Advanced Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Advanced Medical-Surgical Nursing delves into the complex care of adult patients with acute and chronic health conditions across diverse clinical settings. The course emphasizes evidence-based practices, advanced clinical reasoning, and critical decision-making for patients experiencing multi-system disorders, complex co-morbidities, and life-threatening illnesses. Students will refine their assessment skills, develop comprehensive care plans, and master advanced interventions, including pharmacological and technological therapies. Interdisciplinary collaboration, culturally competent care, and leadership in patient advocacy are core components, preparing nurses to excel in high-acuity environments and drive improved patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing Concepts and Practice 3rd Edition by deWit
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48 Chapters
1519 Verified Questions
1519 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/949 Page 2
Chapter 1: Caring for Medical-Surgical Patients
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18659
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is educating a patient that is a member of a health maintenance organization (HMO).Which information should the nurse include?
A) Seek the opinion of an alternate health care provider.
B) Obtain insurance approval for medical services prior to treatment.
C) Provide detailed documentation of all care received for his condition.
D) Wait at least 6 months to see a specialist.
Answer: B
Q2) Which statement accurately describes the primary purpose of the state nurse practice act (NPA)?
A) To test and license LPN/LVNs.
B) To define the scope of LPN/LVN practice.
C) To improve the quality of care provided by the LPN/LVN.
D) To limit the LPN/LVN employment placement.
Answer: B
Q3) A patient asks the nurse what Medicare Part A covers.Which response is correct?
A) Medicare Part A covers inpatient hospital costs.
B) Medicare Part A covers reimbursement to the physician.
C) Medicare Part A covers outpatient hospital services.
D) Medicare Part A covers ambulance transportation.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Critical Thinking and the Nursing Process
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After evaluating the nursing care plan,the nurse finds lack of progress toward the goal.What action should the nurse take next?
A) Create a more accessible goal.
B) Revise the nursing interventions.
C) Change the problem statement/nursing diagnosis.
D) Use a new evaluation plan.
Answer: B
Q2) Step 5
A)Evaluation
B)Assessment
C)Implementation
D)Planning
E)Problem statement/nursing diagnosis
Answer: A
Q3) Shortness of breath due to emphysema would be a major component of the _________ care plan.
Answer: interdisciplinary
An interdisciplinary care plan involves all members of the health care team and is based on the medical diagnosis rather than a problem statement/nursing diagnosis.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Fluid, Electrolytes, Acid-Base Balance, and
Intravenous Therapy
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18661
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient with renal failure and notes fatigue,muscle cramps,confusion,and headache.Which laboratory abnormality corresponds with these findings?
A) Potassium of 3.3 mEq/L
B) Sodium of 129 mEq/L
C) Calcium of 8.2 mg/dL
D) Chloride of 105 mEq/L
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with metabolic acidosis.Which assessment finding reveals that the compensatory mechanism to correct this imbalance is in effect?
A) Increased urinary output
B) Reduced abdominal distention
C) Kussmaul respirations
D) Decreased blood pressure
Answer: C
Q3) The nurse explains to the 85-year-old patient with a temperature that,with each degree of fever,the body loses _____% of water.
Answer: 10
With each degree of fever,the body has an insensible loss of 10% of its water.
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Care of Preoperative and Intraoperative Surgical Patients
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action should the nurse take prior to administering the preoperative doses of Demerol and atropine?
A) Ensure that a family member is present.
B) Remove the patient's underwear.
C) Verify that a consent form is signed.
D) Raise each of the bed rails.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been given medication to reverse neuromuscular blocking agents.The nurse is aware that the patient is in which general anesthetic stage?
A) Induction
B) Introduction
C) Emergence
D) Maintenance
Q3) The nurse warns the patient that,in order to retard the growth of microorganisms,the operating room temperature must be maintained in which range?
A) 60 to 65° F
B) 66 to 70° F
C) 71 to 74° F
D) 75 to 77° F
6
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Chapter 5: Care of Postoperative Patients
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The postoperative patient complains of pain only 1 hour after having been medicated with an opioid,which cannot be repeated for three more hours.What action should the nurse take?
A) Give one-half of the prescribed dose now.
B) Contact the prescriber.
C) Ambulate the patient in the hall.
D) Reposition the patient.
Q2) The nurse in the PACU performs postsurgical assessments on the newly admitted patient every _________ minutes.
Q3) The nurse has been assigned to care for several postoperative patients.Which patient is most likely to develop thrombophlebitis?
A) A patient status post outpatient cholecystectomy with a history of blood clots.
B) A patient who is 6 days postoperative for total right hip replacement with a history of left-sided stroke.
C) A patient who underwent major abdominal surgery and was dehydrated upon admission.
D) A patient who is 2 days postoperative for hernia repair with a history of diabetes.
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Chapter 6: Infection Prevention and Control
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While assessing an obese resident in a long-term care facility,the nurse finds a red,moist rash under the patient's breasts,in the axilla,and in the inguinal fold.Based on this assessment,the nurse reports to the charge nurse that the resident probably has which type of infection?
A) A fungal infection
B) A bacterial infection
C) An allergic reaction
D) Contact dermatitis
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with C.difficile infection.Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
A) Only use alcohol-based hand cleanser for hand hygiene.
B) Always wear an impervious mask.
C) Don proper eye protection before providing care.
D) Notify housekeeping to use appropriate cleaning agents.
Q3) How should the home health nurse advise the patient to treat a fever of 100° F?
A) Take aspirin as needed.
B) Take Tylenol every 4 to 6 hours.
C) Bathe in cool water before bed.
D) Do nothing at all.
Q4) The bacteria that are rod-shaped are classified as _________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Care of Patients with Pain
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient that is receiving intravenous morphine sulfate.The patient breaks out in hives and begins to itch.What should the nurse do first?
A) Obtain the patient's vital signs.
B) Stop the infusion.
C) Report the patient's condition to the charge nurse.
D) Give the prescribed antihistamine.
Q2) The nurse is caring for the patient with neuropathic pain.Which agents will most effectively control this patient's pain?
A) Analgesics
B) Opioids
C) Antidepressants
D) Anti-inflammatory agents
E) Anticonvulsants
Q3) Step 3
A)Transmission
B)Modulation
C)Transduction
D)Perception
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9
Chapter 8: Care of Patients with Cancer
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18666
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is constructing a teaching plan about fatigue management for a patient who is taking radiation treatments.Which information should the nurse include?
A) Prioritize activities and alternate rest with periods of activity.
B) Plan to spend at least 4 to 5 hours of the day in bed.
C) Discontinue pain medications that may cause drowsiness.
D) Avoiding snacking in between meals.
Q2) Which description(s)is/are characteristic of a malignant neoplasm?
A) Very small nuclei
B) Disorganization
C) Altered DNA
D) Invasion of nearby organs
E) Travel through body fluid
Q3) The nurse recognizes that smoking is a "promoter" that,although not a carcinogen itself,allows cancer to occur faster in the patients.Which factor is also a promoter of cancer?
A) Obesity
B) Occupational hazards
C) Cocaine abuse
D) Heavy alcohol intake
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Chronic Illness and Rehabilitation
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What action should the LPN/LVN take when delegating care to a nursing assistant?
A) Give specific instruction as to what is to be done.
B) Instruct how the task is to be done.
C) List information that needs to be reported.
D) Be aware that the nurse is responsible for outcome of delegated care.
E) Insist that the nursing assistant accept the responsibility.
Q2) The nurse is instructing a family about chair selection for an older adult with Parkinson disease.Which information is most important for the nurse to include?
A) Choose a chair that is very wide to allow for position changes.
B) Choose a chair with sturdy arms to aid in rising.
C) Choose a chair that is low to the ground to prevent falls.
D) Choose a chair that is soft and deep for added comfort.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a 76-year-old patient in a long-term care facility who sent his food tray back to the kitchen untouched for the second time today.Which intervention is most effective to increase nutrition?
A) Offer to feed the patient.
B) Ask the dietitian to talk with the patient about food preferences.
C) Offer the patient a high-protein drink.
D) Sit with the patient during meals.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: The Immune and Lymphatic System
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which mechanisms are ways in which antibodies can protect the body by either destroying or inactivating a particular antigen?
A) Mechanically harming the antigen
B) Activating the complement system
C) Releasing chemicals that alter the environment of the antigen
D) Directly attacking the nucleus of the antigen
E) Forming organic "chains" that sweep out the antigen
Q2) The nurse differentiates the humoral response from the cell-mediated response.Which statement about cell-mediated response is true?
A) The sensitized lymphocytes attack the cell for which they were sensitized.
B) Cells produce new antibodies.
C) The response does not occur until the white blood cell (WBC) count rises.
D) There is a systemic response of fever and malaise.
Q3) Which analogy best describes the action of killer T cells?
A) A tiger slowly stalking an antigen to devour it.
B) A mad hornet flying through circulating fluids seeking and killing antigens.
C) A spider waiting in a web for an antigen to get caught in it.
D) A bird dog pointing to an antigen so it can be attacked by phagocytes.
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Chapter 11: Care of Patients with Immune and Lymphatic Disorders (with
HIV and AIDS)
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18669
Sample Questions
Q1) When collecting data from a patient suspected of having an immune deficiency,which factor(s)should be included?
A) Family history of immune disorders
B) Age
C) Weight gain
D) Alcohol use
E) Exposure to HIV
Q2) Step 2
A)HIV attaches to CD4 receptor sites on T-helper cells.
B)Opportunistic infection occurs.
C)Infected cell replicates itself millions of times.
D)T-helper cells fail to activate phagocytes.
E)Immune system is unable to respond effectively
Q3) MOPP and ABVD therapy for the treatment of Hodgkin disease are treatment protocols that use which combination of factors?
A) Multiple medications given concurrently
B) Heat, exercise, and chemotherapy
C) Alternating radiation and chemotherapy
D) Chemotherapy and alternative herbal remedies
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Q4) The nurse stresses that the primary emphasis on controlling HIV is __________.
Chapter 12: The Respiratory System
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Step 1
A)Larynx
B)Left and right bronchi
C)Trachea
D)Oxygen is inhaled through the nose
E)Bronchioles
F)Alveoli
Q2) Which physical signs indicate labored breathing?
A) Grunting on expiration
B) Elevating shoulders and ribs on inspiration
C) Tensing neck and shoulder muscles
D) Substernal retraction
E) Productive cough
Q3) Most of the inspired oxygen is carried to the tissues via which component of the body?
A) Plasma
B) Lymphatic system
C) Red blood cells
D) White blood cells
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Upper
Respiratory
System
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent a laryngectomy.Which need should the nurse address first?
A) Pain control
B) Family support
C) Communication method
D) Plan for long-term care
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with suspected sinusitis.Which assessment finding supports this diagnosis?
A) Maxillary sinuses nontender on percussion.
B) Generalized pain in the upper teeth.
C) Clear drainage from the ear.
D) Ear pain when lying down
Q3) Step 5
A)Wrap hand around fist.
B)Squeeze and thrust five times.
C)Make a fist.
D)Check status of breathing.
E)Position fist, thumb foremost, over umbilicus.
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Chapter 14: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Lower
Respiratory
System
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18672
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is educating an asthma patient about proper use of the peak flowmeter.The nurse determines that the patient needs further teaching when observing which action?
A) The patient repeats the procedure and obtains three readings.
B) The patient breathes deeply through the mouthpiece.
C) The patient stands while performing the test.
D) The patient reports the highest reading on the peak flow sheet.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with suspected bacterial pneumonia.Which finding supports the potential diagnosis?
A) Elevated white blood cell (WBC) count
B) Consolidation of lung tissue
C) Interstitial inflammation
D) Copious exudate
Q3) The patient with sleep apnea is fitted with a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)mask and asks the nurse how this device will help.How should the nurse respond?
A) "The device delivers constant positive pressure to keep your airway open."
B) "The device will require you to be intubated to open your airway."
C) "The device delivers oxygen only when you are apneic."
D) "The device delivers negative pressure to stimulate your respirations."
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Hematologic System
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with pernicious anemia immediately following a bone marrow biopsy of the left posterior iliac crest.Which action should the nurse perform first?
A) Inform the patient that he may feel pressure and sharp, brief pain.
B) Check the pulses in the leg and foot distal to the puncture.
C) Administer an ordered analgesic.
D) Apply pressure to the site for 5 minutes with an ice pack.
Q2) Step 3
A)Becomes a phagocyte
B)Becomes a macrophage
C)Engulfs bacteria
D)Migrates into tissues
E)Becomes a monocyte
F)Becomes a leukocyte
Q3) Which age-related changes occur in the hematologic system?
A) Decreased blood volume
B) Decreased bone marrow production
C) Decreased rate of blood cell production
D) Increased immune response
E) Increased clotting time
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Chapter 16: Care of Patients with Hematologic Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a 20-year-old female patient with sickle cell trait.Which statement accurately reflects this patient's condition?
A) The condition will evolve into sickle cell anemia as she ages.
B) All of her children will have sickle cell anemia.
C) The trait will be transmitted to male children only.
D) The trait can be passed on to all children.
Q2) When assessing a complete blood count (CBC)of a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL),the nurse would anticipate large numbers of immature white cells,called
Q3) The nurse is assessing a patient with polycythemia vera.Which finding is consistent with this disorder?
A) Pallor
B) Blood pressure (BP) of 100/60
C) Hemoglobin of 17 mg/dL
D) Agitation
Q4) The nurse explains to a person who has undergone bone marrow transplantation (BMT)that engraftment takes up to ____________________ weeks.
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18
Chapter 17: The Cardiovascular System
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27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient about the purpose of his telemetry.Which statement indicates that the nurse's teaching has been successful?
A) "I will need to stay in bed when the monitor is reading my heart waves."
B) "This test will help determine if I have a blockage in my arteries."
C) "If there is a problem with my heart valves, it will show up with telemetry."
D) "The nurses will be able to monitor my heart rate and rhythm."
Q2) Which layer of the heart contains muscle fibers that contract to pump blood?
A) Myocardium
B) Endocardium
C) Epicardium
D) Pericardium
Q3) Which statement accurately describes the purpose of a Doppler flow study?
A) To detect a clot in a coronary artery
B) To visualize obstructions in leg vessels
C) To assess efficiency of blood flow through heart chambers
D) To detect a defective heart valve
Q4) When the nurse uses the PQRST tool for pain assessment,the "R" prompts an inquiry about the __________ of the pain.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Care of Patients with Hypertension and Peripheral Vascular Disease
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral arterial disease who complains of 3/10 pain in the lower extremities.The nurse observes a 0.5 cm ×1 cm ulcer on the left lower leg,and the lower legs are shiny and hairless bilaterally.The nurse identifies which priority problem statement/nursing diagnosis?
A) Injury related to loss of peripheral circulation.
B) Acute pain related to ischemia to lower extremities.
C) Altered skin integrity related to ulcers on lower extremities.
D) Insufficient knowledge related to new diagnosis of hypertension.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with a history of peripheral arterial disease.The patient complains of significant claudication,and findings of an ankle-brachial index are abnormal.The nurse anticipates that this patient will most likely require which type of procedure?
A) Left heart catheterization
B) Stress echocardiogram
C) Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
D) Nuclear medicine stress test
Q3) The patient who has a history of smoking and alcohol abuse is most likely to develop __________ hypertension.
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Chapter 19: Care of Patients with Cardiac Disorders
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking digitalis.The patient complains of increased thirst,and the nurse observes dry mucous membranes.Which additional finding warrants the nurse's immediate attention?
A) Sudden, sharp knee pain
B) Blurred vision
C) Epistaxis
D) Chills
Q2) Which disorganized ECG pattern is recognized as the most fatal of all arrhythmias?
A) Ventricular fibrillation
B) Premature ventricular beats
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Ventricular tachycardia (VT)
Q3) The nurse caring for a patient who requires a temporary transvenous pacemaker.Which statement indicates that the patient understands the nurse's teaching?
A) "I may experience uncomfortable muscle contractions."
B) "The procedure will use general anesthesia."
C) "I will be given a sedative after the procedure."
D) "This device may be left in place for 6 weeks."
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Care of Patients with Coronary Artery Disease and Cardiac Surgery
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a male patient with angina who has a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin.What information is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?
A) Nitroglycerin tablets expire 3 months after the bottle is opened.
B) Take a second tablet 15 minutes after the first dose and call the physician if pain persists.
C) Store nitroglycerin tablets in a cool, dark location.
D) Nitroglycerin may cause an unsafe drop in heart rate when combined with certain medications for erectile dysfunction.
Q2) The drug alteplase (t-PA)is given to the patient with a myocardial infarction (MI).Which statement accurately describes the purpose of this medication?
A) "Alteplase (t-PA) dissolves the obstruction in the coronary artery."
B) "Alteplase (t-PA) dilates vessels to relieve pain."
C) "Alteplase (t-PA) strengthens cardiac contraction."
D) "Alteplase (t-PA) increases cardiac output."
Q3) The nurse uses a diagram to show how obstruction of an artery has caused an area of necrosis called a(n)_________.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: The Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse differentiates the sympathetic from the parasympathetic nervous systems.Which statement about the sympathetic system is accurate?
A) The sympathetic system provides energy for "fight or flight" in stressful situations.
B) The sympathetic system slows the heart rate after a stressful situation.
C) The sympathetic system supports deep sleep after large expenditures of energy.
D) The sympathetic system relaxes blood vessels to counteract hypertension.
Q2) The nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a patient.Which action should the nurse take to adequately test the effectiveness for the hypoglossal nerve?
A) Ask the patient to touch the tip of the tongue to each cheek.
B) Check air movement through each nostril separately.
C) Ask the patient to wrinkle the forehead.
D) Ask the patient to shrug the shoulders.
Q3) There are _______ cranial nerves that control the sensory and motor activities of the body.
Q4) The component of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)that carries the impulse to the central nervous system (CNS)is the ____________ impulse.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Head and Spinal Cord Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with a complete transection of the cord at C7.The patient asks the nurse what functions he will be able to perform.The nurse responds that the patient will most likely be able to perform which activities?
A) Transferring himself
B) Dressing himself
C) Using a wheelchair with standard hand rims
D) Feeding himself
E) Typing using all digits
Q2) Following a craniotomy to relieve increased intracranial pressure (ICP),which implementation should the nurse implement?
A) Elevate the head of the bed 20 to 30 degrees.
B) Place drip pad or cotton to absorb cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) drainage from the nose or ears.
C) Stimulate the patient to better assess changing level of consciousness (LOC).
D) Reposition the patient frequently for comfort.
Q3) If conservative measures are unsuccessful in treating a herniated disk,a(n)__________ may be necessary to remove the posterior arch of the vertebrae,along with the disk.
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Chapter 23: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Brain
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27 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with a primary brain tumor asks the nurse if this is a common disease.Which response is most appropriate for the nurse to make?
A) "Brain tumors are very rare."
B) "About 40,000 people a year are diagnosed with a primary brain tumor."
C) "It doesn't really matter. We are just concerned with helping you."
D) "Almost all primary brain tumors are malignant."
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with brain tumor-related hydrocephalus who is scheduled to undergo placement of a ventriculoperitoneal (V-P)shunt.Which information is most important for the nurse to include when explaining the purpose of the procedure?
A) A V-P shunt redirects the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ventricles to the peritoneum.
B) A V-P shunt stimulates ventricles to reabsorb excess CSF.
C) A V-P shunt channels excess CSF to the left atrium.
D) A V-P shunt provides a port from which excess CSF can be aspirated.
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25
Chapter 24: Care of Patients with Peripheral Nerve and Degenerative Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The home health nurse is caring for a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)who complains of severe fatigue.What activity should the nurse suggest to diminish the effects of fatigue?
A) Relaxing in a warm bath
B) Performing deep-breathing exercises
C) Scheduling rest periods during the day
D) Including daily-dose multivitamins
Q2) The home care nurse is visiting a patient in the late stages of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).Which example indicates that the patient accepts the grief associated with the condition and prognosis?
A) The patient cries about his incapacity.
B) The patient makes jokes about this approaching death.
C) The patient talks with his family about his desires for his funeral.
D) The patient begins to sleep for longer periods of time during the day.
Q3) The triad of Parkinson disease is __________,__________,and __________.
Q4) Two viruses that are especially associated with the etiology of Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)are ___________ and ___________.
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Chapter 25: The Sensory System: Eye and Ear
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a group of schoolchildren about the relationship between diet and vision.The nurse encourages the ingestion of foods rich in vitamin A.Which food choice should the nurse recommend?
A) Kale
B) Cauliflower
C) Strawberries
D) Apples
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient about visual problems that require professional attention.Which symptom(s)indicate an underlying visual problem?
A) Eyes that tire easily
B) Burning
C) Itching
D) Reddening with use
E) Exophthalmos
Q3) Which component in the eye refracts light rays to be directed to the lens?
A) Pupil
B) Cornea
C) Retina
D) Ciliary body
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Chapter 26: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Eyes and Ears
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient who is scheduled to undergo surgery to manage glaucoma.Which statement indicates that the patient understands the nurse's teaching about the procedure?
A) "The surgery will increase outflow of aqueous humor."
B) "The surgery will reduce amount of vitreous humor."
C) "The surgery will widen my pupils."
D) "The surgery will reduce pain."
Q2) The nurse notices that the patient must hold the newspaper at arm's length and squint to read.The nurse understands that this finding is consistent with which eye problem?
A) Myopia
B) Hyperopia
C) Presbyopia
D) Astigmatism
Q3) Accommodation is accomplished through the interaction of the ciliary bodies and the _____.
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28
Chapter 27: The Gastrointestinal System
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for multiple patients.The nurse determines that which patient has the highest risk for developing gallstones?
A) A 37-year-old white man of normal weight on long-term corticosteroids for asthma.
B) A 42-year-old African American man of normal weight who has smoked for 25 years.
C) A 46-year-old Indonesian woman who is under normal weight and has recently had radiation treatments.
D) A 50-year-old obese Mexican American woman who has type 1 diabetes.
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient's bowel sounds.After auscultating each quadrant for 30 seconds,the nurse fails to hear any sounds.How should the nurse document this finding?
A) Absent bowel sounds
B) Hypoactive bowel sounds
C) Active bowel sounds
D) Hyperactive bowel sounds
Q3) The nurse caring for the patient who has diarrhea from taking a protocol of oral amoxicillin will use __________ Precautions in the care.
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Chapter 28: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Upper
Gastrointestinal
System
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18686
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse demonstrates that the person whose recommended weight is 150 pounds based on height,age,and body type would be considered obese if the person weighed a minimum of ______ pounds.
Q2) The nurse is educating a patient who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)about dietary modification.Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?
A) Avoid highly seasoned or spiced foods.
B) Drink ginger ale or lemon lime soda rather than cola.
C) Use a straw to drink all fluids.
D) Eating three meals spaced evenly apart.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for extensive burns.The nurse notes the presence of coffee-ground material in the Salem sump catheter.The nurse correctly recognizes which factor as the likely cause?
A) Esophagitis
B) Perforated gastric ulcer
C) Gastric irritation from the Salem sump tube
D) A physiologic stress ulcer
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Lower
Gastrointestinal
System
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mechanical bowel obstruction caused when the bowel twists on itself is known as _________.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient whose home medications include bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol).The nurse should educate the patient about which side effect of this medication?
A) Pink urine
B) Sunburn-like rash
C) Stained teeth
D) Black stools
Q3) The nurse is caring for patient with a history of a chronic incarcerated hernia.The patient suddenly complains of abdominal pain and vomits dark material with a fecal odor.The nurse recognizes these signs as indications of which complication?
A) Complete intestinal obstruction
B) Rupture
C) Gastroenteritis
D) Duodenal ulcer
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Chapter 30: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Liver,
Gallbladder, and Pancreas
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient being treated for new onset of gallstones.The patient asks the nurse if he will have to have surgery.How should the nurse respond?
A) "You will have to have surgery if you continue to have gallstones."
B) "Tell me more about your concern."
C) "Treatment for gallstones may include diet modification and weight loss, medications, or surgery."
D) "You need to ask the doctor about your concerns."
Q2) Prevalent in less developed countries
A)HAV
B)HBV
C)HCV
D)HDV
E)HEV
Q3) Coexists with HBV
A)HAV
B)HBV
C)HCV
D)HDV
E)HEV
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Chapter 31: The Musculoskeletal System
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The canal system that runs through the bone and contains the blood and lymph vessels is called the ____________.
Q2) Which component(s)is/are functions of the musculoskeletal system?
A) Motion
B) Fighting of infections
C) Support
D) Protection of organs
E) Body shape
Q3) When the nurse plans for the progressive mobilization of a hemiplegic,the nurse will consider the patient's ability to perform which function(s)?
A) Move limbs
B) Change position in bed independently
C) Transfer self from bed to chair
D) Perform all activities of daily living (ADLs) independently
E) Walk
Q4) When a joint is obliterated by bony overgrowth,the joint is said to be _________.
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Chapter 32: Care of Patients with Musculoskeletal and Connective Tissue Disorders
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Step 1
A)Medullary canal is reconstructed.
B)Mature bone cells form ossification.
C)Callus is formed.
D)Granulation tissue is formed.
E)Hematoma is formed between broken ends of bone.
Q2) Step 2
A)Medullary canal is reconstructed.
B)Mature bone cells form ossification.
C)Callus is formed.
D)Granulation tissue is formed.
E)Hematoma is formed between broken ends of bone.
Q3) The nurse is instructing a patient with rheumatoid arthritis about a prescribed exercise program.Which information should the nurse include?
A) Perform exercises every day, 3 to 10 times for every joint.
B) Perform exercises even if inflammation is present.
C) Perform exercises past the point of pain.
D) Perform twice the number of exercises the next day if one day is missed.
Q4) The nurse explains that the "C" in the acronym RICE for sprain treatment stands for
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Chapter 33: The Urinary System
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18691
Sample Questions
Q1) Absence of urine
A)Anuria
B)Oliguria
C)Polyuria
D)Nocturia
E)Hematuria
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has been taking a sulfa drug for a urinary tract infection (UTI).Which intervention is most important for the nurse to add to the patient's care plan?
A) Ambulate the patient q shift.
B) Ask the patient about a penicillin allergy.
C) Weigh the patient daily.
D) Increase fluid intake to 1.5 L/day.
Q3) How can nephrotoxic drugs such as doxycycline and rifampin cause kidney damage?
A) Bacterial destruction of the nephrons
B) Chemical alterations of glomeruli
C) Necrosis of tubules from reduction of oxygenation
D) "Clumping" of cellular debris from killed bacteria
Q4) The basic functional unit of the kidney is the ________.
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Chapter 34: Care of Patients with Disorders of the Urinary System
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18692
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with glomerulonephritis has an order to undergo plasmapheresis.Which statement indicates that the patient accurately understands teaching about the procedure?
A) "This procedure removes my affected plasma and gives me a clean replacement."
B) "This procedure will use the IV in my hand."
C) "I will need to lie very still while the pictures are taken."
D) "I should drink this contrast with a straw to keep it from staining my teeth."
Q2) The nurse is aware that 80% of UTIs in females are the result of contamination from __________.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who received an instillation of doxorubicin (Adriamycin)into the bladder for treatment of cancer in situ.What should the nurse do next?
A) Reposition the patient every 15 to 30 minutes.
B) Unclamp the catheter.
C) Educate the patient about the possibility of false positive tuberculin skin testing.
D) Apply nonslip footwear for ambulation.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: The Endocrine System
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone acts on bone to release calcium into the blood?
A) Thyroxine (T4)
B) Thyrocalcitonin
C) Triiodothyronine (T3)
D) Parathormone
Q2) Which actual structural unit secretes insulin?
A) Pancreas
B) Islets of Langerhans
C) Beta cell
D) Alpha cell
Q3) Which gland secretes androgenic hormones?
A) Adrenal cortex
B) Hypothalamus
C) Pancreas
D) Pituitary
Q4) Which action describes a function of aldosterone?
A) Conserve water
B) Excrete sodium
C) Constrict blood vessels
D) Excrete phosphorus
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Chapter
Adrenal Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Step 3
A)Hypothalamus is activated.
B)Pituitary releases thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
C)Drop in norepinephrine level.
D)Thyroid releases thyroid hormone.
E)Satisfaction of norepinephrine level signals hypothalamus in negative feedback.
F)Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) is secreted.
Q2) Which manifestations occur with a benign pituitary adenoma?
A) Gigantism in children
B) Acromegaly in adults
C) Muscle weakness
D) Excessive hair growth
E) Joint pain
Q3) Weight gain,fatigue,and lethargy
A)Decreased growth hormone
B).Increased thyroid hormone
C)Decreased follicle-stimulating hormone
D)Decreased thyroid hormone
E)Increased antidiuretic hormone
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Chapter 37: Care of Patients with Diabetes and Hypoglycemia
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rarely develops ketosis
A)Type 1
B)Type 2
C)Gestational
D)Prediabetes
Q2) The nurse explains that the three cardinal signs of type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM)are __________,__________,and __________.
Q3) Which reason best explains why diabetics are prone to infection?
A) High glucose levels provide an environment conducive to bacterial growth.
B) Atherosclerotic vascular changes decrease blood supply to tissues.
C) Diabetics display abnormal phagocyte function.
D) Diabetics display decreased leukocyte function.
Q4) The nurse is reviewing the patient's prescribed insulin regimen.The nurse notes that the physician has ordered a long-lasting insulin.Which medication best meets this criteria?
A) Lantus
B) NovoLog
C) Humalog
D) Regular
39
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Chapter 38: Care of Women with Reproductive Disorders
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18696
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient taking long-term estrogen replacement for osteoporosis prevention.The nurse recommends that the patient undergo which type of examination annually?
A) Pelvic examination
B) Bone density study
C) Liver scan
D) Lower GI study
Q2) The nurse educates a patient about differences between primary infertility and secondary infertility.Which statement accurately describes primary infertility?
A) Inability to maintain a pregnancy past the first trimester.
B) Inability to conceive after 1 year of active unprotected sex.
C) Inability to deliver a viable infant after two pregnancies.
D) Inability to conceive after using a follicle stimulator for 1 year.
Q3) The nurse is educating a speaking to a group of junior high girls about reproductive health.Which information is most important to include?
A) Breasts may be tender in the middle of the cycle.
B) Girls ages 12 or older who have not had a period should see a doctor.
C) Irregular or missed periods are nothing to worry about.
D) A normal period may last up to 2 weeks.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Care of Men with Reproductive Disorders
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In counseling a man with erectile dysfunction about a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra),when should the nurse suggest a different treatment?
A) The patient is over 50 years of age.
B) The patient takes nitroglycerin for angina.
C) The patient is more than 50 pounds overweight.
D) The patient is a long-term diabetic.
Q2) Which changes in the male reproductive tract result from age?
A) Increasingly pendulous scrotum
B) Enlarged prostate
C) Decreased testosterone
D) Increased ejaculate volume
E) Shortened arousal time
Q3) Which factor(s)increase a patient's risk for developing benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
A) Increasing age
B) Smoking
C) Functioning testes
D) Infrequent ejaculation
E) Neurogenic bladder
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Chapter 40: Care of Patients with Sexually Transmitted
Infections
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18698
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is aware that men with gonorrhea are more likely to seek medical attention because their symptoms are more visible than those of women.Which clinical manifestation is most consistent with symptoms of gonorrhea in men?
A) Copious, purulent penile discharge
B) Hematuria when initiating the stream of urine
C) Penile ulcers with a foul odor
D) Scaly scrotal lesions
Q2) Which statement indicates that a patient needs additional education about the vaccine for human papillomavirus (HPV)?
A) "I know I must have three doses of the vaccine."
B) "Girls as young as 9 years of age may be vaccinated."
C) "I am relieved that the vaccine protects me from all HPV infections."
D) "I know I should continue having regular Pap smears."
Q3) After being stained with crystal violet,how will a gram-positive gonococcus react?
A) Fluoresce after counterstain is applied.
B) Accept the counterstain.
C) Retain the original stain after the counterstain is applied.
D) Turn dark after the counterstain is applied.
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Chapter 41: The Integumentary System
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18699
Sample Questions
Q1) The student nurse is preparing to document a suspicious area over a bony prominence.Which description would be most appropriate?
A) Reddened area on left hip
B) Reddened, nonblanching area approximately 1 cm × 1 cm
C) Suspicious area over left trochanter
D) Nonblanching area over left trochanter 0.8 cm ×1.2 cm
Q2) When planning care for an 80-year-old African American woman,which intervention is most important for the nurse to include?
A) Bathe the patient twice weekly.
B) Use liberal amounts of soap and water.
C) Use quick, brisk motions to dry the patient's skin.
D) Apply emollient to limbs and back.
Q3) The nurse is providing discharge teaching of a patient.Which instructions should the nurse include to teach reduction of soap in bed linens and sleeping garments?
A) Only use high-efficiency detergents.
B) Use vinegar in the rinse water.
C) Only wash clothing in hot water.
D) Send linens to a professional laundry.
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Chapter 42: Care of Patents with Integumentary Disorders and Burns
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18700
Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptom is consistent with an inhalation burn?
A) Full-thickness burns to chest
B) Hypotension
C) Agitation
D) Persistent coughing
Q2) The nurse is educating a patient with acne rosacea that has facial erythema and telangiectases.Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) Drink 4 ounces of wine daily to promote vasodilation.
B) Wash your face at least three times daily.
C) Avoid direct sunlight.
D) Apply tea bags to the affected areas.
Q3) Increased viscosity of blood slowing blood flow to small vessels
A)Edema
B)Hyperkalemia
C)Hypovolemia
D)Tissue hypoxia
E)Hypermetabolism
Q4) Using the Parkland formula,the fluid needed for a person weighing 140 pounds with a 25% burn would be _____ mL.
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Chapter 43: Care of Patients in Disasters or Bioterrorism
Attack
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18701
Sample Questions
Q1) When can patients with plague who have been treated with appropriate antibiotics be released from respiratory droplet precautions?
A) After resolution of all symptoms
B) After three sputum samples are negative for blood
C) After all lesions are dried
D) After the patient receives 48 hours of antibiotic treatment
Q2) Which category A organisms may be released in a bioterrorism attack because of high lethality?
A) Ebola
B) Avian flu
C) Botulism
D) Smallpox
E) Tularemia
Q3) Why is a chelating agent administered after a person has been exposed to particulate radioactive material?
A) To bind with radioactive material and allow it to be excreted
B) To reduce radioactivity to nonharmful levels
C) To form a protective coat in the gastrointestinal system
D) To dissolve particulate material
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Chapter 44: Care of Patients with Emergencies, Trauma, and Shock
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18702
Sample Questions
Q1) Step 4
A)Tell neighbor's wife to call 911.
B)Assess for heartbeat.
C)Initiate CPR if no respiration or circulation can be assessed.
D)Assess for signs of breathing.
E)Shake patient and call name to assess for level of consciousness (LOC).
Q2) Administration of epinephrine
A)Cardiogenic shock
B)Hypovolemic shock
C)Anaphylactic shock
D)Neurogenic shock
E)Insulin shock
Q3) Step 2
A)Tell neighbor's wife to call 911.
B)Assess for heartbeat.
C)Initiate CPR if no respiration or circulation can be assessed.
D)Assess for signs of breathing.
E)Shake patient and call name to assess for level of consciousness (LOC).
Q4) ________________ are the organisms most commonly associated with infections leading to sepsis and septic shock.
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Chapter 45: Care of Patients with Anxiety, Mood, and Eating Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18703
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking lithium for 5 days.The nurse notes his gait is a little unsteady with a walker,and he complains of thirst and insomnia.Which finding is most important for the nurse to report?
A) Manic behavior
B) Unsteady gait
C) Thirst
D) Insomnia
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with moderate anxiety.Which activity should the nurse encourage to best manage the patient's anxiety?
A) Taking a walk
B) Learning a new game
C) Watching an intense television show
D) Reading a pamphlet about the negative effects of anxiety
Q3) The nurse points out that a persistent irrational fear of a specific object or situation that causes anxiety that interferes with responsibilities is a(n)_________.
Q4) The nurse takes into consideration that it is estimated that _____% of the population will have some form of anxiety disorder.
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Chapter 46: Care of Patients with Substance Abuse Disorders
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18704
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse encourages the recovering alcoholic to participate in group therapy.Which benefit is most important for the nurse to mention?
A) Development of improved social skills
B) Progression toward sobriety
C) Provision of a sense of belonging
D) Increasing self-discipline
Q2) Symptomatology related to cessation of drug
A)Abuse
B)Psychological dependence
C)Addiction
D)Tolerance
E)Withdrawal
Q3) In what ways do support groups benefit substance abusers?
A) Support groups provide healthy relationships.
B) Support groups offer opportunities to practice new coping skills.
C) Support groups decrease stress and anxiety.
D) Support groups improve social skills.
E) Provide cathartic opportunities.
F)None of above
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Chapter 47: Care of Patients with Cognitive Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18705
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes that the newly admitted patient with Alzheimer disease (AD)has significant anomia.Which intervention is most appropriate for this problem?
A) Frequently reorient the patient to his room location.
B) Remind the patient about the names and uses for particular items.
C) Assist the patient with all meals.
D) Wait patiently for the patient to find the word he wants.
Q2) The home health nurse is counseling a family who will be caring for a relative with moderate-stage Alzheimer disease (AD).Which information is most important to include?
A) Construct a consistent routine to provide structured environment.
B) Try to make each day different to enhance attention span.
C) Use multiple caregivers to decrease unhealthy attachment and prevent caregiver burnout.
D) Place bright scatter rugs, flower arrangements, and wall decorations around the room to stimulate sensory perception.
Q3) Processes of perception,memory,and judgment
A)Cognition
B)Dementia
C)elirium
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Care of Patients with Thought and Personality Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The manipulative patient approaches the nurse and says,"I know it's too early to give me my pain medication,but you are the only one who seems to care.Could you give me my pain medication now?" Which response is best?
A) "The charge nurse is very stringent about scheduled medications. She would be very angry with me if I gave you the medication now."
B) "I know how it is when you are in pain. I'll give you your medication early."
C) "Your medication is due in 2 hours. I will be glad to give it to you on schedule."
D) "It makes me feel good to know you are appreciative of our care. Here is your medication."
Q2) When receiving report,the nurse learns that a schizophrenic patient has been displaying waxy flexibility.Which behavior is consistent with this report?
A) The patient sits and stares at the wall without speaking.
B) The patient arranges himself in several seated postures on the couch.
C) The patient marches stiffly up and down the center of the dayroom.
D) The patient holds his arm over his head with his fist clenched for an hour.
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