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Advanced Medical-Surgical Nursing is designed to deepen the knowledge and clinical expertise of registered nurses in caring for adults with complex, multisystem health problems. The course emphasizes advanced assessment, pathophysiology, and evidence-based interventions for acute and chronic conditions affecting major organ systems. Students will explore critical thinking, clinical decision-making, and collaborative care strategies, preparing them to manage patients with rapidly changing health statuses in diverse settings. Current trends, ethical considerations, leadership roles, and the integration of technology in the management of medical-surgical patients are also explored to foster holistic, patient-centered care.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing 2nd Edition by Kathleen S. Osborn
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67 Chapters
1995 Verified Questions
1995 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse, instructing a patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, reminds the patient about the need for an annual dilated retinal eye examination and annual urine tests to measure protein levels. The nurse is functioning within which role with this patient?
A) Educator
B) Researcher
C) Advocate
D) Leader
Answer: A
Q2) A group of nurse managers wishes to develop more expert nurses in the hospital. Which activities should they plan?. Select all that apply.
A) Encourage the development of critical thinking skills.
B) Require that all nurses go back to school for an advanced degree.
C) Schedule sessions that will allow nurses to reflect on the care provided over a specific period of time.
D) Encourage examination of alternate solutions to common nursing problems.
E) Encourage strict adherence to all unit protocols.
Answer: A,C,D
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing staff at a local hospital are unable to get to work because of deteriorating weather conditions. The administration realizes the lack of staff to provide care will impact which quality standard?
A) Improvement
B) Structure
C) Outcome
D) Process
Answer: B
Q2) A health care provider is reviewing the steps taken to address an ethical issue with a patient. Within which step of the MORAL model is this health care provider working?
A) Massage the dilemma.
B) Look back and evaluate.
C) Outline the options.
D) Act by applying the chosen option.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Even though the nurses in a patient care area have been asked to collect data while conducting patient care, several nurses do the data collection only if time is available. Which research problem criteria does the inconsistent collection of data exemplify?
A) Feasible to address
B) Researchable
C) Of interest to the researcher
D) Significant to nursing
Answer: A
Q2) A patient has not responded to an intervention with the desired outcome. Which nursing action is the best example of using evidence-based practice to solve this problem?
A) Apply the intervention again.
B) Find a research study about the intervention and apply the study's finding.
C) Evaluate what went wrong with the intervention.
D) Find research, quality improvement study outcomes, and information from experts to change the intervention.
Answer: D
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Q1) A hospital's nursing administration is considering moving to a patient-centered care model. What are the benefits of this model?
A) It is less expensive as it requires fewer registered nurses.
B) Care can be provided more efficiently.
C) This care delivery method increases patient satisfaction.
D) It standardizes care, therefore reducing the need for large supply or medication inventories.
Q2) A state has experienced an economic downturn and a shortage of registered nurses. Which nursing care delivery model would hospital administrators be likely to avoid?
A) Case method
B) Team nursing
C) Primary care nursing
D) Functional nursing
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Q1) The nurse is using the Kardex to plan a patient's care. What information would the nurse expect to find in this document?. Select all that apply.
A) Nursing notes from the previous shift
B) Schedule of diagnostic tests
C) Level of activity
D) Diet
E) IV therapy
Q2) The nursing instructor knows that further education is needed when a student makes which statement?
A) "Assessment precedes nursing diagnosis and outcome identification."
B) "Planning follows nursing diagnosis and outcome identification and precedes implementation."
C) "Evaluation follows implementation and precedes planning."
D) "Planning follows assessment and precedes evaluation."
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Q1) During the health history, a patient tells the nurse that she is in an abusive relationship and is fearful of getting hurt if her husband finds out that she told the nurse. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate for this patient?
A) "Don't worry. They only strike back when they are angry."
B) "Are you saying that you are in danger?"
C) "I would get an attorney if I were you."
D) "Remember, what goes around comes around."
Q2) A patient comes to the emergency department and states, "I am having chest pain and I feel short of breath." How is the data the patient has just given the nurse classified?
A) Nonspecific
B) Objective
C) Factual
D) Subjective
Q3) A 54-year-old patient reports that she smokes a pack and a half of cigarettes daily and has been smoking since she was 16 years old. The nurse would record a smoking history of ______ pack-years.
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Q1) At the completion of genetic testing, it has been determined that a patient's baby will have Down syndrome. What should the nurse say to the patient after learning this information?
A) "I realize that this news is difficult for you. Is there anything I can do to help you at this time?"
B) "It's not too late to consider ending the pregnancy."
C) "You are young enough to be able to handle the baby's challenges."
D) "It does not matter if the baby has problems; all life is precious."
Q2) A patient has been told that her unborn child has Down syndrome. Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient about the etiology of this disorder?
A) "Down syndrome is the most common type of trisomy, which occurs when there is an extra chromosome."
B) "Most Down syndrome is caused by monosomy."
C) "Down syndrome occurs as a result of breaks in chromosomes called translocations."
D) "Deletions or loss of part of a chromosome is a common cause of Down syndrome."
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient receiving an extensive regimen of chemotherapy. The nurse recognizes that the patient's ability to avoid muscle wasting during this treatment is most affected by which factor?
A) Pretreatment nutritional status
B) Management of nausea and vomiting
C) General attitude related to food
D) Nutritional value of the foods the patient is likely to eat
Q2) The mother of a 14-year-old boy is concerned that her son may have anorexia nervosa. Which statements by the mother would the nurse evaluate as supporting this concern?. Select all that apply.
A) "His whole focus in life is on improving his marathon time."
B) "He complains of being hot all the time."
C) "He is losing his hair."
D) "He has lost 5 pounds since he started football practice."
E) "He seems so skinny and weak."
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that she never had "bowel problems" until she started a new job that is highly demanding. What is the nurse's best response to this patient?
A) "You might have had the bowel problems all along but didn't realize it until recently."
B) "There is no connection between the new bowel problems and your new job."
C) "The new job might be a trigger for a stress reaction in your body, causing the new bowel problems."
D) "Because of your new job you may be eating in different places. That can upset your stomach."
Q2) The nurse is preparing a teaching session for a group of adult patients. Which characteristics of adult learning should this nurse consider?. Select all that apply.
A) Adults like to be able to use newly learned material immediately.
B) The adult learner has many experiences that influence the teaching session.
C) Adults cannot learn new affective skills.
D) Adult readiness to learn is influenced by social role.
E) The adult learner's cognitive learning skills are limited by age.
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Q1) A patient reports difficulty hearing when talking to family members on the telephone. Which technologies should the nurse consider when replying to this patient?. Select all that apply.
A) TTY telephones
B) Voice over Internet Protocol (VOIP)
C) Videoconferencing
D) Analog rather than digital telephone
E) Special telephone with higher volume
Q2) A 70-year-old patient has been taking over-the-counter cimetidine for a number of years to treat reflux disease. The nurse would closely assess this patient for which adverse responses?. Select all that apply.
A) Gastrointestinal bleeding
B) Depression
C) Double vision
D) Confusion
E) Fluid retention
Q3) A nurse researcher is preparing to study a group of older adults and their response to a nursing intervention. To meet the legal definition of older adult, the study group should include persons _______ years of age or older.
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Q1) A patient is experiencing delirium. Which group of medications should the nurse consider administering to help reduce delirium?
A) Neuroleptics
B) Benzodiazapines
C) NSAIDs (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs)
D) Opioids
Q2) A terminal patient with a fulminating leg wound needs surgery, yet it is unlikely the patient will survive the procedure. The nurse could ethically support which action by the health care team?
A) Explaining that the surgery is needed and every effort will be done to keep the patient alive
B) Deciding not to conduct the surgery and determining if there are other treatment approaches
C) Telling the patient that offering surgery was an error and that treatment will be done with medications and therapy
D) Conducting the surgery without telling the patient that survival is unlikely.
Q3) A patient is prescribed an intravenous midazolam drip at a rate of 1-5 mg/hr, titrated to symptom relief. The nurse would start this drip at ______ mg/hr.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is receiving pain medication around the clock complains of an acute exacerbation of pain. What should the nurse do to help this patient?
A) Provide the medication ordered for breakthrough pain.
B) Talk the patient through the pain.
C) Encourage the patient to ignore the pain.
D) Give the patient a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).
Q2) The nurse is evaluating a patient receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid). Which findings are adverse effects of this medication?. Select all that apply.
A) Pruritus
B) Polyuria
C) Nausea
D) Decreased respiratory rate
E) Tachypnea
Q3) A patient who had abdominal surgery this morning is receiving opioid pain medication on a routine basis. The nurse would hold the medication if the patient's respirations fall below _____ per minute.
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Q1) A patient tells the nurse that she started to have a glass of wine every evening at home after work to "unwind" and then realized that she cannot continue with her day unless she has the wine. The nurse realizes that this patient uses wine for which reason?
A) To cope with day-to-day problems
B) To deal with difficulty expressing emotions
C) To suppress a genetic need for alcohol
D) To socialize with others
Q2) A young adult patient tells the nurse that he periodically uses "uppers" to keep awake while studying for college classes, so he does not understand why he has been feeling so depressed lately. How would the nurse interpret what the patient is experiencing?
A) Expected effects of the drug
B) Symptoms of a "crash"
C) Cocaine abstinence syndrome
D) Hallucinations
Q3) A loading dose of magnesium sulfate 4 g is ordered for a patient. The concentration available is 4 g/250 mL to be given over 30 minutes. The IV pump rate will be set at _______ mL/h.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would be concerned that a patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of inflammation after assessing which findings in a leg wound?. Select all that apply.
A) Edema
B) Pain
C) Erythema
D) Coolness of tissues
E) Decreased distal pulses
Q2) A patient has been prescribed cefadroxil (Duricef). Patient teaching must include which instructions?. Select all that apply.
A) Take on an empty stomach.
B) Avoid alcohol.
C) Report any hearing loss.
D) Drink additional water.
E) Complete the prescription.
Q3) The nurse is performing hand hygiene with an alcohol-based product. The nurse should rub the hands together for at least ______ seconds.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would assess specifically for metabolic alkalosis in which patient?
A) A patient admitted for treatment of bulimia
B) A patient who has been on dialysis for 2 months
C) A patient with a nonhealing venous stasis ulcer
D) A patient with newly diagnosed with COPD
Q2) The nurse is discussing respiratory and metabolic acids and bases. Which statements would the nurse supervisor evaluate as indicating that the nurse needs more information?. Select all that apply.
A) "When water combines with carbon dioxide, carbonic acid is produced."
B) "Carbon dioxide is a potential acid that is excreted through the lungs."
C) "Body metabolism produces lactic acids, which are constantly eliminated in the lungs."
D) "Sodium bicarbonate buffers the blood by removing hydrogen ions from the blood."
E) "Carbonic acid dissociates into sodium and bicarbonate."
Q3) A clinic patient is short of breath and has ankle edema. Today's weight is 8 pounds heavier that last week's weight. The nurse determines that the patient could have retained ______ pints of fluid.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in critical need of additional blood transfusions related to massive hemorrhage. The blood bank has no blood that matches the patient's type. The nurse would agree to administer non-type-specific blood if the patient has which blood type?
A) B
B) AB
C) A
D) O
Q2) The nurse has successfully completed insertion of a peripheral venous catheter. Documentation following the procedure includes which information?. Select all that apply.
A) Method of securing the catheter
B) Size, length, and type of catheter
C) Patient complaints of pain during the procedure
D) Patient participation in the procedure
E) Complications of the procedure
Q3) The nurse is planning to administer 10 units of platelets to a patient with thrombocytopenia. The nurse plans to have a platelet count drawn within _______ minutes of the end of the transfusion.
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Q1) A patient who is being admitted for surgery asks the nurse why information is being collected about the patient's use of herbal and natural supplements. Which statement is an appropriate nursing response?
A) "Herbal supplements may interact with medications given during or after surgery."
B) "We would like to continue these medications postoperatively."
C) "The physician is in charge of medications."
D) "There is no need to take these preparations."
Q2) The patient who is preparing for surgery asks the nurse to keep his glasses in place until he is under anesthesia. Which statement by the nurse demonstrates accurate, therapeutic communication?
A) "I will contact the surgery department to discuss your requests."
B) "You cannot keep your glasses on."
C) "The policies in the surgery unit will not allow it."
D) "Certainly, you can keep them for that time."
Q3) A patient has postponed an elective surgical procedure. The nurse would advise the patient that a new preoperative health assessment will be necessary if the original assessment document is over _____ days old.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is scheduled for an operative procedure that will require placement of an additional IV line, an indwelling urinary catheter, and a nasogastric tube. The nurse should advocate for these lines to be placed at what time?
A) Prior to transferring the patient to the preoperative holding area
B) In the preoperative holding area
C) After general anesthesia has been induced
D) In the postanesthesia recovery room
Q2) The surgical team is participating in a surgical time-out. What activities are part of this procedure?. Select all that apply.
A) Verification that the correct patient is prepared for surgery
B) Announcement of the name of the surgical procedure planned
C) A pause to allow last-minute preparation of the surgical suite
D) Determination of the body side on which the surgery will occur
E) Final surgical hand scrub
Q3) The certified nurse anesthetist suspects a patient is experiencing malignant hyperthermia and will administer dantrolene sodium 3 mg/kg IV. The patient's documented weight is 143 pounds. The nurse will administer _____ mg in the first bolus.
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Q1) An elderly postoperative patient is given metoclopramide (Reglan) for nausea. Which assessment finding would indicate this patient is experiencing a possible adverse reaction to this medication?. Select all that apply.
A) Involuntary muscle movements
B) Sedation
C) Dry mouth
D) Breakthrough vomiting
E) Hypotension
Q2) The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient who has had outpatient surgery. Which criteria would make the patient eligible for discharge?. Select all that apply.
A) Stable vital signs for 1 hour
B) No nausea or dizziness
C) Acceptable level of pain
D) Ability to void
E) Stated readiness to go home
Q3) The PACU nurse is using the postanesthetic scoring system to determine if a patient is ready to be discharged home after a same-day surgery. The nurse would determine the patient to be ready when the score reaches _______.
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Q1) The nurse has just finished explaining to a patient's son the function of the Mini-Mental Status Examination (MMSE). Which statement by the patient's son indicates his understanding?
A) "This test will evaluate my dad's ability to think, reason, and make decisions."
B) "This test will give us a good idea if Dad is mentally healthy enough to live alone."
C) "If Dad passes this test, we will know that his mind is still okay."
D) "I'm sure Dad will do well on the test; he's always been smart."
Q2) What precaution must the nurse take when performing the Romberg test?
A) Have the patient remain seated.
B) Stand close to the patient.
C) Have the patient keep the eyes open.
D) Warn the patient that a sharp object is being used for the test.
Q3) The nurse recognizes which observation as a positive Babinski sign?
A) Inability to identify two simultaneous points of pain on the foot
B) Curling of all the toes in response to stroking stimulation
C) Feeling a buzzing sensation in the foot when touched with a tuning fork
D) Dorsiflexion of the great toe, with fanning of the other toes
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Q1) A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is being repositioned. The nurse would incorporate which actions into this intervention?. Select all that apply.
A) Inform the patient regarding what is going to occur during the intervention.
B) Reposition the patient every 1 to 2 hours.
C) Accompany each repositioning with passive range-of-motion exercises.
D) Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
E) Manage the repositioning with slow, smooth, and gentle movements.
Q2) A patient at risk for increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is likely to experience involuntary compensatory mechanisms. The nurse would monitor this patient for signs of which involuntary compensation?. Select all that apply.
A) Vasoconstriction of cardiac vessels
B) Vasodilation of the cerebral vessels
C) Decreased production of cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)
D) Decreased metabolic energy needs
E) Increased absorption of cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)
Q3) A nurse is providing care to a patient with increased intracranial pressure following a closed head injury. The nurse would determine that adequate cerebral perfusion pressure exists if the CPP is at least ____.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hospitalized patient has become unresponsive. The left side of the body is flaccid. The attending physician believes the patient may have had a hemorrhagic stroke. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
A) Move the patient to the critical care unit.
B) Assess blood pressure.
C) Assess the airway and breathing.
D) Observe urinary output.
Q2) A post-stroke patient is going home on oral Coumadin (warfarin). During discharge teaching, which statement by the patient reflects an understanding of the effects of this medication?
A) "I will stop taking this medicine if I notice any bruising."
B) "I will not eat spinach while I'm taking this medicine."
C) "It will be OK for me to eat anything."
D) "I'll check my blood pressure frequently while taking this medication."
Q3) The nurse is monitoring a patient who has had a subarachnoid bleed. The nurse plans care based on the knowledge that the risk for cerebral vasospasm is highest in Fisher grade _______ aneurysms.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The nurse plans care based on which understanding of the patient's prognosis?
A) The disease progresses slowly and is fatal.
B) The disease will progress over many years but the patient's quality of life will be good.
C) The disease progresses rapidly but can be halted by drug therapy.
D) The disease will progress slowly and can be controlled by medication.
Q2) The nurse explains to a patient who has been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis (MG) that this condition differs from amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) in that MG has which characteristics?. Select all that apply.
A) It is usually fatal in 3 to 4 years after onset.
B) MG presents with shorter remissions as the disease progresses.
C) The onset of MG in women commonly occurs between 20 and 40 years of age.
D) Patients experience an increase of symptoms when exposed to sunlight, viral illness, and emotional stress.
E) MG produces involuntary twitching of the arms, legs, and tongue muscles.
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Q1) The nurse would prioritize which nursing diagnosis when caring for a patient diagnosed with a spinal cord injury?
A) Fluid Volume Deficit
B) Impaired Physical Mobility
C) Ineffective Breathing Pattern
D) Altered Tissue Perfusion
Q2) The health care provider orders
2.5 mg IV of morphine sulfate (Morphine) to be administered to a patient with a ruptured intervertebral disc. The nurse has a 1 milliliter (mL) vial containing 10 mg of morphine sulfate. The nurse needs to withdraw ______ mL of morphine sulfate from the vial.
Q3) How should the nurse explain to a patient with a spinal cord injury why the extent of injury cannot be determined for several days to a week?
A) "Tissue repair does not begin for 72 hours."
B) "We have to wait until spinal shock resolves."
C) "Neurons need time to regenerate, so it is hard to predict how you will progress."
D) "The most serious changes after an injury take days to develop."
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Q1) A patient with a preexisting pulmonary illness is being seen in the clinic for a routine assessment. The patient says, "My family and I are going skiing for our next vacation." What information should the nurse provide?
A) "Going to high altitudes is not a good idea for your health."
B) "You should be watchful for any respiratory problems while you are there."
C) "You should go to the seashore instead."
D) "Be certain to fly directly to the resort if possible."
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with a low iron count. The nurse would be alert for which finding associated with this condition?
A) Increased carbon dioxide in the blood
B) Nausea
C) Anxiety
D) Poor tissue oxygenation
Q3) The nurse wants to assess the apex of a patient's right lung. In which location should the nurse place the stethoscope?
A) Intercostal space, sixth rib near the sternum
B) Intercostal space, fourth rib near the axillary line
C) Below the scapula
D) Near the right clavicle

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Q1) A patient who is scheduled for a partial laryngectomy asks if he will still be able to talk after the surgery. What are appropriate nursing responses to this patient?. Select all that apply.
A) "No, you will not."
B) "You will have to ask your physician."
C) "Yes, but it might sound a little different."
D) "You will be able to talk, but with an electronic device."
E) "Speech is usually preserved, but we will know better after surgery."
Q2) A patient has had myocutaneous flap reconstruction for the defect caused by a neck tumor resection. What nursing interventions are indicated for care of this flap?.
Select all that apply.
A) Keep the patient in the supine position for at least 24 hours after surgery.
B) Regularly assess the flap for capillary refill.
C) Use tracheostomy ties to help keep the flap in place.
D) Keep the patient's head turned slightly toward the operative side.
E) Keep the patient on strict bed rest until flap healing is established.
Q3) The nurse, suctioning a patient's tracheostomy, plans for each suctioning attempt to last no longer than _____ seconds.
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Q1) Which statements would indicate that a patient diagnosed with asthma needs additional teaching at discharge?. Select all that apply.
A) "I know I shouldn't smoke, but one or two cigarettes a day shouldn't be harmful."
B) "I should monitor my peak flow daily and record it in a diary."
C) "I should rinse my mouth after each use of my corticosteroid inhaler."
D) "Using a spacer with my inhaler will allow for better and more accurate medication delivery."
E) "I should plan to have pulmonary function tests done every 5 years."
Q2) A patient has been prescribed isoniazid (INH) and rifampin for the treatment of tuberculosis. The nurse should instruct the patient to report which physical changes associated with this therapy?. Select all that apply.
A) Fever
B) Yellow tint to the skin
C) Discoloration of tears
D) Visual disturbances
E) Loss of appetite
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Q1) A patient being ventilated mechanically develops respiratory alkalosis. The high-pressure alarm has sounded frequently for this patient. The nurse knows this is a common problem in patients with which ventilator settings?
A) Assist-control mode
B) SIMV mode with the set rate too low
C) Pressure-support mode
D) Pressure-control mode
Q2) The family of an elderly patient diagnosed with pulmonary edema asks the nurse what the diagnosis means. How should the nurse respond?
A) "It is too much fluid in the lungs."
B) "It is a narrowing of the coronary vessels that causes the heart to stop working correctly."
C) "It is a disorder that rarely affects individuals older than D) "It is caused by working too hard when one is younger." 60."
Q3) Arterial blood gases reveal that a patient's PaO<sub>2</sub> is 84% on room air. The patient's FaO<sub>2</sub>/FiO<sub>2</sub> ratio is ______.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78629
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient being assessed for cardiovascular illness reports smoking cigarettes. Which nursing questions are indicated?. Select all that apply.
A) "How many packs of cigarettes do you smoke a day?"
B) "How many years have you been smoking?"
C) "Have you ever tried to quit smoking?"
D) "How much money do you spend on cigarettes each month?"
E) "How do you feel about smoking?"
Q2) The nurse notes jugular venous distention (JVD) when the patient is lying flat in bed. Which nursing action is indicated?
A) Turn the patient to the left side and reassess in 10 minutes.
B) Place the patient in a supine position and raise the head of the bed to 30 degrees for reassessment.
C) Notify the patient's primary physician immediately.
D) Ask the patient to cough and assess for the disappearance of the JVD.
Q3) The S1 heart sound corresponds to which physiological event?
A) Closure of the AV valves
B) Closure of the semilunar valves
C) Ejection of blood from the atria
D) The onset of relaxation

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78628
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse count
3.5 large squares between two R waves on the patient's cardiac monitor tracing. The nurse calculates the patient's heart rate as _______ beats per minute. (Round to the nearest whole beat.)
Q2) If the PR interval is abnormal, the nurse would assess for conditions affecting the timing of impulse transmission from which parts of the cardiac conduction system?
A) SA node to the ventricles
B) Bundle of His to the ventricles
C) AV node to the ventricles
D) Purkinje fibers to the ventricles
Q3) How would the nurse differentiate between premature atrial contractions (PACs) and premature junctional contractions (PJCs) on the patient's cardiac monitor tracing?
A) The beat in question is early in the rhythm.
B) A PJC has an inverted P wave.
C) The QRS looks essentially normal.
D) The heart rate is 60.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's vital signs are heart rate 82, respirations 22, and blood pressure 90/52. If hemodynamic monitoring reveals the patient's cardiac output to be 5330 mL/min, the nurse would calculate that stroke volume is _____ mL.
Q2) The nurse is assisting with the insertion of a subclavian central venous catheter. Which actions are indicated?. Select all that apply.
A) Place the patient in a prone position.
B) Ask the patient to turn the head away from the insertion site.
C) Alert the patient that the face may be covered temporarily with sterile drapes.
D) Place the bed in Trendelenburg position.
E) Ask the patient to cough when feeling the insertion catheter touch the skin.
Q3) A patient's central venous pressure reading is 8 mmHg. The nurse understands this reading reflects which physiological parameter?
A) The blood pressure within the right atrium
B) The blood pressure within the pulmonary artery
C) The blood pressure within the left ventricle
D) The blood pressure within the left atrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two days after having coronary bypass grafting, a patient develops atrial fibrillation. The patient is tolerating the rhythm. What is the nurse's initial action?
A) Have the patient cough.
B) Do an electrocardiogram (ECG).
C) Increase the patient's IV rate.
D) Notify the health care provider.
Q2) The nurse would suspect conversion of a patient's stable angina to unstable angina if the patient reports angina lasting over _______ minutes at rest.
Q3) The nurse, caring for a patient diagnosed with Prinzmetal's or variant angina, realizes this is a serious type of chest pain. Why is this so?
A) It indicates the presence of coronary artery spasm.
B) It indicates there is associated renal disease.
C) It indicates there is associated pulmonary disease.
D) It indicates the presence of a myocardial infarction.
Q4) A patient's activity is progressing after an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). The nurse would determine that the patient is deconditioned if getting up in a chair decreases systolic blood pressure by _______ mmHg or more.
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Q1) The medical record states that a patient with infective endocarditis has Osler's nodes. The nurse would assess the patient for which finding?
A) Enlarged lymph nodes in the axilla
B) Painful mobile enlargement of the posterior lymph node chain in the neck
C) Painful red or purple lesions on the fingertips or toes
D) Round white spots on the retina
Q2) The nurse calls a patient 2 days before an outpatient procedure to discuss preprocedure preparation. The procedure is being done to track the progression of the patient's valvular disease. Which testing is likely scheduled?
A) Chest x-ray
B) An electrocardiogram
C) Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)
D) Cardiac catheterization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the priority nursing action the nurse would implement for a patient who is admitted with pulmonary edema?
A) Insert a peripheral intravenous catheter.
B) Seek a prescription to medicate the patient for comfort.
C) Monitor the blood glucose level.
D) Place a pulse oximeter and administer oxygen.
Q2) A patient with heart failure has orthopnea, tachycardia, fatigue, and activity intolerance. How would the nurse explain the presence of these findings?
A) "You are not coping with your body's changing health."
B) "Your body's protective mechanisms are malfunctioning."
C) "You have not been following instructions on caring for yourself."
D) "Your body is trying to maintain an adequate blood pressure and oxygen supply."
Q3) Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse add to the care plan of a patient diagnosed with acute systolic heart failure?
A) Disturbed Body Image
B) Imbalanced Nutrition: More than Body Requirements
C) Excess Fluid Volume
D) Ineffective Airway Clearance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with Raynaud's disease presents with pallor of the fingers. The patient states that the hands turn white, then blue, then red. How should the nurse explain these symptoms to the patient?
A) "Bleeding is occurring in the interior portion of your hands."
B) "You have inflammation of the small vessels of your hands and feet that will eventually form small clots."
C) "These symptoms are caused by spasm of the small arteries and arterioles in your hands."
D) "Your symptoms are associated with atherosclerosis caused by too many circulating lipids."
Q2) A 38-year-old, 150-pound male has been diagnosed with deep venous thrombosis (DVT). The patient's history includes recent cardiac bypass surgery, working in a pesticide plant, and hypertension. The family asks what might have put the patient at risk for DVT. How should the nurse respond?
A) "Hypertension is a major contributor to the development of DVTs."
B) "The cause of DVTs is unknown, but his weight may be a factor."
C) "His prior employment in the pesticide plant may have contributed to the DVT."
D) "His recent surgery and prolonged immobilization are risk factors."
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse includes which data when documenting a patient's biographic and demographic information?. Select all that apply.
A) The patient has a high school diploma.
B) The patient drinks two to three beers per day.
C) The patient is male.
D) The patient lives on a farm in a rural area.
E) The patient is 24 years old.
Q2) When assessing a patient who is scheduled to have a CT scan of the kidneys, which finding would prompt the nurse to notify the primary health care provider?
A) Allergy to iodine and seafood
B) Urinary output of 1,200 mL in 24 hours
C) Last bowel movement one day ago
D) Height 5'8" and weight 160 pounds
Q3) When percussing a patient's abdomen to gather assessment data, the nurse must rely most heavily on which ability?
A) Locating the margins of the various abdominal organs
B) Differentiating the various elicited sounds
C) Supplementing the technique with fine finger dexterity
D) Observing subtle variations in the contour of the abdomen
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Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with type 1 herpes simplex lesions on the mouth and face. Which statement indicates that the patient understands the information provided by the nurse?
A) "I will have this condition for life."
B) "This was caused by a bacterial infection."
C) "I have come into contact with some type of fungal infection."
D) "An antibiotic will help heal these sores in about 3 days."
Q2) The nurse has identified the goals of "intact skin integrity" and "intact stoma integrity" for a patient with a colostomy. Which evaluation parameters are best suited for these goals?. Select all that apply.
A) The stoma is pink and moist.
B) No excoriation is noted on skin surrounding the stoma.
C) The patient shows understanding of importance of preventing fecal leakage.
D) The patient demonstrates ability to apply the collecting appliance properly.
E) The stomal area is free of pain.
Q3) The physician has ordered metoclopramide (Reglan) 2 mg/kg IVP to be given 30 minutes before the start of chemotherapy. The patient weighs 54 kg. The metoclopramide (Reglan) is dispensed in a 10 mg/10 mL vial. The nurse will administer ________ mL of metoclopramide.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has portal system encephalopathy is receiving Neomycin (neomycin sulfate). Which manifestation would indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?
A) An increase in the potassium level
B) Asterixis
C) Relief of jaundice
D) Increased level of consciousness
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with severe liver disease. The nurse notes new ecchymotic areas on the patient's arms and legs. Which laboratory results will the nurse analyze regarding this finding?. Select all that apply.
A) Complete blood count
B) Coagulation studies
C) Serum albumin
D) Serum ammonia levels
E) Serum hepatitis antibodies
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Q1) A patient has been admitted with a possible kidney stone. The nurse would expect the patient's pain to radiate from which area?
A) The middle of the back, between the scapulas
B) Very low in the center of the back
C) The area where the ribs and spine come together
D) The middle of the abdomen, just above the umbilicus
Q2) A male patient with a urinary stoma says, "I looked at it while you were out of the room. It's not so bad." How should the nurse evaluate this statement?
A) The patient is making progress with coping.
B) The patient is in denial.
C) The patient has not grieved for his body image.
D) The patient is angry.
Q3) A patient is diagnosed with postrenal acute renal failure. Which finding is associated with this type of renal failure?
A) An enlarged prostate
B) Hypovolemia
C) Sepsis
D) Drug toxicity
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78618
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing for a left inguinal hernia in a male patient. Which technique should the nurse use?
A) Palpate for a structure that feels like a "bag of worms."
B) Use the left forefinger to examine the inguinal ring.
C) Ask the patient to cough during the assessment.
D) Have the patient face a table and lean over it.
Q2) A patient with a menstrual cycle of 28 days asks about the timing of ovulation. The nurse would respond that ovulation would most likely occur on which days?
A) 14 to 16 12.
B) 20 to 22
C) 10 to
D) 1 to 2
Q3) The nurse is preparing to obtain a sexual history from a male patient. Which is of the highest importance in this assessment?
A) "Do you engage in same-sex activity?"
B) "Do you have sex frequently?"
C) "Do you enjoy sexual intercourse?"
D) "Do you engage in masturbation?"

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Q1) A patient is scheduled to undergo a laparoscopic gynecologic procedure. Which statement by the patient indicates to the nurse a need for further education about the procedure?
A) "I can expect to go home a few hours after the procedure."
B) "I might experience some abdominal pain after the procedure."
C) "Walking may help reduce my postprocedure pain."
D) "I should report shoulder pain, as it might signal a complication."
Q2) A 56-year-old female patient thinks she's "losing her mind" because of constant anxiety, flushing, inability to sleep, and headaches. The nurse would ask assessment questions based on which condition being the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A) Premenstrual syndrome
B) Menopause
C) Postmenopause
D) Dysmenorrhea
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Q1) A patient is diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). What rationale does the nurse provide for measuring the patient's blood pressure?
A) To help determine whether the patient can tolerate doxazosin mesylate (Cardura)
B) As baseline BP if surgery is indicated
C) To help determine the volume of urine being retained in the bladder
D) To determine the dose of finasteride (Proscar)
Q2) A female patient asks the nurse for help because her husband has not been able to attain an erection in several months. Which nursing intervention should be performed first?
A) Assess the couple's most recent sexual practices.
B) Suggest that she seek psychiatric counseling.
C) Suggest that the couple contact a marriage counselor.
D) Suggest that the husband talk to his physician about a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra).
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Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with chlamydia. Which statement by the patient would the nurse evaluate as indicating that the goal of expedited partner therapy (EPT) has been met?
A) "My boyfriend has made an appointment to get his medication."
B) "I talked to my boyfriend about what we need to do to prevent reinfection."
C) "I cannot convince my boyfriend to come to the clinic to learn about chlamydia."
D) "Once I have completed treatment, my boyfriend will start taking the medication."
Q2) A patient is experiencing a painless, ulcerated area on her labia. The nurse would conduct additional assessment for which disease?
A) Herpes simplex 2
B) Syphilis
C) Condylomata acuminata
D) Gonorrhea
Q3) The health care provider orders doxycyline 100 mg PO every 12 hours for 7 days. The pharmacy fills the prescription with 0.1 g doxycyline capsules. The nurse should instruct the patient to take ____ capsules per day.
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a community information session about breast cancer a participant says, "You hear about so many women with breast cancer now. Why is it so much more common?" Which nursing statement is indicated?
A) "We believe that the hormone additives in milk and meat have made breast cancer more common."
B) "Since we revised the recommendations for the use of hormones during menopause, the rates of breast cancer have actually decreased."
C) "Our surveillance, detection, and treatment options are better now, so deaths due to breast cancer are fewer."
D) "So many more women smoke cigarettes now that breast cancer rates are going up."
E) "In the United States we have a higher percentage of Hispanic women, who are at highest risk of developing breast cancer."
Q2) A patient's genetic studies reveal she is positive for both BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations. The nurse prepares to care for a patient whose lifetime risk of developing breast cancer is _______%.
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Q1) During an endocrine assessment, the nurse notes that the patient's heart rate is sustained at 160 beats per minute. The patient reports nervousness but has no loss of consciousness or reduced mentation. What nursing intervention is priority?
A) Ask how long the patient's heart has been beating so fast.
B) Note the findings in the patient's medical record.
C) Notify the health care provider immediately.
D) Have the patient ambulate around the room and reassess.
Q2) A patient has had surgery to remove a tumor of the anterior pituitary. The nurse plans to assess for dysfunction associated with decreased levels of which hormones?. Select all that apply.
A) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) Gonadotropic hormones
D) Antidiuretic hormone
E) Somatostatin
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Q1) The nurse assesses a patient who has a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome. Which set of findings should the nurse follow up immediately?
A) Serum potassium
B) Serum sodium 145 mEq/L and reports of muscle weakness 2.5 and blood pressure 150/90
C) Serum calcium 11 mg/dL and reports of feelings of depression
D) Serum phosphorus 3 mg/dL and hirsutism
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with elevated serum thyroid hormones and new-onset exophthalmos. The nurse establishes which nursing diagnosis?
A) Disturbed Body Image
B) Risk for Infection
C) Imbalanced Nutrition: More than Body Requirements
D) Fluid Volume Excess
Q3) Which clinic patient would the nurse monitor for development of Cushing syndrome?
A) A patient who received radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism
B) A patient receiving steroid treatment for rheumatoid arthritis
C) A patient who has had surgery on the neck
D) A patient receiving radiation for a brain tumor
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Q1) The nurse is addressing a group of patients with prediabetes. What should the nurse include in a teaching plan for this group?
A) The person with prediabetes needs insulin to maintain normal blood glucose levels.
B) Patients with prediabetes are at increased risk for macular degeneration.
C) Individuals with prediabetes should limit fluid intake.
D) The person with prediabetes has an increased risk of heart disease.
Q2) At a community health screening for blood glucose testing, the nurse would expect which person to have the highest risk for having type 2 diabetes?
A) A 30-year-old Caucasian patient who recently had a baby
B) A patient who lives in a nearby rural farming town
C) A patient following a high-protein diet
D) A 40-year-old with weight centered in the abdomen
Q3) The nurse is providing dietary instruction to a patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. The nurse includes information on how to reduce dietary intake of cholesterol to no more than _______ mg per day.
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Q1) The nurse plans to use a goniometer during assessment of a patient's musculoskeletal system. Which technique should the nurse use?. Select all that apply.
A) Document the angle of the joint in range of degrees.
B) Place the fulcrum of the goniometer on the joint.
C) Place the movable arm of the goniometer on the stationary part of the joint.
D) Place the stationary arm of the goniometer on the part of the limb that will not move.
E) Move the patient's arm through the normal full range of motion.
Q2) During a physical assessment, the patient walks to the door of the examination room as the nurse watches the patient switch the weight on the feet. The nurse would document assessment of which part of the musculoskeletal status?
A) Knee extension
B) Second-phase gait
C) Hip flexion
D) First-phase gait
Q3) The nurse determines that a patient's shoulder muscle strength is normal when it is graded as _______ or better.
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Q1) A patient is being discharged after treatment for a fracture. Which home management instructions would help ensure safety in the patient's home environment?
A) "Place a small rug in front of bathroom sink to reduce your risk of slipping on water."
B) "Be certain that devices used for cooking work properly."
C) "Be sure all walking paths through the house are clear of obstruction."
D) "Move the furniture around so you have lots of things to hold on to for support."
Q2) A 30-year-old female patient diagnosed with early onset of osteoporosis asks the nurse how she could be at risk for this disease, as she is so active. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "Your frequent exercise might have placed underlying stress on your skeleton."
B) "You are at an age when your estrogen levels have begun to decline drastically, thus increasing your risk for the development of osteoporosis."
C) "Do your bones feel weak or painful?"
D) "Dietary practices have some influence on the development of osteoporosis."
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Q1) Which findings would indicate possible compromise of ulnar nerve integrity following surgical repair of a patient's elbow?
A) Edema in the forearm that is rated 3+
B) Pain radiating from the wrist to the middle finger
C) Inability to make the "OK" sign by bringing the thumb to the fourth or fifth finger
D) Slight flexion limitation (less than 15 degrees) during passive ROM
Q2) The nurse is aware that which occupations could put a patient at risk for carpal tunnel syndrome?. Select all that apply.
A) Wheat farmer
B) Store cashier
C) Barber
D) Computer data input specialist
E) Carpenter
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Questions
Q1) The nurse has been providing care to a patient with scleroderma for a number of years. As the patient's disease progresses, the nurse monitors for CREST symptomology. For which finding is the nurse assessing?
A) Recurrence of tophi on the ears or fingers
B) Shiny skin over the involved joints.
C) Development of telangiectasia
D) Extremities that are always cool to the touch
Q2) A patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus exhibits a facial rash. What instruction should the nurse provide regarding skin care?. Select all that apply.
A) Avoid being out of doors during the hours of greatest sun intensity.
B) Use sunscreen if sun exposure is possible.
C) Apply hydrocortisone cream 1% to the rash 4 to 6 times per day.
D) Wash the rash with antibacterial soap three times a day.
E) Swim in a chlorinated pool for relief of burning.
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Q1) A patient is demonstrating signs of a delayed immunological response to a virus. Which component of the immune system is responsible for beginning this response?
A) Complement
B) Intact functioning T cells
C) Functioning human leukocyte antigens
D) Intact functioning B cells
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that he's happy that his wife did not "catch" the same cold from which he has recently recovered. The nurse realizes that what most likely occurred in his wife?
A) Release of cytokines
B) Proliferation of CD 8 cells
C) T-helper 1 stimulation to kill unidentified cells
D) T-helper 2 memory of a previous exposure to the same virus that caused the patient's illness
Q3) The nurse would consider a provisional diagnosis of sepsis as supported by a band count of over ______ % of the total white blood cell count.
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Q1) A patient has given permission for an enzyme immunoassay (EIA) test for HIV. Which information should the nurse provide?. Select all that apply.
A) "You will need to return to the clinic in 3 days to discuss the results of this test."
B) "I will send you the results in the mail."
C) "If the test is positive, we will immediately set up an appointment for you to receive medications to treat the HIV."
D) "A Western blot test may also be necessary."
E) "If the test is negative, it will be repeated."
Q2) A patient is experiencing symptoms of exposure to environmental ragweed. The nurse should instruct the patient on the use of which class of medications?
A) Antihistamines
B) Antibiotics
C) Antiviral medications
D) Antifungal medications
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Q1) A patient has developed severe cardiogenic shock and is on a mechanical ventilator. The family asks why the patient's hands feel so cold. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "We keep the intensive care unit cool to reduce patients' metabolic rates."
B) "The patient has developed a fever and chills."
C) "This happens frequently to patients in shock states."
D) "Blood vessels constrict in shock, which takes the blood away from hands and feet."
Q2) The nurse anticipates assisting with which therapy to achieve improved outcomes for a patient who is in septic shock?
A) Vasopressin instead of dopamine for hypotension
B) Early use of neuromuscular blocking agents
C) Limiting fluids to 3 liters per day
D) Mechanical ventilation with a tidal volume of 4 to 6 ml/kg
Q3) A patient was admitted directly from a physician's office with suspected sepsis. The nurse contacts the pharmacy with the medication orders immediately because the antibiotic must be administered within _______ minutes of admission.
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Q1) A patient's laboratory values indicate a "shift to the left." The nurse would expect changes in which cell count?
A) Platelets
B) White blood cell count
C) Erythrocytes
D) Absolute neutrophil count (ANC)
Q2) A patient is suspected of having pernicious anemia. Which area of the body would the nurse pay particular attention to during assessment?
A) Nose
B) Tongue
C) Hands
D) Feet
Q3) The nurse would immediately collaborate with the health care provider if a patient experiences a "shift to the left" in laboratory values. What is the rationale for this collaboration?
A) This shift is an indicator of electrolyte imbalance.
B) This shift is an indicator of disruption of hemostasis.
C) This shift is an indicator of a potential bleeding problem.
D) This shift is an indicator of risk for a severe infection.
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Q1) A patient is prescribed desmopressin as treatment for von Willebrand's disease. Which nursing interventions are indicated for this patient?
A) Reduce sources of calcium in the diet.
B) Decrease fluid intake.
C) Monitor for development of gout.
D) Monitor for infection.
Q2) A patient is admitted with immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP). How would the nurse explain the etiology of this disorder?
A) "You are producing antibodies against your own platelets."
B) "This is a disorder caused by an overproduction of neutrophils."
C) "You are having a reaction to heparin therapy."
D) "This disorder is caused by an overproduction of reticulocytes."
Q3) The nurse preparing to provide care to a patient with thrombocytopenia would review the administration instructions for which category of medications?
A) Vitamin supplements
B) Erythropoietic agents
C) Immune-suppressive medications
D) Parenteral iron supplementation
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Q1) A patient who was treated for colorectal cancer last year now has a malignant tumor in the lung. The nurse realizes that this patient is most likely experiencing which phenomenon?
A) Metastasis
B) Contact inhibition
C) Differentiation
D) Hypertrophy
Q2) Which assessment findings would indicate to the nurse that a patient receiving vincristine is experiencing a toxic reaction?. Select all that apply.
A) The patient reports being too weak to get out of bed much of last week.
B) The patient has lost her hair.
C) The patient reports constipation.
D) The patient reports that she cannot feel her feet.
E) The patient has a high fever and shaking chills this morning.
Q3) The TNM classification system is being used to stage a patient's cancer. The nurse would plan to care for a patient with an advanced lesion spreading into adjacent organs if the primary tumor size (T) classification is T_____.
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Q1) A patient with a history of chronic allergic dermatitis is concerned because of an area where the skin has become thickened and rough. How would the nurse document this lesion?
A) Excoriation
B) Ulceration
C) Lichenification
D) Ecchymosis
Q2) During a conversation with the nurse, a patient says, "I avoid going outside when the sun is shining because I don't want to get skin cancer." The nurse should inform the patient that sun avoidance may predispose the patient to which condition?
A) Vitamin D deficiency
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypercholesterolemia
Q3) How should the nurse conduct the physical examination of a patient's skin?
A) Inspect the skin while the patient is standing up.
B) Be aware of ethnic differences.
C) Examine the least-exposed areas first.
D) Examine only the areas of specific concern.
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Q1) The nurse is planning care for a patient recently diagnosed with herpes zoster. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse give highest priority?
A) Acute Pain
B) Ineffective Health Maintenance
C) Anxiety
D) Deficient Knowledge
Q2) A patient has paronychia involving several fingers on one hand. The patient reports having the condition for several months. Which treatment would the nurse recommend in addition to prescribed antibiotics?
A) Application of vitamin E oil
B) Hot compresses
C) Increasing dietary protein intake
D) Soaking the hands in cool water two or three times daily
Q3) A patient has an infection in a piercing of the upper ear cartilage. Which information should the nurse provide?
A) "Cleanse the area with hydrogen peroxide three times a day."
B) "Keep the area covered with ointment."
C) "This infection will clear after a course of oral antibiotics."
D) "Cartilage infections can cause changes to the shape of your ear."
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Q1) Wound breakdown after healing continues to be an issue with burn victims. Research into which topic would offer the most comprehensive interventions to help diminish this problem?
A) Techniques to reduce wound infection
B) Techniques to increase tensile strength
C) Methods to increase family participation in wound care
D) Methods to increase patient compliance with exercise routines
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with a deep wound that has tunneling. Following the dressing change, what factors are essential for the nurse to document?. Select all that apply.
A) Amount of irrigation poured into the tunnel
B) Type of drainage coming from the wound
C) Size and shape of the tunnel
D) Direction and number of tunnels
E) Length of dressing needed to pack wound
Q3) A patient with diabetes presents with an ulcer on the end of the great toe. Assessment reveals gangrene extending to the base of the toe. The nurse would evaluate this ulcer as matching criteria for grade ____ on the Wagner Ulcer Grade Classification System.
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Q1) A patient who sustained a burn injury over 65% of the body is in the acute phase of care. The patient's preburn weight was 165 pounds. The nurse would work with the patient to achieve intake of ________ calories each day.
Q2) A patient who weighs 132 pounds sustained a burn injury and is receiving fluid resuscitation. The nurse would evaluate adequate hydration if the patient is producing at least ________ mL of urine each hour.
Q3) During the acute period of burn care, a focus of care is to promote healing of full-thickness burn wounds. Which nursing interventions are necessary before this healing can begin?
A) Administration of diuretics to reduce edema in the wound bed
B) Pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic methods to achieve pain-free status
C) Debridement and cleansing to rid the wound bed of eschar
D) Nutritional support to return the patient to preburn weight
Q4) An adult patient who weighs 220 pounds has been burned over 70% of the body. Using the Parkland/Baxter formula, the nurse would anticipate administering ______ mL of fluid in the second 8 hours after the patient was burned.
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Q1) The nurse is planning a community education session on ways to prevent deafness. The nurse should discuss which modifiable factors that increase the risk for permanent hearing loss?. Select all that apply.
A) Occupational exposure to loud noises
B) Prolonged exposure to loud music
C) Taking aspirin for pain relief
D) Cleaning the ears with a cotton-tipped applicator
E) Family history of hearing loss
Q2) The nurse is assisting with caloric testing on a patient who is persistently unconscious. Which response would the nurse expect if severe brainstem injury exists?
A) No response
B) Right beating nystagmus to cold water introduced in the right ear
C) Left beating nystagmus to introduction of warm water in the left ear
D) Nystagmus in both eyes with introduction of warm or cold water in either ear
Q3) The nurse is conducting the whisper test. Which nursing action is indicated?
A) Whisper directly into the patient's ears, one at a time.
B) Stand across the room from the patient.
C) Whisper words from 1 to 2 feet behind the patient.
D) Ask the patient to whisper a series of words.
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Q1) Which nursing interventions are most appropriate for a patient with a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Verbal Communication related to hearing deficit?. Select all that apply.
A) Speak face-to-face, but do not over-articulate words.
B) Respond to the call light promptly.
C) Use touch to gain the patient's attention.
D) Speak clearly.
E) Speak in a higher pitch.
Q2) During an otoscopic examination, the nurse notes a number of lumps in the patient's ear canal. Which assessment questions should the nurse ask?. Select all that apply.
A) "Have you noticed that you are not hearing as well?'
B) "Have you ever spent time in saltwater?"
C) "Do you frequently wear earbuds or earphones?"
D) "Have you ever been a surfer?"
E) "Do you clean your ear with a cotton-tipped applicator?"
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Q1) A patient comes into the clinic complaining of sudden onset of "black spots and a curtain dropping" in the right eye. The nurse would conduct additional assessment for which condition?
A) Detached retina
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Endophthalmitis
D) Cataract
Q2) Which patient statement would the nurse evaluate as indicating that further instruction is needed regarding precautions following photodynamic therapy?
A) "I may need to use my special halogen lamp to do hand sewing."
B) "I plan to go to the movies with my family this weekend."
C) "My spouse and I are going to watch the football play-offs on television this weekend."
D) "I will not go outside until after sundown."
Q3) The nurse is admitting a patient for laser photocoagulation treatment of diabetic retinopathy. The nurse would immediately contact the health care provider if the patient's diastolic blood pressure is above _______ mmHg.
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Q1) The nurse is working with a committee to revise the hospital's disaster preparedness plan. Which information will the basic plan include?. Select all that apply.
A) A map of the area served by the hospital
B) The number and location of nursing homes in the area
C) The number of private homes in the immediate area of the hospital
D) The presence of an industrial area south of the hospital
E) The geographical area generally served by the hospital
Q2) A smallpox outbreak has been identified, and supplies have been requested from vendor-managed inventory. The nurse manager receiving these supplies would anticipate providing which material from the hospital's internal inventory?. Select all that apply.
A) Examination gloves
B) Diluent for the vaccine
C) Transfer needles
D) Sharps containers
E) Adhesive bandages
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Q1) Which characteristics of the emergency department (ED) would the nurse cite as causing long waits and overcrowded conditions? Select all that apply.
A) "We are open 24 hours a day and 7 days a week."
B) "So many of our patients don't have any insurance."
C) "We cannot turn people away even if they don't have an emergent condition."
D) "Patients don't want to wait at the doctor's office and they think they can be seen here faster."
E) "We have such a large population of older people in our community."
Q2) The nurse manager makes a quick visit with patients in the emergency department (ED) waiting area. The manager is concerned about one patient who was originally assigned nonurgent status, even though there is no specific change from the triage assessment. What action should the manager take?
A) Check on the patient in another 15 minutes.
B) Tell the admittance clerk to keep an eye on the patient.
C) Change the triage tag to urgent and admit the patient to the ED.
D) Blame the concern on the number of patients still waiting to be seen.
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Q1) A child ran into the street and was struck by a car. Which finding, typical for this mechanism of injury, would the nurse anticipate assessing?
A) Lower extremity fracture caused by the wheels running over the child
B) Kidney injury due to the impact of the vehicle on the lower back
C) Chest or femur injuries where the bumper may have impacted the child
D) Liver injuries on the right side due to impact by the vehicle
Q2) A patient presents to the emergency department with brisk hemorrhage from a laceration on the lower leg. How should the nurse address the hemorrhage?
A) Tape ABD pads over the wound and reinforce them when they become saturated.
B) Apply direct manual pressure on the wound.
C) Pack ice directly on the wound to cause vasoconstriction.
D) Apply a tourniquet tight enough to stop all the external bleeding.
Q3) A 28-year-old woman is admitted to the ED with trauma sustained when a building collapsed. The nurse would why which test was not ordered?
A) International normalized ratio (INR)
B) Blood alcohol
C) Pregnancy
D) Toxicology screen
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