be included in any substantive contemporary theory of emotion?

A) self-reported cognition

B) stereotypical motor behavior

C) unconscious behavior

D) physiology

Q3) The _____ neural network in the frontal lobe is NOT a necessary component of selfawareness.

A) right frontoparietal

B) cortical midline

C) anterior cingulate

D) insula

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Chapter 21: Extension: A - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) A neuron that reliably reacts with a burst of activity at regular intervals as an animal moves through the environment would BEST be classified as a:

A) grid cell.

B) place cell.

C) response cell.

D) head-direction cell

Q2) The failure to identify individual landmarks while retaining the ability to identify the classes of objects to which the landmarks belong is an example of:

A) Bálint's syndrome.

B) landmark agnosia.

C) topographic amnesia.

D) egocentric disorientation.

Q3) In order to use dead reckoning, nonhuman animals use:

A) heading cues.

B) landmark cues.

C) self-movement cues.

D) olfactory cues.

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Chapter 21: Extension: B - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) O'Keefe ___

A)head-direction cells

B)parietal lobe role in spatial memory

C)frontal lobe role in spatial memory

D)hippocampal place cells

Q2) What evidence exists that neurogenesis may play an important role in spatial memory ability?

Q3) Distinguish between place cells and head - direction cells.

Q4) How do Turner's syndrome individuals perform on spatial tasks (on average)? What may account for their performance?

Answer Key

Q5) heading disorientation ___

A)inability to determine a direction of movement

B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation

C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self

D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks

Q6) Why is the Morris water maze so useful in studying spatial behavior?

Q7) What is landmark agnosia?

Q8) Distinguish between the two types of topographic disorientation.

Q9) Distinguish between egocentric disorientation and heading orientation. Page 69

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Chapter 21: Extension: C - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) The hypothesis stating that gender differences in spatial abilities are due to hormonal changes during puberty is supported by research done with individuals with which chromosomal abnormality?

A) Down syndrome

B) Klinefelter syndrome

C) XYY syndrome

D) Turner's syndrome

Q2) The studies conducted on food caching in birds demonstrates that:

A) birds with frontal lobe lesions show no difficulty in finding the seeds that they have cached.

B) African and Asian birds are more likely to use dead reckoning to find their cache sites.

C) birds who cache seeds have a larger hippocampus.

D) testosterone is crucial to producing birdsong and also to remembering cache sites.

Q3) Moving toward a cue or object (route following) is also called:

A) head direction.

B) cue learning.

C) GPS navigation.

D) topographic learning.

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Chapter 22: Extension: A - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) Kolb and Whishaw suggest that when we multitask, we recruit additional resources from which brain region?

A) the parietal cortex

B) the prefrontal cortex

C) the hippocampus

D) the occipital lobe

Q2) Stimuli that "pop out" in a visual array illustrate the concept of:

A) top-down processing.

B) attention-dependent processing.

C) bottom-up processing.

D) stereotopographic insolence.

Q3) Frontal lobe neglect differs from parietal lobe neglect, because it is directed only to the region of the perception of _____ space.

A) distant

B) virtual

C) grasping

D) adaptive

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Chapter 22: Extension: B - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) What is the evidence that the response characteristics of neurons in the monkey brain change with task demands?

Q2) What is "attentional blink"?

Q3) attention to location

A)area V4

B)anterior cingulate

C)areas V3 and TE

D)parietal cortex

Q4) feature maps ___

A)Treisman

B)Moran and Desimone

C)Kahneman

D)Posner and Petersen

Q5) Regarding the cerebral source of consciousness, discuss which brain regions have been identified as crucial to conscious behavior.

Q6) What are the paradigms of inattention?

Q7) Define "bottom - up" processing and "top - down" processing. Give an example of each.

Q8) Which processes are critical for consciousness?

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Chapter 22: Extension: C - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) Regarding attention, an example of an automatic process would be:

A) driving a five-speed (automatic shift) car

B) searching for a street sign

C) learning to play piano by ear

D) learning to read braille

Q2) Temporary reductions in the field defect present in patients with contralateral neglect were observed by Rossetti after the use of _____.

A) aids to memory, such as taking notes on the location of objects

B) increased rewards for such reductions

C) prisms that shifted the visual field to the right

D) Contralateral neglect is impervious to attempts to reduce it.

Q3) When subjects fail to detect a second visual target if it is presented within half a second of the first one, this is called _____.

A) inattentional blindness

B) attentional blink

C) change blindness

D) retrograde amnesia

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Chapter 23: Extension: A - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) In terms of escaping with minimal effects of brain damage on language, the BEST age to incur the damage would be:

A) before 1 year of age.

B) between 1 and 5 years of age.

C) between 6 and 10 years of age.

D) after 10 years of age.

Q2) The concept that sparing of function follows infant brain lesions is known as the:

A) Hubel and Wiesel law.

B) Kennard principle.

C) Basser hypothesis.

D) Flechsig concept.

Q3) Neuroimaging studies of children with childhood - onset schizophrenia show a _____ in cortical gray volume.

A) 10 percent decrease

B) 30 percent decrease

C) 10 percent increase

D) 30 percent increase

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Chapter 23: Extension: B - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) What is the Kennard principle? Explain why it is good news for infants who suffer early damage.

Q2) Piaget ___

A)speech lateralization

B)ocular dominance columns

C)myelination index

D)cognitive development

Q3) What is the role of radial glial cells in neuron cell migration?

Q4) Why would it be beneficial to provide regular tactile stimulation to an infant who had suffered a cortical lesion?

Q5) Identify the five phases of synapse formation in the cerebral cortex of primates as proposed by Bourgeois.

Q6) How might the developmental course of myelination be related to the maturation of motor skills?

Q7) What are the effects on visual cortical neurons of monocular deprivation during the early life of kittens?

Q8) What brain abnormalities have been found in children with ADHD?

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Q9) What evidence from rats indicates that pregnant mothers should have access to stimulating environments?

Chapter 23: Extension: C - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) Which CANNOT be seen in rats after exposure to complex environments?

A) an increased density of glial cells

B) an increased length of dendrites

C) an increased size of synapses

D) a decreased density of glial cells

Q2) Studies demonstrate that parietal regions controlling spatial and language abilities mature at which age?

A) 7 to 10 years

B) 11 to 13 years

C) 3 to 5 years

D) 14 to 17 years

Q3) The Piaget stage of cognitive development, characterized by the ability to reason abstractly, is called the _____ stage and occurs around the age(s) of _____.

A) formal operational; 12

B) concrete operational; 12

C) formal operational; 7 to 11

D) concrete operational; 7 to 11

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Chapter 24: Extension: A - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) Developmentally dyslexic individuals do particularly poorly on the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children test of:

A) comprehension.

B) digit span.

C) similarities.

D) vocabulary.

Q2) By adolescence, _____ percent to _____ percent of hyperactive children have begun to have problems with the law.

A) 5; 10

B) 15; 30

C) 25; 50

D) 50; 75

Q3) Although controversial, the stimulant Ritalin is widely used in the treatment of: A) dyslexia.

B) autism.

C) cerebral palsy.

D) hyperactivity.

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Chapter 24: Extension: B - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) According to DSM - 5, what are the main diagnostic criteria of ADHD?

Q2) What does the research of Tallal suggest is a leading cause of learning disabilities?

Q3) Why do stimulants such as amphetamines sometimes improve the performance of cognitive skills in learning - disabled children?

Q4) What are the four categories of potential causes of cerebral palsy? Give an example of each.

Q5) How would you counsel the parents of a child with mild learning disabilities, which are, in all likelihood, due to some genetic cause?

Q6) What are some early signs that a child may have an autism spectrum disorder?

Q7) autism ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q8) Distinguish between graphemic and phonological reading. Give an example of each.

Q9) What is the basic premise of the Geschwind-Galaburda hypothesis? Do you find any flaw in this premise?

Page 79

Q10) Distinguish between cerebral palsy and hydrocephalus.

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Chapter 24: Extension: C - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) Boys are NOT diagnosed more with _____ than girls.

A) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

B) fragile-X syndrome

C) autism

D) acquired dyslexia

Q2) _____ is treated by the insertion into one lateral ventricle of a valve and a tube that passes into a jugular vein to drain into the cardiac atrium.

A) Cerebral palsy

B) Hyperlexia

C) Fragile-X syndrome

D) Hydrocephalus

Q3) The effects of fetal alcohol syndrome are worst if drinking takes place during the _____.

A) first trimester

B) second trimester

C) third trimester

D) last month of pregnancy

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Chapter 25: Extension: A - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) After completing an evaluation of a patient who experienced a stroke in the left hemisphere and has possible aphasia, you have determined that some aspects of language have been spared. To what would you attribute this finding?

A) There was some language function recovery within 24 hours of injury.

B) Some language functions may be mediated by the right hemisphere.

C) Some language functions are controlled by brain-stem structures.

D) Some language functions may be mediated by the left hemisphere.

Q2) Brain implants of fetal tissue are currently in experimental use for the treatment of:

A) diffuse brain damage.

B) postencephalitic amnesia.

C) cerebral palsy.

D) Parkinson's disease.

Q3) Ramachandran and Hirstein found that following hand amputations the cortical map of the hand could be detected by stroking the:

A) opposite hand.

B) face.

C) ear lobes.

D) arm.

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Chapter 25: Extension: B - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) What evidence is there that sensory maps can be modified by experience?

Q2) The authors list four major therapeutic approaches to brain damage. What are they?

Q3) What is the relationship between age at time of brain injury and recovery? What is disheartening about Teuber's analysis of this relationship?

Q4) Nudo et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q5) Jacobs et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q6) What is the sequence of recovery (four stages) seen by Twitchell in braindamaged patients?

Q7) What is the relationship between neuronal cell complexity and the computational demands on the cell?

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Chapter 25: Extension: C - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) According to Teuber's research with wounded war veterans, which type of deficit shows the least recovery?

A) somatosensory

B) motor

C) visual

D) auditory

Q2) _____ is the loss of motor control of one or more digits because of increased muscle tone.

A) Focal hand dystonia

B) Long-term potentiation

C) Metaplasticity

D) Kindling

Q3) Among the changes that take place following a stroke, which is the last to appear?

A) inflammation

B) mRNA stimulation

C) ionic changes

D) protein production

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Chapter 26: Extension: A - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) The MOST benign type of brain tumor is:

A) meningioma.

B) metastatic tumor.

C) medulloblastoma.

D) glioblastoma.

Q2) Your patient is a 5 - year - old child. His mother reports that the child frequently collapses suddenly and without warning. The first diagnostic tool you should probably use is:

A) the Glasgow coma scale.

B) an EEG.

C) a complete body CT scan.

D) a drug scan for narcotics in the child's bloodstream.

Q3) "Cerebral vascular accident" is another term for:

A) stroke.

B) ischemia.

C) cerebral hemorrhage.

D) aneurysm.

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Chapter 26: Extension: B - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) Name at least five of the tools a neurologist uses in the course of a physical examination.

Q2) chorea ___

A)slow, persistent movements

B)involuntary jerky movements

C)muscle tone absent

D)muscular rigidity

Q3) The authors of your text list six ways in which cerebral trauma can affect brain function. Identify five of these (or all six).

Q4) What does the term "contrecoup" mean?

Q5) tardive dyskinesia ___

A)slow, persistent movements

B)involuntary jerky movements

C)muscle tone absent

D)muscular rigidity

Q6) Distinguish among the following: sleep attacks, cataplexy, and sleep paralysis.

Q7) What is the difference, in terms of both causes and symptoms, between paraplegia and Brown - Séquard syndrome?

Q8) What is the difference between an angioma and an aneurysm?

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Chapter 26: Extension: C - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) Slow, involuntary facial movements that often occur with long - term treatment with antipsychotic drugs are called _____.

A) athetosis

B) tardive dyskinesia

C) chorea

D) ataxia

Q2) An individual who sustains a traumatic brain injury will most likely develop a contusion at the point of impact, termed a:

A) contrecoup.

B) coma.

C) coup.

D) hematoma.

Q3) Masses of enlarged and tortuous cortical vessels that are supplied by one or more large arteries are called:

A) angiomas.

B) aneurysms.

C) thrombolitic vessels.

D) embolitic vessels.

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86

Chapter 27: Extension: A - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) The hormone that appears to be oversecreted in depression is:

A) BDNF.

B) cortisol.

C) testosterone.

D) thyroxine.

Q2) The main neurotransmitter system implicated in schizophrenia is:

A) acetylcholine.

B) dopamine.

C) norepinephrine.

D) serotonin.

Q3) Diminished activity in the _____ during the Wisconsin Card - Sorting Test has been observed in schizophrenics.

A) prefrontal cortex

B) hippocampus

C) parahippocampal gyri

D) tegmental area

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Chapter 27: Extension: B - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) What are the symptoms and underlying brain changes in Huntington's chorea?

Q2) Describe the sequence of changes in dendritic structure in normal aging and in advancing Alzheimer's disease.

Q3) Name the three psychiatric disorders that can result from stroke, as given in the textbook.

Q4) festination ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q5) Under what conditions would you favor psychosurgery for agitated schizophrenics?

Q6) Distinguish between type I and type II schizophrenia, according to the text.

Q7) Morrison ___

A)modern psychosurgery

B)cognitive behavioral therapy

C)Parkinson's disease

D)bipolar disorder

Q8) Cite the pharmacological evidence in support of a "dopamine theory" of schizophrenia.

Q9) What are the symptoms and underlying brain changes in Parkinson's disease? Page 88

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Chapter 27: Extension: C - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) Schizophrenia and Huntington's disease are both thought to involve abnormalities in the _____ - secreting systems of the brain.

A) acetylcholine

B) glutamate

C) GABA

D) dopamine

Q2) Examination of the Wisconsin Card - Sorting Test with schizophrenics suggests abnormalities in _____.

A) motor programming

B) prefrontal cortex structure and function

C) visual processing

D) dopamine metabolism

Q3) The positive symptoms of Parkinson's disease include all of the following EXCEPT _____.

A) tremor at rest

B) disorders of posture

C) muscular rigidity

D) involuntary movements

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Chapter 28: Extension: A - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) The development of neuropsychological test batteries was reinvigorated with the advent of:

A) managed care.

B) cognitive neuroscience.

C) the Rey Complex-Figure Test.

D) the WAIS-III.

Q2) Which is NOT a goal of assessment in clinical neuropsychology?

A) diagnosing the presence or absence of brain damage

B) facilitating patient care

C) identifying unusual brain organization

D) classifying disorders.

Q3) The combination of neuropsychological test development and imaging techniques has led to an understanding of the role of the right frontal lobe in:

A) social cognition.

B) visual acuity.

C) verbal memory.

D) spatial memory.

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Chapter 28: Extension: B - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) memory ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q2) self - control ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q3) What three factors have enhanced the rate of change in clinical neuropsychology in the past 15 to 20 years?

Q4) What is the "problem of effort"? Why does it pose difficulty for neuropsychologists?

Answer Key

Q5) Discuss how right - versus left - hemisphere damage would likely affect performance and verbal scores on the Weschler Scales.

Q6) Name three difficulties with cutoff scores in neuropsychological test batteries.

Q7) Identify four of the tests for language functions in the Boston Process Approach.

92

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Chapter 28: Extension: C - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) The authors suggest that the biggest change in neuropsychology since the 1980s has been the development of _____.

A) better psychiatric drugs

B) functional imaging

C) better paper-and-pencil tests

D) increased treatment of those suffering from psychological disorders.

Q2) The emergence of _____ in the 1990s produced a dramatic change in the theoretical understanding of brain and cognition.

A) better cut-off scores

B) more sophisticated test batteries

C) cognitive neuroscience

D) problem-solving tests

Q3) Which is a factor that neuropsychologists must remain aware of when conducting neuropsychological assessments, given their impact on test performance?

A) effects of gender

B) genetic contributions

C) substance abuse issues

D) variability of inter-subject cerebral organization

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