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Advanced Molecular Biology delves into the intricate mechanisms governing the organization, regulation, and expression of genetic material in prokaryotic and eukaryotic systems. The course explores cutting-edge topics such as genome editing technologies, epigenetic regulation, non-coding RNAs, and advanced gene expression systems. Students will analyze current research literature, examine experimental approaches like CRISPR-Cas systems and next-generation sequencing, and discuss applications of molecular biology in biotechnology and medicine. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking and experimental design skills through case studies and practical assignments.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Biology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark
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Q1) All of the following are eukaryotes,except .
A)plants
B)bacteria
C)animals
D)fungi
Answer: B
Q2) A lipid bilayer surrounds the . A)nucleus
B)cell
C)mitochondria
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q3) The process of duplicating DNA prior to cell division is called .
A)DNA replication
B)transcription
C)translation
D)gene expression
Answer: A
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Q1) Homologous chromosomes contain the same genes for the same traits at the same loci.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A allele determines the phenotype even when only one copy is present.
A)dominant
B)recessive
C)codominant
D)homozygous
Answer: A
Q3) Sex-linked genes are found on .
A)the X chromosome only
B)the Y chromosome only
C)either the X or the Y chromosome
D)the autosomes
Answer: C
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Q1) DNA plus associated proteins is called .
A)chromatin
B)ribosomes
C)nuclei
D)histones
Answer: A
Q2) During DNA base pairing,which of the following would be incorrectly paired?
A)guanine:cytosine
B)adenine:thymine
C)purine:purine
D)purine:pyrimindine
Answer: C
Q3) The free 3' end of nucleic acids contains a and the free 5' end contains a
A)phosphate;hydroxyl
B)hydroxyl;phosphate
C)phosphate;phosphate
D)hydroxyl;hydroxyl
Answer: B
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Q1) All of the following describe Z-DNA except .
A)left-handed helix
B)12 base pairs per turn
C)acid conditions
D)GC- or GT-rich tracts
Q2) A large amount of satellite DNA is found .
A)in euchromatin
B)around the centromeres of chromosomes
C)in loosely packed forms of chromatin
D)in Alu elements.
Q3) The most common form of DNA is A-DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Type II topoisomerases .
A)break both strands of DNA
B)include DNA gyrase,for example
C)change the linking number in steps of two
D)are all of the above
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Q1) What types of labels are added to probes to enable detection during hybridization experiments?
A)fluorescence
B)chemical
C)radioactive
D)all of the above
Q2) Agarose gel electrophoresis allows the separation of DNA based upon
A)charge
B)base composition
C)size
D)pH
Q3) Which of the following fragments of DNA would migrate closest to the wells during agarose gel electrophoresis?
A)1000 bp
B)150 bp
C)10,000 bp
D)650 bp
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Q1) In real time PCR,the presence of double-stranded DNA is detected by
A)fluorescence of SYBR Green
B)luminescence of SYBER Green
C)quenching of SYBR Green fluorescence
D)rapid decrease in the amount of SYBR Green fluorescence
Q2) Why must DNA be denatured during PCR?
A)DNA polymerases work best at higher temperatures.
B)Denaturing DNA separates the strands of DNA and allows primers to bind to complementary sequences.
C)The degraded DNA nucleotides are recycled during the synthesis step of PCR.
D)DNA does not need to be denatured for PCR to work.
Q3) Messenger RNA from eukaryotic cells can be specifically amplified using
A)Standard PCR
B)RT-PCR
C)Differential display PCR
D)RACE
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Q1) A collection of cloned DNA fragments is called a .
A)consortium
B)chromosomal database
C)chromosome library
D)gene library
Q2) Yeast artificial chromosomes must have and in order to function
A)origin of replication;internal resolution sites
B)telomere sequences;centromere sequences
C)multiple cloning sites;genes for nuclear proteins
D)multiple promoters;genes for antibiotic resistance
Q3) Reverse transcriptase generates cDNA from a template.
A)DNA
B)transfer RNA
C)messenger RNA
D)cDNA
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Q1) DNA chip technology relies on the hybridization of .
A)DNA to DNA
B)DNA to RNA
C)RNA to DNA
D)RNA to RNA
Q2) When DNA polymerase inserts a dideoxy nucleotide, .
A)chain elongation continues until the end of the template
B)energy is produced during the reaction
C)chain elongation is terminated
D)a primer is formed for the next round of sequencing
Q3) Which of the following is a method for detecting the addition of nucleotides in a sequencing reaction?
A)luminescence
B)fluorescence
C)changes in pH
D)all of the above
Q4) Nanopore technology is speedy and handles long DNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The genomes of some plants and a few protozoa have more genes than humans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following makes up more percentage of the human genome than the others listed in the answer choices?
A)protein coding genes
B)LINEs
C)heterochromatin
D)introns
Q3) Correlating individual genotypes with drug treatment is called .
A)genomics
B)pharmacogenetics
C)pharming
D)pharmacogenomics
Q4) In some metagenomic analyses,organisms in the community do not have to be cultured.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
A)mitosis
B)S-phase
C)G1
D)G2
Q2) In replication, is responsible for opening up and unwinding the DNA at
A)DNA polymerase
B)ligase
C)helicase
D)primase
Q3) Origins are replication are .
A)GC-rich
B)AT-rich
C)runs of adenine residues
D)heavily methylated
Q4) DNA is duplicated during mitosis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which enzyme is responsible for transcribing most eukaryotic protein-encoding genes?
A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)None of the above
Q2) The eukaryotic promoter recognized by RNA polymerase II contains three regions.Which of the following is not part of the trio?
A)TATA box
B)upstream elements
C)initiator box
D)Enhancer
Q3) Large ribosomal RNAs are transcribed by .
A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)None of the above
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Q1) Self-splicing introns,ribosomes,and RNase P are examples of .
A)ribozymes
B)proteins
C)RNA processing enzymes
D)structural RNAs
Q2) Some pre-rRNAs are processed to generate mature rRNA and tRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The regions of transcript that contain protein coding sequence are called
A)introns
B)exons
C)inteins
D)exteins
Q4) RNA processing includes .
A)base modification
B)intron removal and exon splicing
C)addition of extra bases
D)all of the above
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Q1) The RNA type that brings amino acids to the protein synthesis machinery is
A)mRNA
B)rRNA
C)snRNA
D)tRNA
Q2) The anticodon of the tRNA is complementary to the codon on mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a stop codon?
A)AUG
B)UAA
C)UAG
D)UGA
Q4) A triplet of three nucleotides found on the DNA or mRNA that codes for one amino acid is called a/an .
A)anticodon
B)codon
C)trio
D)peptide
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Q1) Denaturation destroys the primary structure of proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Quarternary structure results when a single polypeptide chain folds into multiple domains.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Dissociation refers to the loss of structure of proteins.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Q4) The tertiary structure of proteins is primarily maintained by .
A)hydrogen bonds
B)covalent bonds
C)hydrophobic interactions
D)disulfide bonds
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Q1) The primary antibody in a Western blot .
A)binds to the nitrocellulose membrane
B)is conjugated to a detection system
C)is used to block non-specific binding of the secondary antibody
D)binds to the specific protein
Q2) Inteins .
A)are protein self-splicing sequences
B)are portions of mRNA that are spliced out of the primary transcript
C)are never translated
D)are protein sequences that are part of functional proteins
Q3) When a virus displays multiple peptide sequences,this is termed .
A)phage array
B)yeast two hybrid system
C)phage display
D)protein microarray
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Q1) Global regulators .
A)control large numbers of genes in response to a broad,general signals
B)control large numbers of genes in response to a specific signal
C)control small numbers of genes in response to broad,general signals
D)control small numbers of genes in response to a specific signal
Q2) Alternative sigma factors exist for all of the following except .
A)heat shock
B)nitrogen control
C)flagellar motion
D)exponential phase
Q3) Which of the following is not an inducer of the lac operon?
A)allo-lactose
B)IPTG
C)glucose
D)lactose
Q4) Some nucleotides are involved in transcriptional regulation.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Xist is .
A)a gene encoding an untranslated RNA involved in X-inactivation
B)the heterochromatin of inactivated X chromosomes
C)is a gene that is only found on active X chromosomes
D)helps inactivate the X chromosome of males
Q2) Euchromatin .
A)is only found in prokaryotes
B)does not allow gene expression to occur
C)is densely packed chromatin
D)is loosely packed chromatin
Q3) Acetylated histones .
A)form highly condensed heterochromatin
B)are a target of proteases
C)never occurs
D)allow nucleosomes to be less aggregated
Q4) Simple repressors are common in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which nuclease is responsible for generating siRNA?
A)Ribonuclease P
B)Dicer
C)Slicer
D)RISC
Q2) Which statement is false?
A)Nucleases are not part of the RNAi scenario.
B)Some small RNAs help stabilize the mRNA and protect it from degradation.
C)RNAi is a form of gene silencing that involves degradation of target RNAs.
D)Riboswitches bind small molecules.
Q3) Riboswitches .
A)can bind small molecules
B)are useful in translational control
C)are found on the 5' end of the mRNA
D)are all of the above
Q4) Proteins that prevent translation of mRNA are called .
A)nucleases
B)translational repressors
C)proteases
D)mRNA silencers

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Q1) DNA microarrays are appropriate for investigating the expression of one or a few genes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Where might green fluorescent protein be found?
A)fireflies
B)jellyfish
C)bacteria
D)algae
Q3) Microarrays and SAGE have the ability to monitor .
A)large numbers of mRNAs simultaneously
B)small numbers of specific mRNAs
C)proteins expressed under a given condition
D)the binding of a protein to a DNA or RNA molecule
Q4) A specific mRNA may be detected using hybridization.
A)Southern
B)Western
C)Northern
D)Southwestern
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Q1) Which one of the following organisms does not have plasmids?
A)bacteria
B)viruses
C)yeast
D)archaea
Q2) The Ti-plasmid was used as the platform for genetically engineering plants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Rolling circle replication .
A)begins when the origin of replication is pulled apart to generate a replication bubble
B)occurs at the origin of vegetative replication
C)begins when the origin of replication is nicked and one strand is unrolled
D)occurs when a plasmid replicates in step with host cell division
Q4) Plasmids are self-replicating extrachromosomal pieces of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All plasmids are circular
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Viruses hijack host cell replication machinery to produce more viral particles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bacteriophage infect .
A)other viruses
B)only bacteria
C)animals
D)all cell types
Q3) The largest virus is .
A)herpesvirus
B)poxvirus
C)mimivirus
D)HIV
Q4) Which of the following is not a viral genome arrangement?
A)double-stranded DNA
B)single-stranded DNA
C)positive single-stranded RNA
D)negative double-stranded RNA
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Q1) All transposons have all of the following characteristics except .
A)the gene for transposase
B)inverted repeats
C)resolvase
D)antibiotic resistance genes
Q2) Resolvase is needed for .
A)conservative transposition
B)replicative transposition
C)simple transposons
D)retrotransposons
Q3) The of Tn21 family of transposons acts as a gene acquisition and expression and has been implicated in the spread of antibiotic resistance.
A)IRS
B)integron
C)replicon
D)inverted repeats
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Q1) A mutation has no effect on phenotype.
A)frameshift
B)deletion
C)silent
D)nonsense
Q2) Terotogenic agents .
A)generate reversions
B)always causes mutations
C)are always carcinogenic
D)have known effects on developing embryos
Q3) Spontaneous mutations occur .
A)from errors in replication
B)when organisms grow at high temperatures
C)in the presence of mutagens
D)from ultraviolet radiation
Q4) DNA polymerases often proofread their recently inserted nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The Holliday junction only forms during excision.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chi sites are .
A)generated from Holliday junctions
B)inverted repeats
C)binding sites for RecA protein
D)specific sequences in prokaryotic genomes where crossovers occur
Q3) Which enzyme is required for resolution of the Holliday junction?
A)resolvase
B)integrase
C)recombinase
D)excisionase
Q4) Xis protein .
A)is involved in X-inactivation in female animals
B)helps recombine homologous sequences
C)is used to excise previously recombined DNA segments
D)all of the above
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Q1) Hfr strains have an integrated .
A)F plasmid
B)R plasmid
C)prophage
D)lysogen
Q2) The mechanism of transfer of the F-plasmid in conjugation involves
A)viruses
B)donor cell death
C)bidirectional replication
D)rolling circle replication
Q3) The preferential transfer of DNA fragments using viruses is called .
A)generalize transduction
B)specialized transduction
C)conjugation
D)transformation
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Q1) Gene families are .
A)groups of genes with similar function that were generated from duplication events
B)entire genomes
C)always in operons
D)have no role in evolution
Q2) Evolution relies upon .
A)mutations made in somatic cells only
B)mutations occurring in gametes
C)mutations that result in altered protein function of somatic cells
D)mutations in mRNA only
Q3) The transfer of genetic information from one species to another species is called A)recombination
B)vertical gene transfer
C)horizontal gene transfer
D)conjugation
Q4) Gene duplication generates new genes with novel roles.
A)True
B)False
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