Advanced Microbiology Methods
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Microbiology Methods delves into the sophisticated laboratory techniques and analytical approaches used in modern microbiological research. The course covers advanced culturing, microbial identification, molecular genetics, genomics, and metagenomics, along with critical applications of bioinformatics and quantitative analyses. Students will explore high-resolution imaging, flow cytometry, microbial community profiling, and functional assays to study microbial physiology and interactions. Emphasis is placed on experimental design, troubleshooting, and interpreting complex data to address contemporary questions in clinical, environmental, and industrial microbiology.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey and Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 12th Edition by Betty A. Forbes
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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Q1) The use of a double genus in a microorganism's label such as Burkholderia (Pseudomonas) indicates that
A)the bacterium does not fit well in either group but has some characteristics of both groups.
B)the bacterium is a genetic cross between the two groups.
C)the bacterium has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus (Burkholderia).
D)the bacterium has been moved from one genus (Burkholderia) to another genus (Pseudomonas).
Answer: C
Q2) A bacterium that has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus (Burkholderia) would be correctly noted as
A)Pseudomonas (Burkholderia).
B)Burkholderia (Pseudomonas).
C)Pseudomonas, formerly Burkholderia.
D)Burkholderia, formerly Pseudomonas.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics Metabolism and Structure
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Q1) The mechanism of genetic control in which genes are not transcribed and therefore are not expressed in the presence of those target products in sufficient supply is called A)repression.
B)mutation.
C)transduction.
D)induction.
Answer: A
Q2) Transduction is defined as
A)the change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another.
B)an internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism's genome.
C)the process by which genetic elements such as plasmids and transposons excise from one genomic location and insert into another.
D)a mechanism that is mediated by viruses, by which DNA from two bacteria may come together in one cell, thus allowing for recombination.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) IgE is
A)the first antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered.
B)the antibody that is associated with various parasitic infections.
C)the antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous membranes.
D)the second antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered and the most abundant.
Answer: B
Q2) Which immune system cells primarily function as antibody producers and originate from stem cells?
A)B lymphocytes
B)T lymphocytes
C)Natural killer cells
D)Neutrophils
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) Optimal protection of specimen, personnel, and environment is accomplished with which class of biological safety cabinet?
A)Class I
B)Class II
C)Class III
D)Class IV
Q2) To be sterilized in an autoclave, infectious medical waste should be
A)packed tightly to avoid dangerous pressure pockets.
B)processed for 15 to 20 minutes at 121° centigrade and 30 psi pressure.
C)processed for 30 to 60 minutes at 132° centigrade and 15 psi pressure.
D)processed for at least 1 hour at 121° centigrade and 15 psi pressure.
Q3) The autoclave sterilizes material by
A)applying dry heat at high temperatures and pressure.
B)infusing gaseous chemicals that kill organisms.
C)applying moist heat at high temperatures and increased pressure.
D)cleaving protein bonds found in most biological agent cell walls.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Definitive identification of clinically significant isolates
A)is always necessary and should be carried out by the laboratory at all times.
B)is desirable in most cases but sometimes limited identification may be necessary and helpful.
C)is often not cost effective and should be done only when requested by the attending physician.
D)is not necessary in most cases and should not be done routinely by the laboratory.
Q2) Differential media is designed especially to
A)support the growth of a wide range of microorganisms.
B)distinguish microorganisms on the basis of certain growth characteristics.
C)support the growth of one group of organisms, but not another, by containing antimicrobials, dyes, or alcohol.
D)enhance the growth of pathogens and discourage the growth of commensals.
Q3) Holding media such as Stuart's medium and Amie's medium are used
A)to maintain the viability of microorganisms present in a specimen.
B)to support the growth and multiplication of any pathogenic organisms present.
C)to prevent clotting of specimens such as blood, bone marrow, and synovial fluid.
D)All of the above are true.
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true concerning dark-field microscopy?
A)This type of microscopy is used in some laboratories to detect spirochetes.
B)The condenser does not allow light to pass directly through the specimen but directs the light to hit the specimen at an oblique angle.
C)This technique involves the alteration of microscopic technique rather than the use of dyes or stains to achieve contrast.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Of the different types of staining and microscopy techniques, which is basically the most sensitive?
A)Chromogenic
B)Fluorescent
C)Phase contrast
D)Light field
Q3) The fluorochrome stain that can be used to study fungus is A)calcofluor white.
B)acridine orange.
C)auramine.
D)immunofluorescence.
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8
Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) Reduced O (5% to 10%) and increased CO (8% to 10%) is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
Q2) To read the hemolytic reaction on a blood agar plate accurately, the technologist must
A)hold the plate up to the light and observe the plate with the light coming from behind.
B)hold the plate under the light and observe the plate with the light coming from the top.
C)hold the plate over a white background.
D)examine the plate using reflected and transmitted light.
Q3) Anaerobes grow best in
A)ambient air, which contains 21% oxygen (O ) and a small amount (0.03%) of carbon dioxide.
B)increased concentrations of CO (5% to 10%) and approximately 15% O .
C)5% to 10% hydrogen (H ), 5% to 10% CO , 80% to 90% nitrogen (N ), and 0% O .
D)reduced O (5% to 10%) and increased CO (8% to 10%).
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) Target nucleic acid amplification (PCR) methods are based on
A)the ability of two nucleic acid strands that have complementary base sequences to specifically bond with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.
B)detecting phenotypic traits not detectable by conventional strategies.
C)the principles of complementary nucleic acid hybridization with those of nucleic acid replication that are applied repeatedly through numerous cycles.
D)determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an organism.
Q2) Complementary nucleic acid hybridization is coupled with nucleic acid replication and applied repeatedly through numerous cycles.
A)Hybridization
B)Sequencing
C)Amplification (PCR)
D)Genotypic
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Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
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Q1) The precipitin test that involves antigen and antibody diffusing toward each other, producing a visible precipitin band at the point at which they meet is referred to as A)double immunodiffusion.
B)counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C)particle agglutination.
D)enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) Monoclonal antibodies are those that
A)react with many different types of antigens.
B)react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C)react with many different antigens of one specific organism.
D)can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
Q3) Polyclonal antibodies are those that
A)react with many different types of antigens.
B)react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C)react with many different antigens of one specific organism.
D)can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
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Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) The immunochemical test that involves the agglutination of an artificial carrier particle with antigen bound to its surface with antibody present in a specimen is referred to as
A)double immunodiffusion.
B)counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C)particle agglutination.
D)enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) Specific proteins produced by cells of the immune system in response to the presence of foreign molecules that circulate in the serum and are present in secretions such as saliva are called A)antigens.
B)immunoglobulins.
C)cytokines.
D)phagogens.
Q3) The antibody that is predominantly found in tears, saliva, and intestinal secretions is A)IgG.
B)IgA.
C)IgM.
D)IgE.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Q1) Penicillin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q2) Antimicrobial agents that usually kill target organisms are said to be
A)bactericidal.
B)antibiotic.
C)bacteriostatic.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Polymyxin B
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q4) Gentamicin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
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Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) Growth on the oxacillin agar screen means that a patient should be treated with A)oxacillin.
B)methicillin.
C)vancomycin.
D)cephalosporins.
E)chloramphenicol.
Q2) A haze of bacterial growth within a more clearly defined zone of inhibition may be observed when testing A)aminoglycosides.
B)sulfonamides.
C)penicillins.
D)cephalosporins.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Enterococcal resistance to ampicillin predicts resistance to A)vancomycin.
B)aminoglycosides.
C)cephalosporins. D)amikacin.
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Chapter 13: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) This virulent and important human pathogen can also be recovered from the nares, perineum, and other skin sites of healthy people, especially in the hospital setting.
A)Micrococcus luteus
B)Staphylococcus intermedius
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)All Micrococcaceae
Q2) The species of Staphylococcus that is one of the most important human pathogens is
A)Staphylococcus luteus.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Staphylococcus mucilaginosus.
D)Staphylococcus intermedius.
Q3) The tube coagulase test
A)detects bound coagulase.
B)detects extracellular coagulase.
C)is performed on slide coagulase-positive isolates to confirm this positive result.
D)requires citrated reagent plasma.
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Chapter 14: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces complete hemolysis and a clearing of the medium?
A)Beta hemolysis
B)Gamma hemolysis
C)Alpha hemolysis
D)Kappa hemolysis
Q2) Development of acute rheumatic fever and subsequent valvular heart disease are problems that may be encountered by patients infected with A)Enterococcus faecalis.
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
E)viridans streptococci.
Q3) A vancomycin-resistant cocci is likely not A)Pediococcus.
B)Leuconostocs.
C)streptococci. D)lactobacilli.
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Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Induction of capsule formation by B.anthracis can be accomplished with A)5% sheep blood agar.
B)PLET agar.
C)bicarbonate agar.
D)urea agar.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Media that can be used for isolation of Bacillus anthracis include
A)Thayer-Martin agar.
B)5% sheep blood agar.
C)MacConkey agar.
D)CNA blood agar.
Q3) Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are nonhemolytic, nonmotile, and penicillin-susceptible, and that produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as
A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Bacillus cereus.
D)Corynebacterium jeikeium.
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Chapter 16: Listeria, Corynebacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-positive, gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast, does not branch, and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Mycobacterium
Q2) The organism that exhibits characteristic end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours is
A)Listeria monocytogenes.
B)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C)Bacillus anthracis.
D)Bacillus cereus.
Q3) A bacterium described as being coryneform has which type of morphology?
A)Short rods with rounded ends arranged singly, in "palisades" of parallel cells
B)Short rods in pairs that remain connected after cell division to form V or L shapes
C)Bacilli that resemble and are often referred to as Chinese letters
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter
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Q1) The wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis will reveal
A)large, squamous epithelial cells with numerous attached pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobacilli and rods.
B)large numbers of large gram-positive rods.
C)large numbers of polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Large, squamous epithelial cells with numerous attached pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobacilli and rods are typical elements of a wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has
A)bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis.
B)large numbers of large gram-positive rods.
C)large numbers of polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 18: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Nocardia spp.cause which of the following types of infections in immunocompromised individuals?
A)Mycetoma
B)Lymphocutaneous infections
C)Skin abscesses or cellulites
D)Invasive pulmonary infections
Q2) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend along the agar surface that are called
A)surface hyphae.
B)substrate hyphae.
C)aerial hyphae.
D)topical hyphae.
Q3) A chronic, granulomatous infection of subcutaneous tissues caused by aerobic actinomycetes resulting in tissue swelling and draining sinus tracts are referred to as A)actinomycetoma.
B)infectious granulomas.
C)lymphocytoma.
D)Actinomadura.
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) The major etiologic agent of urinary tract infections is
A)Escherichia coli.
B)Shigella species.
C)Salmonella species.
D)Vibrio species.
Q2) The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, and H S- positive is
A)Proteus aerogenes.
B)Proteus vulgaris.
C)Proteus mirabilis
D)Escherichia coli.
Q3) MacConkey-sorbitol agar is useful for detecting pathogenic strains of A)Escherichia coli.
B)Shigella species.
C)Salmonella species.
D)Vibrio species.
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21
Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) Of the following species, which are widely distributed in nature and hospital environments?
A)Pseudomonas luteola
B)Acinetobacter spp.
C)Pseudomonas oryzihabitans
D)Bordetella trematum
Q2) The primary drug of choice for infections caused by S.maltophilia is
A)a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside.
B)trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
C)ticarcillin/clavulanic acid.
D)chloramphenicol.
Q3) Differentiation of S.maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by A)the oxidase test.
B)maltose and glucose medium.
C)tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) An organism described as oxidase-positive, TSI slant with an alkaline/no change, good growth at 42° C, and producing bright bluish green pigment on Mueller-Hinton agar is most likely
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Ralstonia pickettii.
C)Burkholderia mallei.
D)Burkholderia pseudomallei.
Q2) Excluding Enterobacteriaceae, name the second most common gram-negative bacilli encountered in clinical specimens.
A)Pseudomonas
B)Burkholderia
C)Ralstonia
D)Vibrio
Q3) Which best describes the source of Burkholderia cepacia infections?
A)Plants, soil, and water
B)Medical devices medical solutions
C)Contaminated foods
D)None of the above are correct.
E)All of the above are correct.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar
Organisms
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Q1) The natural habitat of Achromobacter sp.can best be described as
A)the mucous membranes of animals.
B)the gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)the natural environment.
D)the genitourinary tract of animals.
Q2) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Psychrobacter immobilis.
A)Environmental only, not human flora
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q3) The most common type of infection caused by both Rhizobium radiobacter and Ochrobactrum anthropi is
A)peritonitis.
B)endocarditis.
C)meningitis.
D)bacteremia .
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24
Chapter 23: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Chryseobacterium.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q2) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Sphingobacterium.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q3) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Empedobacter.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q4) The natural habitat of Chryseobacterium sp.can best be described as
A)the mucous membranes of animals.
B)the gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)the natural environment.
D)the genitourinary tract of animals.
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Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Pertussis (whooping cough), an epidemic disease, is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by
A)Brucella species.
B)Bordetella species.
C)Pasteurella species.
D)Francisella species.
Q2) B.bronchiseptica is
A)oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.
B)indole-positive, nonmotile, and has a fruity odor.
C)resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar and at 42° C.
D)nonmotile and both urea- and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.
Q3) True or False? The lack of validated in vitro susceptibility testing methods does not allow definitive treatment and testing guidelines to be given for B.parapertussis.
A)True
B)False
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26
Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) Aeromonas spp.can be described as
A)oxidase-negative, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
B)oxidase-positive, glucose-oxidizing, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
C)oxidase-positive, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
D)oxidase-positive, non-glucose- utilizing, gram-negative bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar.
Q2) The primary habitat for Plesiomonas shigelloides and Chromobacterium violaceum is
A)fresh water.
B)the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)brackish or marine water.
D)the soil and water environment.
Q3) The primary habitat for Aeromonas spp.is
A)fresh water.
B)the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)brackish or marine water.
D)the soil and water environment.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Sphingobacterium spp.can be described as
A)oxidase-negative, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
B)oxidase-positive, glucose-oxidizing, gram-negative bacilli that fail to grow on MacConkey agar.
C)oxidase-positive, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
D)oxidase-positive, non-glucose-utilizing, gram-negative bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar.
Q2) A yellow-pigmented, gram-negative rod on blood agar but not MacConkey that is indole- and urease-negative, oxidase-positive, and positive on wet mount motility testing is most likely A)Treponema.
B)Leptospira.
C)Borrelia.
D)Sphingomonas.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Moraxella
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Q1) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella atlantae will appear as
A)either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B)gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C)coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D)coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
E)either coccobacilli or short, straight rods.
Q2) Differentiation of Neisseria elongata subsp.glycolytica from other Moraxella species can best be done by testing for
A)the ability to utilize acetate.
B)the ability to liquefy serum.
C)glucose utilization tests.
D)growth on MacConkey agar.
Q3) True cocci, such as most Neisseria spp.and Moraxella (Branhamella) catarrhalis, can be differentiated from morphologically similar Moraxella species by A)comparing the penicillin susceptibility testing results of the bacteria.
B)subjecting the bacterium to noninhibitory concentrations of penicillin.
C)the resistance of Moraxella to many beta-lactam antimicrobials.
D)performing the DNA test.
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Chapter 28: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Eikenella corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by which characteristic?
A)Its pink pigmentation
B)Its grapelike odor
C)Its large spreading colony morphology
D)Its bleachlike odor
Q2) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli, which bacterial species can be recognized in culture by its bleachlike odor?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and is transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B)Eikenella corrodens
C)Pasteurella multocida
D)Weeksella virosa
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin, it is the drug of choice for infections involving
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B)Eikenella corrodens.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Weeksella virosa.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Of the following organisms, which is among the HACEK group of organisms that cause slowly progressive bacterial endocarditis?
A)Capnocytophaga gingivalis
B)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
C)Weeksella virosa
D)Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from Kingella spp by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for catalase.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from H.aphrophilus by A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for catalase.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Haemophilus
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Q1) Isolates from CSF that are gram-negative coccobacilli, grow on chocolate agar in CO but not blood agar, require factor V but not X, and are nonhemolytic on rabbit or horse blood may be identified as A)Haemophilus parainfluenzae.
B)H.influenzae.
C)H.aphrophilus.
D)H.influenzae
Q2) To increase the sensitivity of direct Gram stain examination of body fluid specimens, the specimens usually are
A)incubated for 18 to 24 hours before staining.
B)centrifuged before staining.
C)examined for at least 1 hour.
D)stained for an additional 5 minutes.
Q3) Growth of most Haemophilus species in culture is enhanced by
A)incubation at 33° to 35° C.
B)high humidity.
C)5% to 10% carbon dioxide (CO ).
D)enriched special media.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by
A)Afipia felis.
B)Rochalimaea quintana.
C)Bartonella clarridgeiae.
D)Bartonella henselae.
Q2) A common characteristic of the bacterial species Bartonella henselae and Afipia felis is
A)both are believed to cause cat-scratch disease.
B)the ability to grow on chocolate agar but not very well on routine blood (trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood) and not at all on MacConkey agar.
C)that primary isolation from clinical specimens is best accomplished using special cultivation conditions.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
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Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Campylobacter spp.can sometimes be detected by direct Gram stain examination of fecal sample, which would reveal many
A)large, faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
B)small, curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli.
C)small gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)plump, faintly staining gram negative bacilli.
Q2) Parenteral therapy can be defined as that which
A)must be approved and given by a parent under close supervision.
B)is not taken through the alimentary canal.
C)is taken orally.
D)is taken in the form of suppositories.
Q3) Virulence determinants of Helicobacter pylori include A)motility.
B)urease enzyme.
C)adhesions.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 34: Legionella
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Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)faintly staining, thin gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s) is necessary?
A)L-cysteine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Specimens for culture recovery of Legionella should be inoculated to A)BCYE (buffered charcoal yeast extract).
B)Regan-Lowe agar.
C)Löwenstein-Jensen.
D)blood and chocolate agars.
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Chapter 35: Brucella
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Q1) The serum agglutination test (SAT) detects antibodies to A)Brucella abortus.
B)B.melitensis.
C)B.suis.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those which are
A)able to be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B)able to exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C)able to be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D)can only be cultured inside living organisms like mice.
Q3) The serum agglutination test (SAT) fails to detect antibodies to A)Brucella abortus.
B)B.melitensis.
C)B.suis.
D)B.canis.
Q4) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) During the catarrhal stage of pertussis, symptoms are
A)a runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)vomiting and "whooping" as air is rapidly inspired into the lungs past the swollen glottis.
D)lymphocytosis and fever.
Q2) Acceptable specimens for detection of Bordetella pertussis are
A)throat swabs.
B)sputum.
C)nasopharyngeal aspirates.
D)anterior nose swab.
Q3) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis, symptoms are
A)a runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)neutrocytosis and fever.
D)lymphadenitis.
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Chapter 37: Francisella
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Q1) F.philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it
A)is oxidase-negative.
B)is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C)does not hydrolyze gelatin.
D)does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) F.philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it
A)is oxidase-positive.
B)is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C)hydrolyzes gelatin.
D)grows in 6% sodium chloride.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Tularemia, characterized by glandular, ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, oropharyngeal, systemic, and pneumonic presentations is caused by A)Brucella species.
B)Bordetella species.
C)Pasteurella species.
D)Francisella species.
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Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by ingestion of the bacterium is
A)Sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)Monillic fever.
D)Monillic gastritis.
Q2) Rat-bite fever, or Haverhill fever, characterized by acute onset of chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains and a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities is caused by
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis.
B)Brucella abortus.
C)Bordetella species.
D)Pasteurella species.
Q3) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired S.minus is A)Sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)Monillic fever.
D)Monillic gastritis.
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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) M.catarrhalis may be differentiated from the gonococci and meningococci based on
A)its growth on blood agar at 22° C.
B)its growth on nutrient agar at 35° C.
C)the reduction of nitrate to nitrite.
D)its production of DNAse.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Thayer-Martin, Martin-Lewis, and New York City media were all developed for the selective isolation of which organism?
A)Moraxella catarrhalis
B)Neisseria meningitidis
C)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Which statement is true regarding the pathogenesis of N.gonorrhoeae?
A)Infections caused by N.gonorrhoeae usually are localized to the area of initial exposure.
B)Localized infections can be acute with a pronounced purulent response.
C)Localized infections may be asymptomatic.
D)Dissemination from the initial infection site can lead to severe disseminated disease.
E)All of the above are true.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Cervical swab
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q2) Actinomyces spp., Bifidobacterium spp., and Clostridium spp.can be described as
A)aerotolerant organisms that can grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow best under microaerobic conditions.
B)strictly anaerobic organisms that cannot grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow only under anaerobic conditions.
C)microaerophilic organisms that can grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow best under anaerobic conditions.
D)facultatively anaerobic organisms that grow in the presence or absence of atmospheric oxygen.
Q3) Urine via percutaneous aspiration
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q4) Tissue biopsy taken from a puncture wound
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
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Chapter 41: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) The most likely identification of an anaerobic, curved, gram-variable bacillus with tapered ends on Gram stain of vaginal secretions when vaginosis is suspected is
A)Porphyromonas spp.
B)Actinomyces.
C)Mobiluncus
D)Fusobacterium spp.
E)Bifidobacterium.
Q2) The most likely identification of an anaerobic gram-positive bacillus that produces spores is
A)Bifidobacterium.
B)Eubacterium.
C)Eggerthella.
D)Clostridium.
E)Mobiluncus.
Q3) The ethanol shock or heat shock test will separate which two bacteria?
A)Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium ramosum
B)Clostridium and Bifidobacterium
C)Actinomyces and Bifidobacterium
D)Eubacterium and Eggerthella
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
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Q1) On Gram stain, mycobacteria appear as
A)slender, well-stained gram-positive bacilli.
B)poorly stained, beaded, gram-positive bacilli.
C)gram-variable to gram-positive bacilli.
D)partially invisible gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) Photochromogens can be described as are referred to as
A)slow-growing nontuberculous mycobacteria whose colonies become pigmented when exposed to light.
B)slow-growing nontuberculous mycobacteria whose colonies are pigmented when grown in the dark or the light.
C)slow-growing nontuberculous mycobacteria whose colonies produce no pigment whether they are grown in the dark or the light.
D)slow-growing tuberculous mycobacteria whose colonies become pigmented when exposed to light.
Q3) In identification of mycobacterial isolates, the niacin test involves
A)the accumulation of niacin in the medium in which the organism is growing.
B)the metabolism of niacin to nicotinic acid by enzymatic action.
C)testing the isolate for susceptibility to niacin.
D)utilization of niacin in metabolic pathways to produce nicotinic acid.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Nonculturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) Diagnosis of C.trachomatis is done by which methodology?
A)Cytology
B)Culture
C)Direct detection of antigen or nucleic acid
D)Serologic testing
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The intracellular growth, or replicative form, of the Chlamydia is called the
A)reticulate body.
B)elementary body.
C)replicate body.
D)initial body.
Q3) A prokaryote that differs from most other bacteria with respect to its very small size and obligate intracellular parasitism is
A)Ehrlichia.
B)Chlamydia.
C)Calymmatobacterium.
D)Coxiella.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Cell Wall-Deficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?
A)Chlamydia
B)Mycoplasma
C)Rickettsia
D)Coxiella
Q2) Definitive identification of Mycoplasma pneumoniae is accomplished by which technique?
A)Hemadsorption of guinea pig erythrocytes
B)Traditional biochemical tests such as indole and oxidase
C)Direct detection methods such as PCR or ELISA
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Media that can be used for isolation of Mycoplasma include
A)Thayer-Martin agar with vitamin K.
B)5% sheep blood and IsoVitaleX.
C)beef or soybean protein with serum and fresh yeast extract.
D)Hemin and NAD supplements.
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Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
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Q1) A destructive lesion of the gums also known as acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis that is caused by oral spirochetes as well as other bacteria is known as A)Vincent's disease.
B)primary syphilis.
C)chancre disease.
D)Weil's disease.
Q2) Compared to other spirochetes, Borrelia can be described as
A)long, more slender, with hooked ends.
B)somewhat thicker with fewer and looser coils.
C)long, more slender, with tight coils.
D)somewhat thicker than treponemes with fewer and looser coils.
Q3) The most common vector-borne disease in North America and Europe transmitted by the bite of Ixodes ticks is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is called A)Weil's disease.
B)Lyme disease.
C)icteric leptospirosis.
D)Vincent's disease.
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Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections
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Q1) The specimen of choice for diagnosing infection with Leishmania spp is A)feces.
B)blood smear.
C)liver tissue.
D)CSF.
Q2) Trichinella spiralis
A)Rectal tape prep
B)Tissue biopsy
C)Sputum
D)Feces
E)Blood smear
Q3) A flagellate trophozoite that can be described as 9 to 12 m, with one to two nuclei with no nuclear peripheral chromatin, a karyosome composed of four to eight large granules, and finely granular cytoplasm would most likely be
A)Giardia lamblia.
B)Dientamoeba fragilis.
C)Iodamoeba bütschlii.
D)Chilomastix mesnili.
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Methods in Basic Mycology
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Q1) A KOH preparation on a sputum specimen from a patient on immune suppressive therapy shows large, broad, nonseptate hyphae.Choose the most likely agent.
A)Dermatophytes
B)Zygomycetes
C)Dimorphic fungi
D)Dematiaceous fungi
Q2) The presence of large, round or oval, multiply budding yeast cells, which resemble a "mariner's wheel," detected on direct microscopic examination usually indicates infection with
A)Coccidioides immitis.
B)Blastomyces dermatitidis.
C)Histoplasma capsulatum.
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis.
Q3) The nutrient-absorbing and water-exchanging portion of the fungus is called A)vegetative mycelium.
B)aerial mycelia.
C)reproductive hyphae.
D)germ tubes.
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Chapter 48: Laboratory Methods in Basic Virology
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Q1) Concerning the two immunofluorescence methods of diagnosing viral infection, which statement is correct?
A)Direct immunofluorescence is generally more rapid and specific than indirect immunofluorescence.
B)Indirect immunofluorescence is best suited to situations in which large quantities of virus are suspected.
C)Signal amplification of the direct test decreases specificity by increasing nonspecific background fluorescence.
D)High-quality monoclonal antibodies improve the sensitivity and specificity of the direct test.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) This rhabdovirus is present in saliva and is transmitted by animal bite; it invades the peripheral and central nervous systems.
A)Rubella virus
B)Alpha virus
C)Rabies virus
D)Poxvirus
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Chapter 49: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) Infective endocarditis, mycotic aneurysm, suppurative thrombophlebitis, and intravenous, catheter-associated bacteremia are
A)within the vascular system.
B)caused by organisms that are present in the bloodstream at a fairly constant rate.
C)continuous bacteremias.
D)extremely serious and considered life-threatening.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The most common portal of entry for bacteremia is
A)the genitourinary tract.
B)the respiratory tract.
C)an abscess.
D)a surgical wound infection.
Q3) A factor that contributes to the initiation of bloodstream infections is A)immunosuppressive agents.
B)broad-spectrum antibiotics that suppress the normal flora.
C)invasive procedures.
D)prolonged survival of debilitated and seriously ill patients.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 50: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) One of the most important uses of the Gram stain of expectorated sputum received for routine bacteriologic culture is
A)to give the physician a quick analysis of the type of organism causing the infection.
B)to evaluate the quality of the specimen.
C)to distinguish between the possibility of bacterial or viral source of infection.
D)to begin appropriate antimicrobial therapy as soon as possible.
Q2) Mycoplasma pneumoniae is detected as the most common agent of lower respiratory tract infections among
A)previously healthy patients 2 months of age to 5 years old.
B)adults younger than 30 years of age.
C)community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D)children of school age.
Q3) The nasal hairs, convoluted passages, and mucous lining of the nasal turbinates
A)nonspecifically protect the respiratory tract from infection.
B)promote colonization of normal bacterial flora.
C)can aid adherence by potentially harmful bacteria.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 51: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Pharyngitis
A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses
B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q2) Rhinitis
A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses
B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
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Chapter 52: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) The most common source of infection in the central nervous system is A)hematogenous spread.
B)infections at other sites such as otitis media.
C)organisms gaining access because of anatomic defects in central nervous system structures.
D)bacteria that are able to travel along nerves leading to the brain.
Q2) The outermost layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is called
A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
Q3) Large, fluid-filled spaces within the brain are called A)the choroid plexus.
B)ventricles.
C)meninges.
D)pia mater.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
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Q1) The most common etiologic agents in acute otitis media in children include
A)Klebsiella pneumococci.
B)Haemophilus influenzae.
C)Streptococcus agalactiae.
D)Moraxella catarrhalis.
Q2) Trachoma
A) Haemophilus influenzae and S. pneumoniae
B) Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice
C) S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, and P. aeruginosa
D) Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E) Chlamydia
F) Actinomyces or Propionibacterium
G) S. aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, and S. pneumoniae
Q3) What is the proper specimen for culture and identification of the agent of acute sinusitis?
A)Aspirated material that has been collected by puncture of the maxillary sinus
B)Drainage material found in the upper respiratory passages that has been collected with a swab
C)Coughed up sinus drainage collected in a sterile cup
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 54: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) Mucosal antibacterial properties, a valvelike mechanism, host immune responses, and defensins are all host defense mechanisms found in the A)digestive tract.
B)upper respiratory tract.
C)urinary tract.
D)genital tract.
E)lower respiratory tract.
Q2) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract is
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)yeasts.
C)Propionibacterium acnes.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
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Chapter 55: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) Infections that are acquired during sexual activity are referred to as
A)endogenous infections.
B)pyelonephritis
C)Exogenous infections.
D)Upper tract infections.
Q2) Cervicitis
A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Gardnerella, Prevotella spp., Porphyromonas spp., peptostreptococci, Mobiluncus spp.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E)N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis
F)Escherichia coli and other enterics
G)Mumps virus
Q3) An infection of the vaginal mucosa resulting in abnormal discharge and an offensive odor or itching is referred to as
A)chorioamnionitis.
B)bartholinitis.
C)cervicitis.
D)vaginitis.
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Selenite broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) Sheep blood agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) Cultures for isolation of Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter coli should be
A)incubated in a capnophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
B)incubated in a microaerophilic atmosphere at 35° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
C)incubated in regular room air at 35° C and examined at 48 and 72 hours.
D)incubated in a microaerophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
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Chapter 57: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28926
Sample Questions
Q1) Myositis
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)A slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)A chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
Q2) The most reliable specimen for determining the etiology of ulcers and nodules are
A)from the base of the ulcer or nodule.
B)those collected following removal of overlying debris.
C)those collected by surgical biopsy of deep tissues.
D)those collected without contact with the superficial layers of the lesion.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28927
Sample Questions
Q1) Most cases of peritonitis in patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis are caused by
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis and S.aureus.
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
D)Streptococcus spp.
E)viral agents.
Q2) Proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is
A)grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.
B)placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.
C)centrifugation with glass beads.
D)filtration under pressure.
Q3) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Haemophilus influenzae.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
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Chapter 59: Laboratory Physical Design, Management, and Organization
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28928
Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of the test under study to match the results of a standard test commonly known as the "gold standard" is A)accuracy.
B)precision.
C)sensitivity.
D)specificity.
Q2) A testing method that produces a result that reflects a true positive all of the time and reflects a false positive some of the time can be said to have A)accuracy.
B)predictive value negative.
C)high sensitivity and low specificity.
D)specificity.
E)predictive value positive.
Q3) The reproducibility of a test when it is run (repeated) several times is called A)accuracy.
B)precision.
C)sensitivity. D)specificity.
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Chapter 60: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positive patient outcomes produced through quality management programs in the microbiology laboratory are
A)reduced hospitalization time.
B)reduced cost of stay.
C)reduced turn-around time for diagnosis of infection.
D)appropriate antimicrobial therapy.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Criteria that should be considered for rejection of specimens include
A)missing or inadequate information such as clinical diagnosis, current drug treatment, or other helpful facts.
B)illegible physician name.
C)improperly collected or stored specimen.
D)requests of multiple tests on one specimen.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Long-term storage (>1 year) of stock aerobic and anaerobic bacteria can be accomplished by
A)subculture onto trypticase soy agar (TSA) slants.
B)freezing at 70° C.
C)storing them on blood agar plates at 37° C.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 61: Infection Control
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Q1) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing unique biologic or biochemical characteristics of the organism of interest is called A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriocin typing.
E)bacteriophage typing.
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of serologic typing of bacterial or viral antigens, such as bacterial cell wall antigens of the organism of interest, is called A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriocin typing.
E)bacteriophage typing.
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Chapter 62: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28931
Sample Questions
Q1) The act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population is referred to as
A)biosecurity.
B)biocrime.
C)microterrorism.
D)bactiterrorism.
Q2) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe
A)the act of using horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B)the act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population.
C)the act of using microorganisms to wage war in peace time.
D)the act of using living beings to wage war in peace time.
Q3) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that
A)a covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B)a covert event is announced and an overt event is not announced.
C)an overt event is announced and a covert event is not announced.
D)an overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
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