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Advanced Medical-Surgical Nursing delves into the complex health issues faced by adult patients, emphasizing critical thinking, clinical judgment, and evidence-based practices. The course explores the management of acute and chronic medical-surgical conditions across diverse populations, focusing on advanced assessment, pathophysiology, pharmacological interventions, and collaborative care strategies. Students will engage with case studies and simulations to refine their skills in prioritizing nursing interventions, coordinating multidisciplinary care, and implementing advanced technologies, preparing them to deliver high-quality, patient-centered care in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Adult Health Nursing 6th Edition by Barbara Christensen
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17 Chapters
676 Verified Questions
676 Flashcards
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23140
Sample Questions
Q1) The type of tissue composed of cells that contract in response to a message from the brain or spinal cord is
A) epithelial.
B) connective.
C) membrane.
D) muscle.
Answer: D
Q2) The four phases of cell division all occur in A) diffusion.
B) mitosis.
C) osmosis.
D) filtration.
Answer: B
Q3) The transverse imaginary body plane
A) divides front and back (coronal) of the body.
B) divides the body lengthwise (two equal halves).
C) divides superior and inferior portions of the body.
D) divides the body into axial and appendicular.
Answer: C
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient and a nurse develop a preoperative teaching plan. In teaching the patient to cough effectively after surgery, the nurse should tell her to practice
A) breathing through her nose, holding her breath, and exhaling slowly.
B) taking three deep breaths and coughing from the chest.
C) inhaling while contracting the abdominal muscles and exhaling while contracting the diaphragm.
D) taking short, frequent panting breaths and coughing from the throat to clear accumulated mucus.
Answer: B
Q2) Although informed about the proposed surgical procedure, the patient has only vague responses about the postoperative period. A nursing diagnosis at this time would be
A) Impaired verbal communication.
B) Impaired gas exchange.
C) Deficient knowledge, postoperative.
D) Acute pain.
Answer: C
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23142
Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing interventions for treatment of herpes virus infections are:
A) Keep the lesions moist to prevent pain.
B) Apply cold, moist compresses to lesions.
C) Focus on treating symptoms and preventing spread of virus.
D) Cleanse lesions with alcohol.
Answer: C
Q2) A patient, age 37, sustained partial- and full-thickness burns to 26% of her body surface area. The greatest fluid loss resulting from her burns will usually occur
A) within 12 hours after burn trauma.
B) 24 to 36 hours after burn trauma.
C) 24 to 48 hours after burn trauma.
D) 48 to 72 hours after burn trauma.
Answer: A
Q3) Stage 1
A) Freedom from wound infection
B) Hypovolemia
C) Circulatory overload
Answer: B
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23143
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 79, fell at home and suffered an intracapsular fracture of his left hip. The orthopedic surgeon inserted a prosthetic implant for a bipolar hip replacement. The physician has instructed the nurse to turn him every 2 hours. The nurse understands that the correct nursing intervention is to keep the legs
A) together so they don't separate while turning.
B) from rubbing together.
C) abducted so the prosthesis does not become dislocated.
D) abducted to prevent additional pain for the patient with turning.
Q2) A patient, age 64, has osteoarthritis of the left hip. He has had a left total hip replacement. The nurse should
A) encourage use of the high Fowler's position.
B) administer oxygen through a nasal cannula.
C) encourage use of an incentive spirometer.
D) turn the patient frequently from side to side.
Q3) Which ethnic group is at a highest risk of developing osteoporosis?
A) African American women
B) Caucasian and Asian women
C) African American men
D) Latino women

Page 6
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23144
Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing intervention would be the highest priority in evaluating a patient with peritonitis from a ruptured appendix?
A) Assessment of severity, location, and duration of pain
B) Assessment of vital signs
C) Preventing wound infection
D) Promoting balanced nutrition
Q2) A patient, age 84, has a history of a large left inguinal hernia. He is complaining of nausea, vomiting, abdominal distention, and inguinal pain. A serious complication of a hernia in which the blood supply to the tissue becomes occluded is called a(n)
A) strangulated hernia.
B) hiatal hernia.
C) incarcerated hernia.
D) sliding hernia.
Q3) Flexible sigmoidoscopy should be performed every ________ years.
Q4) The end-products of carbohydrate and protein digestion are absorbed by the A) bloodstream.
B) blood vessels in the villi.
C) lymphatic system.
D) lymph vessels in the villi.

Page 7
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that morphine contraindicated in the patient with pancreatitis because:
A) Demerol (meperidine) is less expensive.
B) Tylenol is more effective at managing this type of pain.
C) Morphine may cause spasms of the sphincter of Oddi.
D) These patients do not experience pain.
Q2) Which abnormal lab value would be found in a patient with a pathological condition of the liver?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Alkaline phosphatase
C) pH 5.0
D) Ca- 125
Q3) Which factors are most commonly associated with pancreatitis?
A) Coronary artery disease
B) Alcoholism and biliary tract disease
C) Cirrhosis
D) History of myocardial infarction
Q4) ___________ is a condition characterized by yellowing of the sclera and the skin.
Page 8
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43 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ are leukocytes which destroy and remove cellular waste, bacteria, and solid particles.
Q2) The patient has agranulocytosis with a neutrophil count of 10%. The most important nursing intervention would be
A) restoring fluid volume deficit.
B) providing oxygen per mask.
C) instituting bleeding precautions.
D) avoiding infection.
Q3) Needed for adequate nerve functioning
A) Folic acid
B) Ferrous sulfate
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D) Neupogen
Q4) Patients with pernicious anemia must receive injections of which medication for the rest of their lives?
A) Ferrous sulfate
B) 6-Mercaptopurine
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D) DexFerrum (iron)
Q5) The organ that forms lymphocytes is the __________.
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are true? (Select all that apply)
A) Anticoagulant therapy is used for DVT prevention.
B) Anticoagulant therapy prevents development of new clots, embolization, and clot extension.
C) Anticoagulant therapy will dissolve clots.
D) Pulmonary embolus is a life-threatening complication requiring treatment with anticoagulant therapy.
Q2) During the nursing history and physical assessment of a patient with left-sided heart failure, which finding might the nurse expect related to the patient's diagnosis?
A) Orthopnea with bubbling crackles throughout the lungs
B) Anorexia with weight loss of 3 pounds in 1 week
C) Increased urinary output, especially during waking hours
D) Periorbital and facial edema
Q3) The functions of the cardiovascular system are to: (Select all that apply.)
A) deliver oxygen and nutrients to the cells.
B) deliver carbon dioxide and waste products to the cells.
C) remove oxygen and nutrients from the cells as waste products.
D) remove carbon dioxide and waste products from the cells.
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23148
Sample Questions
Q1) An 83-year-old patient is admitted with a temperature of 102° F (38.8° C), chest pain, and fatigue. The chest radiograph reveals an accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which the physician removes by performing a thoracentesis. The nurse correctly records the purulent exudate as:
A) effusion.
B) emphysema.
C) sputum.
D) empyema.
Q2) Which expected outcome(s) would indicate improvement in a patient with emphysema? (Select all that apply.)
A) Patent airway
B) Increased rhonchi and wheezes
C) Normal arterial blood gases (for this patient)
D) Increasing oxygen concentrations
E) Decreased breathe sounds
F) Decreased dyspnea
Q3) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.
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44 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient, age 30, has a history of renal calculi and is admitted to the hospital with gross hematuria and severe colicky left flank pain that radiates to his left testicle. An intravenous pyelogram confirms the presence of a 4-mm renal calculus in the proximal left ureter. Physician orders include meperidine (Demerol) 100 mg IM q4h prn, strain all urine, and encourage fluids to 4,000 mL/day. In planning care for this patient, the nurse gives the highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?
A) Pain related to irritation of a stone
B) Anxiety related to unclear outcome of condition
C) Ineffective health maintenance related to lack of knowledge about prevention of stones
D) Risk for injury related to disorientation
Q2) Patients on diuretics who become hypokalemic should make sure they include which foods in their daily diet?
A) Bananas, oranges, cantaloupe
B) Carrots, summer squash, green beans
C) Apples, pineapple, watermelon
D) Winter squash, cauliflower, lettuce
Q3) Aldactone (spironolactone) is classified as a ______________-sparing diuretic.
Q4) Bladder distention may be assessed by palpating above the ___________
Page 12
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42 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent lipodystrophy, the nurse should administer insulin
A) at room temperature.
B) at body temperature.
C) straight from the refrigerator.
D) at any convenient temperature.
Q2) A patient is admitted with a subtotal thyroidectomy. She is returned to the surgical unit after a short stay in the postanesthesia care unit. She is receiving fluids intravenously. When this patient has completely recovered from anesthesia, and her vital signs are stable, which position would be most appropriate for her?
A) Prone
B) Semi-Fowler's
C) Trendelenburg
D) Supine
Q3) One of the side effects of administering calcium gluconate intravenously is A) hypocalcemia.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) extravasation at the site.
D) paralysis after infusion.
Q4) Another term for hyperglycemic reaction is ____________ ______________.
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39 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23151
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 23, seeks care at the health clinic because he has developed a profuse, purulent urethral discharge, and urination is painful. During assessment of the patient, it is most important that the nurse gather information related to
A) all of his sexual contacts within the past year.
B) a history of previous similar symptoms.
C) a history of bladder infections or mumps affecting the testicles.
D) a history of recent sexual contact with an individual with a sexually transmitted disease.
Q2) During physical assessment of a patient, age 64, which finding would the nurse consider abnormal?
A) Nonpalpable ovaries
B) Serous nipple drainage
C) Pendulous breasts
D) Atrophy of vaginal tissue
Q3) An appropriate nursing intervention for the patient with a hydrocele is to
A) apply a heating pad.
B) apply ice packs.
C) apply analgesic spray.
D) limit fluid intake.

Page 14
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38 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23152
Sample Questions
Q1) During examination of his external ear, the patient tells the nurse that his ear is very painful when touched. The nurse recognizes that this finding is commonly associated with
A) a ruptured tympanic membrane.
B) a blocked eustachian tube.
C) infection of the mastoid bone.
D) inflammation of the ear canal.
Q2) The nurse answers the call light of a newly admitted patient. The patient tells the nurse she is blind and asks the nurse to assist her to the bathroom. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Take the patient by the arm and lead her slowly to the bathroom.
B) Walk slightly ahead of the patient and allow the patient to hold the nurse's elbow.
C) Give the patient exact descriptive directions to the bathroom so that she can walk there independently.
D) Lead the patient to the bathroom by the hand, describing the location and providing verbal clues.
Q3) _____________ is a medical term for blurred vision.
Q4) Schiötz tonometry is a diagnostic test for __________.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23153
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's neurological status deteriorates over hours, and a craniotomy is performed to evacuate the hematoma. Which nursing intervention is indicated to help decrease the threat of increased intracranial pressure?
A) Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
B) Cluster nursing interventions to provide uninterrupted periods of rest.
C) Teach him to cough and deep breathe to prevent the necessity for suctioning.
D) Teach him to hold his breath and bear down while repositioning in bed.
Q2) The earliest sign of increased intracranial pressure is A) headache.
B) dilated pupil.
C) decreasing level of consciousness.
D) diplopia (double vision).
Q3) A patient, age 45, is to have a myelogram to confirm the presence of a herniated intervertebral disk. Which nursing action should be planned for her with respect to this diagnostic test?
A) Obtain an allergy history before the test.
B) Ambulate the patient when she is returned to her room after the test.
C) Warn her that paralysis could result from injection of the contrast medium.
D) Keep her NPO for 6 to 8 hours after the test.
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23154
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse arrives at the bedside of a patient who has had a unit of packed cells infusing in his right arm for 35 minutes. He is complaining of chills, itching, and shortness of breath. The next action for the nurse would be to A) leave and get help.
B) take the patient's temperature.
C) give him his nose spray.
D) stop the transfusion and IV administer saline.
Q2) A patient has been admitted with pernicious anemia and has asked the nurse to tell him what type of disorder pernicious anemia is. The nurse tells him that it is an immune disorder that results from failures of the tolerance to one's "self." Responding immunologically to one's own antigens is called a(n)
A) immunodeficiency disorder.
B) hypersensitivity disorder.
C) desensitization disorder.
D) autoimmune disorder.
Q3) The purpose of immunotherapy is _____________.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23155
Sample Questions
Q1) While teaching community groups about AIDS, the nurse informs people that the most common method of transmission of the HIV virus currently is
A) sexual contact with an HIV-infected partner.
B) perinatal transmission.
C) exposure to contaminated blood.
D) nonsexual exposure to saliva and tears.
Q2) A patient is advised to be tested for HIV because of his multiple sexual partners and injectable drug use. The nurse should ensure that this patient understands the test by informing him that:
A) The blood is tested with the highly sensitive test called the Western blot.
B) The blood is tested with an ELISA; if positive, it is tested again with an ELISA, followed by a Western blot if the second ELISA is positive.
C) A series of HIV tests is performed to confirm if the patient has AIDS.
D) If the HIV tests are seronegative, John can be assured that he is not infected.
Q3) ______________ is a type of sexual option classified as "no risk" for a person to become infected with HIV virus.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following characteristics are common in malignant tumors
A) Usually contained within a capsule
B) Divide and multiply in the same manner as normal cells
C) Proliferate and respond to treatment
D) Progress and destroy surrounding tissues while spreading to distant parts of the body
Q2) An effective antiemetic drug given intravenously to block receptors on the endings of nerve cells in the brain and gastrointestinal tract, given once a day in a 5-minute infusion, is called
A) prochlorperazine (Compazine).
B) metoclopramide (Reglan).
C) granisetron (Kytril).
D) pentoxifylline (Trental).
Q3) Which is a type of biopsy?
A) Syringe
B) Aspiration
C) Polypectomy
D) Puncture
Q4) Men over age 50 should have annual _________ tests and rectal examinations.
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