Advanced Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Advanced Medical-Surgical Nursing is a comprehensive course designed for nursing students seeking in-depth knowledge and skills in the care of adult patients with complex health disorders. The curriculum emphasizes critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and evidence-based interventions for managing acute and chronic conditions across multiple body systems. Students will explore advanced assessment techniques, pharmacological management, perioperative care, emergency response, and interdisciplinary collaboration. Through case studies, simulations, and clinical practice, the course prepares nurses to deliver safe, high-quality care in diverse medical-surgical settings and fosters professional growth in leadership, patient advocacy, and decision-making.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing in Canada 3rd Canadian Edition by Lewis
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72 Chapters
1742 Verified Questions
1742 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3946
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Medical-Surgical Nursing
Practice in Canada
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78758
Sample Questions
Q1) An emaciated older adult patient is admitted to the critical care unit.The nurse plans a schedule of turning the patient every two hours to prevent skin breakdown.This is considered to be what type of nursing action?
A) Dependent
B) Cooperative
C) Independent
D) Collaborative
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following refers to the use of communication and information technologies in order to support the delivery and integration of clinical care?
A) e-Health
B) Nursing informatics
C) Electronic health record
D) ICT (information and communication technology)
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Cultural Competence and Health Equity in Nursing Care
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A recent RN graduate is assessing a newly admitted non-English-speaking Chinese patient.Which action would alert the preceptor to intervene and assist the nurse with culturally appropriate care?
A) Sitting down at the bedside
B) Calling for a medical interpreter
C) Beginning the physical assessment with palpation
D) Avoiding eye contact with the patient
Answer: C
Q2) What is the most appropriate action when the patient constantly pauses before answering questions about his or her health history on an admission assessment?
A) Stop the assessment and return later.
B) Wait for the patient to answer the questions.
C) Ask why the questions require so much time to answer.
D) Give the patient the assessment form listing the questions and a pen.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Health History and Physical Examination
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the orthopedic unit with a fractured right elbow following a skiing accident.During the initial nursing assessment,what information is related to the functional health pattern regarding the patient's fractured elbow and the treatment he has received?
A) Activity-exercise
B) Cognitive-perceptual
C) Self-perception-self-concept
D) Health perception-health management
Answer: D
Q2) While the nurse is taking a health history,the patient indicates that his father and grandfather both had heart attacks and were unable to be very active afterward.Which functional health pattern is reflected in this statement?
A) Health perception-health management
B) Coping-stress tolerance
C) Cognitive-perceptual
D) Activity-exercise
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Patient and Caregiver Teaching
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse ask the patient,in order to assess readiness to learn before planning teaching activities?
A) What are the patient's living conditions and employment?
B) What type of environment or activities help the patient to learn best?
C) What information has been provided about the patient's health problem?
D) Does the patient have any beliefs that are inconsistent with the proposed treatment?
Q2) How can the nurse most effectively evaluate a teaching objective of "the patient will select a 2000-mg sodium diet from the hospital menu daily for three days with 90% accuracy"?
A) Ask the patient to identify what foods on the daily menu are high in sodium.
B) Have the patient describe the foods that were consumed for the past three days,and total their sodium content.
C) Note the food selected on three daily menus and determine whether the daily sodium content is within 1800 to 2200 mg.
D) Use a record of the patient's food intake for three days to determine whether the total sodium content is 6000 mg.
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6
Chapter 5: Chronic Illness
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of an environment contextual factor according to the World Health Organizations' ICF Bio-Psycho-Social Model?
A) Social background
B) Behaviour pattern
C) Social attitudes
D) Coping style
Q2) Which of the following has been identified by patients with chronic illness as something they want from the health care system?
A) Less information
B) Less travel and wait times
C) Ways to adjust to disease consequences
D) Limited information on ways to cope with symptoms
Q3) Chronic illness accounts for well over half (63%)of all deaths globally.Which chronic illness accounts for the highest proportion of those deaths in Canada?
A) Cancer
B) Diabetes
C) Cardiovascular disease
D) Chronic respiratory disease
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7
Chapter 6: Community-Based Nursing and Home Care
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 78-year-old woman hospitalized for surgical repair of a fractured hip has recovered from the surgery but continues to have a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to decreased muscle strength.In planning continued care for the patient,in which setting would the nurse consider that the patient's needs would best be met?
A) A public health unit
B) A community health centre
C) The patient's home
D) An occupational health facility
Q2) Which of the following is a key principle of primary health care?
A) Universal access to health care on an economic basis
B) Focus on acute illness and cure
C) Partnership with other professions and sectors for health
D) Individuals as passive recipients of health care
Q3) On average,what is the approximate national percentage of provincial/territorial budgets in Canada that are expended on health care costs?
A) 19%
B) 29%
C) 39%
D) 49%
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Chapter 7: Older Adults
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses an older adult patient's living arrangements and care needs with the knowledge that abuse of older adults often occurs in which of the following situations?
A) Stress in the caregiver is overwhelming.
B) Programs for the elderly are not being utilized.
C) Several generations are providing the care.
D) The older adult is not appreciative of those who provide care.
Q2) The frail older adult is at particularly high risk for which one of the following health interferences?
A) Hip fractures
B) Malnutrition
C) Overhydration
D) Obesity
Q3) Which of the following is an element of a stochastic theory of aging?
A) Programmed
B) Transcription
C) Neuroendocrine
D) Immunological-autoimmunological
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9
Chapter 8: Stress and Stress Management
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 40-year-old woman comes to the health clinic requesting sleeping medication and treatment for headaches.She tells the nurse that her husband has moved out to live with another woman.Her 16-year-old son,who has a drug problem,sold her jewellery and electronic equipment.What stress theory is the nurse using in concluding that the woman's life events are contributing to her insomnia and headaches?
A) Stress as a stimulus
B) Stress as a response
C) Stress as a perception
D) Stress as a transaction
Q2) A hospitalized patient is very anxious about missing work and is afraid he will be fired because of his illness.What effect of stress on the nervous system does the nurse recognize that the patient is experiencing?
A) Sleep disturbances
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Increased sensitivity to pain
D) Fluid and electrolyte imbalances
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Chapter 9: Sleep and Sleep Disorders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Healthy adults spend what percentage of sleep time in non-rapid eye movement (NREM)sleep?
A) 20% to 25%
B) 45% to 50%
C) 75% to 80%
D) 85% to 90%
Q2) Which instruction will the nurse include when teaching a patient with chronic insomnia about ways to improve sleep quality?
A) Avoid aerobic exercise during the day.
B) Read in bed for a few minutes each night.
C) Keep the bedroom temperature slightly warm.
D) Try to go to bed at the same time every evening.
Q3) Which of the following should the nurse teach a patient to assist him or her with a sleep disturbance?
A) If you are not asleep within one hour of going to bed,get out of the bed.
B) Exercise an hour before going to bed.
C) Have a glass of wine or a beer just before bedtime.
D) Avoid caffeine and alcohol for at least four hours before bedtime.
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Chapter 10: Pain
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Morphine 10 mg IV every four to six hours as needed is ordered for a patient with a pancreatic tumour who has a history of alcoholism.After three days of receiving the morphine every six hours,the patient tells the nurse that the medication is needed more frequently to control the pain.In responding to the patient's request,what does the nurse recognize?
A) A tolerance to the morphine is developing,and the patient should receive the drug more frequently.
B) Administering the morphine more frequently will increase the patient's physical dependence on the drug.
C) Physical dependence should be avoided at all costs,and the drug should continue to be administered every six hours.
D) The patient is becoming addicted to the morphine,and it should be administered less frequently than every six hours.
Q2) What is the mechanism of action of NSAIDs?
A) They block action potential initiation.
B) They block prostaglandin production.
C) They inhibit cyclo-oxygenase action.
D) They interfere with serotonin uptake.
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Chapter 11: Substance Use
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true in relation to Canada's low-risk drinking guidelines?
A) Drink no more than 15 drinks per week if you are a female.
B) Have no more than six drinks on any one occasion if you are a male.
C) Limit alcohol intake to two drinks in any three-hour period,regardless of gender.
D) Eat before but not while drinking alcohol.
Q2) A patient who is alcohol intoxicated must undergo emergency surgery for a ruptured spleen.What does the nurse recognize about the postoperative period for this patient?
A) The patient will require lower than normal doses of analgesics.
B) The patient is likely to develop withdrawal symptoms within 24 hours.
C) The patient is at increased risk for bleeding and respiratory complications.
D) The patient should be stimulated every hour to prevent the prolonged effects of the anaesthesia.
Q3) Which of the following is an objective measure that would indicate alcohol dependence?
A) The person drinks fewer than four drinks every day.
B) The person is usually considered socially stable.
C) The person has a mild tolerance to alcohol.
D) The person drinks more than 40 drinks in a week.
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Chapter 12: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a routine health examination,the patient tells the nurse that she uses a variety of herbal therapies to maintain her health.In discussing her use of herbs,what should the nurse caution the patient about?
A) Most herbs are toxic and carcinogenic and should be used only when proven effective.
B) Herbs are not any better than conventional drugs in maintaining health and may be more unsafe.
C) Herbs should be purchased only from manufacturers with a history of quality control of their products.
D) Because herbal therapies may mask the symptoms of serious disease,frequent medical evaluation is required during their use.
Q2) Which of the following is a commonly used herb for treating nausea and vomiting during pregnancy?
A) Aloe
B) Ginger
C) Kava
D) Milk thistle
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Chapter 13: Palliative Care at the End of Life
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For two months after a patient was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer,she did not admit that she was ill and in need of health care.What is the emotional response associated with this stage of grief?
A) Yearning and protest
B) Acceptance and accommodation
C) Denial,disbelief,and avoidance
D) Anger,despair,and confrontation
Q2) Which of the following is a lay term used to describe instructions about future medical care?
A) DNR orders
B) Living will
C) Advance directive
D) Power of attorney for personal care
Q3) Which of the following refers to care that is provided in the last days or weeks of the patient's life?
A) Hospice care
B) Palliative care
C) Respite care
D) End-of-life care
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following types of macrophages would be found in bone tissue?
A) Type A cells
B) Microglial cells
C) Osteoclasts
D) Histiocytes
Q2) A patient arrives at the emergency department with a swollen ankle after an injury occurred while playing soccer.What is the cause of this patient's swelling?
A) Hyperemia from vasodilation
B) Increased metabolism at the inflammatory site
C) Fluid shift to interstitial spaces
D) Change in local ionic concentration
Q3) In evaluating a patient's inflammatory response,by what does the nurse understand that the activation of the classical complement pathway to mediate an inflammatory response is stimulated?
A) Lysis of bacterial cells
B) An antigen-antibody complex
C) Monocyte diapedesis to injured tissue
D) Release of histamine from injured cells
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16
Chapter 15: Genetics
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman has asked the nurse when the best time is to undergo chorionic villus sampling.The nurse's best response is which of the following statements?
A) Any time before the tenth week of gestation
B) Between the eleventh and twelfth week of gestation
C) Between the twenty-fourth and twenty-sixth week of gestation
D) Any time during the second trimester of pregnancy
Q2) When counselling parents about hemophilia A,an X-linked recessive trait,which of the following would be the basis for the nurse's response related to offspring?
A) Daughters will not be affected with the trait or be carriers.
B) Sons will not be affected with the trait or be carriers.
C) Fifty percent of sons will be normal,and 50% will be affected with the trait.
D) Fifty percent of daughters will be normal,and 50% will be affected with the trait.
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Chapter 16: Altered Immune Response and Transplantation
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been undergoing immunotherapy for 1 year.How does the nurse recognize that the goals of immunotherapy are achieved?
A) When blood analysis reveals increased IgG levels
B) When blood analysis reveals decreased IgE levels
C) When blood analysis reveals increased natural killer cells
D) When blood analysis reveals decreased T helper (CD4)cells
Q2) A patient develops a severe angioedema involving her face,hands,and feet,with burning and stinging of the lesions.What significant risk factor for allergies should the nurse ask the patient about?
A) A family history of allergies
B) The use of over-the-counter medications
C) Recurrent respiratory infections
D) A history of a recent fungal infection
Q3) What is the role of serotonin that is released from platelets during an allergic response?
A) It increases vascular permeability.
B) It stimulates irritant receptors.
C) It dilates smooth muscle.
D) It stimulates vasodilation.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Infection and Human Immunodeficiency Virus
Infection
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which period of chronic HIV infection would the patient experience lymphadenopathy and nervous system manifestations?
A) Early
B) Intermediate
C) Late
D) Terminal
Q2) What early manifestations of HIV infection should the nurse assess for in both the nursing history and the physical examination?
A) Ataxia and confusion
B) Rectal lesions and bleeding
C) Lesions of the mouth and tongue
D) Weight loss and wasting syndrome
Q3) In health care workers,which following activity poses the highest risk for acquiring HIV from an HIV-infected patient?
A) A needle stick with a suture needle
B) Contamination of open skin lesions with vaginal secretions
C) A needle stick with a needle and syringe used to draw blood
D) A needle stick with a needle and syringe used to administer an intramuscular injection
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Chapter 18: Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with Hodgkin's disease is undergoing external radiation therapy on an outpatient basis.After 2 weeks of treatment,he tells the nurse that he is so tired he can hardly get out of bed in the morning.What is an appropriate goal for the nurse to plan with this patient?
A) Establish a daily walking program.
B) Exercise vigorously when fatigue is not as noticeable.
C) Consult with a psychiatrist for treatment of depression.
D) Maintain bed rest until the radiation treatment is completed.
Q2) While she is being prepared for a biopsy of a lump in her right breast,the patient asks the nurse what the difference is between a benign tumour and a malignant tumour.Which of the following explanations about benign tumours best describes the difference from malignant tumours?
A) Benign tumours frequently recur in the same site.
B) Benign tumours do not cause damage to adjacent tissue.
C) Benign tumours do not spread to other tissues and organs.
D) Benign tumours are simply an overgrowth of normal cells.
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Chapter 19: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Imbalances
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which of the following reasons would the nurse recognize that a patient's serum sodium level may not accurately reflect changes in total body sodium?
A) Total body sodium is not reflected in serum sodium levels.
B) Excess serum sodium is taken into the cells in exchange for potassium.
C) Increased serum sodium causes increased retention of water in the blood.
D) Serum sodium concentration is kept constant by the effect of ADH on the kidney.
Q2) A patient in acid-base imbalance has altered potassium levels.What knowledge does the nurse use to recognize that the potassium levels are altered in acid-base imbalances?
A) Potassium is returned to extracellular fluid on correction of metabolic acidosis.
B) Hyperkalemia causes an alkalosis that results in potassium being shifted into the cell.
C) In acidosis,hydrogen ions in the blood are exchanged for potassium from the cell.
D) In alkalosis,potassium is shifted into extracellular fluid to bind excessive bicarbonate.
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21
Chapter 20: Nursing Management: Preoperative Care
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should be the nurse's preoperative consideration when the patient states that she takes a garlic pill every day?
A) Garlic may cause inflammation of the liver.
B) Garlic may inhibit platelet activity.
C) Garlic may increase bleeding.
D) Garlic may increase pulse rate.
Q2) A 74-year-old man is to have a left inguinal hernia repair at the outpatient surgical clinic.Preoperatively,what is it most important for the nurse to determine?
A) The patient has had outpatient surgery in the past.
B) The patient's medical plan covers outpatient surgery.
C) The patient plans to stay overnight at the surgical centre.
D) A family member or friend is available for transportation and care at home.
Q3) During a preoperative assessment,which of the following reported allergies does the nurse recognize as a risk for latex allergy in the patient?
A) Iodine
B) Penicillin
C) Dairy products
D) Bananas
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Chapter 21: Nursing Management: Intraoperative Care
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to observe in a patient with malignant hyperthermia?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Low,irregular respirations
C) Decreased temperature
D) Ventricular dysrhythmias
Q2) What is the primary reason the perioperative nurse encourages a family member or a friend to remain with a patient in the preoperative holding area until the patient is taken into the operating room (OR)?
A) To ensure the proper identification of the patient before surgery
B) To protect the patient from cross-contamination with other patients
C) To assist the perioperative nurse to perform a complete patient history
D) To help minimize patient anxiety
Q3) Which of the following is part of the minimum requirements for the health record in ambulatory surgery facilities?
A) Postoperative checklist
B) Consult request
C) Documentation of consent
D) Detailed surgical procedure report
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Chapter 22: Nursing Management: Postoperative Care
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's blood pressure in the PACU has dropped from an admission blood pressure of 138/84 to 110/78 mm Hg,with a pulse change of 68 to 84 beats/min.What is the first nursing action to be performed?
A) Administer oxygen.
B) Assess for a full bladder.
C) Auscultate the patient's lungs.
D) Check the patient's temperature.
Q2) Which of the following is an ambulatory surgery discharge criterion?
A) Voided at least three times
B) No IV narcotics for last 30 minutes
C) Had at least one bowel movement
D) Oxygen saturation 88%
Q3) A 70-year-old patient becomes restless and agitated as he begins to regain consciousness in the PACU,and his SpO<sub>2</sub> is 88%.What is the most common cause of hypoxemia during anaesthesia recovery that the nurse bases her knowledge on to intervene?
A) Atelectasis
B) Bronchospasm
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Aspiration of gastric contents
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Chapter 23: Nursing Assessment: Visual and Auditory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse examines a patient's auditory canal and tympanic membrane with an otoscope.Which of the following is an abnormal finding?
A) The presence of cerumen
B) A bluish-tinged tympanum
C) The presence of a cone of light
D) A translucent,shiny tympanum
Q2) When assessing a patient,the nurse is alerted to the possibility of tinnitus when the patient reports which of the following information?
A) Using a pillow over her upright ear
B) Playing the radio for background music
C) Putting her feet against the end of the bed frame
D) Elevating her head and shoulders on three pillows
Q3) For which reason would a patient be having the diagnostic test keratometry?
A) To determine field of vision
B) To determine papillary response
C) To measure the corneal curvature
D) To provide a magnified view of the optic nerve head
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Nursing Management: Visual and Auditory
Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which following central vision acuity finding would indicate legal blindness?
A) 20/50
B) 20/100
C) 20/150
D) 20/200
Q2) When teaching a patient about the administration of eye drops,the nurse instructs the patient to close his eye and apply gentle pressure with his fingers to the inside corner of the eye for which length of time?
A) 20 to 30 seconds
B) 1 to 2 minutes
C) 2 to 3 minutes
D) 4 to 5 minutes
Q3) A patient with Ménière's disease is totally incapacitated by vertigo and is lying rigidly in bed,grasping the siderails,and staring at the television.What is an appropriate nursing intervention to decrease the patient's vertigo?
A) Encouraging fluids to 3000 mL/day
B) Changing the patient's position every 2 hours
C) Keeping the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees
D) Turning off the television set and darkening the room
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Nursing Assessment: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When obtaining a self-care integument history,the nurse will ask the patient about which of the following?
A) Pain associated with skin conditions
B) The brands of moisturizers and cosmetics used
C) Lifestyle changes associated with skin conditions
D) Changes in the condition of the skin,hair,and nails
Q2) A dark-skinned patient has been admitted to the hospital in severe respiratory distress.What knowledge does the nurse use to assess for cyanosis in the patient?
A) Cyanosis in patients with dark skin can be seen only in the sclera.
B) Cyanosis is not possible to assess in patients with dark skin.
C) Cyanosis can be seen in the conjunctiva of the eye and mucous membranes of patients with dark skin.
D) Cyanosis will blanch out with direct pressure to the soles of the feet in dark-skinned patients.
Q3) Which of the following is an age-related change in the integumentary system?
A) Increased proliferative capacity in the skin
B) Decreased keratin in the nails
C) Decreased melanin in the hair
D) Increased extracellular water in the skin
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Nursing Management: Integumentary
Problems
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22 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it important to ensure that piercings in the mouth are done with plastic jewellery rather than metal jewellery?
A) The piercing may get dislodged and be swallowed.
B) Plastic will not chip teeth.
C) This eliminates the risk of metal absorption into the bloodstream.
D) Plastic is easier to clean and disinfect than metal.
Q2) A patient with an enlarging,irregular mole is scheduled for diagnosis and treatment.Which of the following procedures should the nurse anticipate will be performed?
A) Curettage
B) Cryosurgery
C) Mohs' micrographic surgery
D) Electrodesiccation and electrocoagulation
Q3) Which of the following would the nurse recommend to the patient who has vitiligo?
A) Chemical peels
B) Use of warm compresses to decrease pain
C) Rehabilitative cosmetics to camouflage the lesion
D) Injection of botulinum toxins (Botox)
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Chapter 27: Nursing Management: Burns
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23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78739
Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent hypothermia,what is the maximum amount of time a large burn should be cooled?
A) 2 to 3 minutes
B) 5 minutes
C) 10 minutes
D) 20 minutes
Q2) Which is an appropriate intervention during the emergent phase of a patient with extensive burns to address the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition?
A) An oral intake of 5000 kcal/day
B) Intravenous administration of multivitamins and minerals
C) Administration of total parenteral nutrition via a central catheter
D) Continuous enteral feeding via a feeding tube positioned in the duodenum
Q3) Which of the following burn victims should the nurse assess for carbon monoxide inhalation?
A) Was found unconscious in a burning building
B) Has facial burns,hoarseness,and sooty sputum
C) Inhaled a large amount of steam released by a radiator
D) Was burned in a charcoal grill fire ignited with gasoline
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Chapter 28: Nursing Assessment: Respiratory System
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78738
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in severe respiratory distress is admitted to the medical unit at the hospital.During the admission assessment of the patient,what should the nurse do?
A) Perform a comprehensive health history with the patient to determine the extent of prior respiratory problems.
B) Complete a full physical examination to determine the effect of the respiratory distress on other body functions.
C) Delay any physical assessment of the patient,and ask family members about the patient's history of respiratory problems.
D) Perform a physical assessment of the respiratory system,and ask specific questions related to this episode of respiratory distress.
Q2) Which of the following is a measure of the elasticity of the lung?
A) Inspiration
B) Compliance
C) Elastic recoil
D) Oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve
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Chapter 29: Nursing Management: Upper Respiratory
Problems
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78737
Sample Questions
Q1) On entering the room of the patient who has just returned from surgery for a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection,the nurse recognizes a need for intervention upon making which one of the following observations?
A) The gastrostomy tube is clamped.
B) The patient is coughing blood-tinged secretions from the tracheostomy.
C) The patient is positioned in a lateral position with the head of the bed flat.
D) There are 200 mL of serosanguineous drainage in the patient's portable drainage device.
Q2) A patient with an uncuffed tracheostomy tube coughs violently during suctioning and dislodges the tracheostomy tube.Initially,what should the nurse do?
A) Call the physician.
B) Attempt to reinsert the tracheostomy tube.
C) Position the patient in a lateral position with the neck extended.
D) Cover the stoma with a sterile dressing,and ventilate the patient with a manual bag-mask until the physician arrives.
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Chapter 30: Nursing Management: Lower Respiratory Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78735
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving isoniazid (INH)after having a positive tuberculin skin test.Which information will the nurse include in the patient teaching plan?
A) "Take vitamin B<sub>6</sub> daily to prevent peripheral nerve damage."
B) "Read a newspaper daily to check for changes in vision."
C) "Schedule an audiometric examination to monitor for hearing loss."
D) "Avoid wearing soft contact lenses to avoid orange staining."
Q2) A 52-year-old patient has a 40-pack-year history of smoking and has been diagnosed with cancer of the lung.He tells the nurse that he did not know that anything was wrong until he had a routine chest X-ray.The nurse explains that symptoms of lung cancer occur late in the disease.What is the first thing people usually notice?
A) Fatigue
B) Chest pain
C) A persistent cough
D) Shortness of breath
Q3) What should the nurse teach patients at risk for pneumonia to obtain?
A) Staphylococcal vaccine
B) Measles,mumps,rubella (MMR)vaccine
C) Pneumococcal vaccine
D) Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG)vaccine
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Chapter 31: Nursing Management: Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78734
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse makes a diagnosis of impaired gas exchange for a patient with COPD in acute respiratory distress based on which of the following assessment findings?
A) An SpO<sub>2</sub> of 86%
B) Dyspnea and a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min
C) Use of the accessory muscles of respiration
D) The presence of crackles and coarse rales in the lungs
Q2) A patient with an acute exacerbation of COPD has the following ABG analysis: pH 7.32,PaO<sub>2</sub> 58 mm Hg,PaCO<sub>2</sub> 55 mm Hg,and SaO<sub>2</sub>
86%.What does the nurse recognize these values as evidence of?
A) Respiratory acidosis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Normal acid-base balance with hypoxemia
D) Normal acid-base balance with hypercapnia
Q3) When teaching the patient with COPD about exercise,which information should the nurse include?
A) "Stop exercising if you start to feel short of breath."
B) "Use the bronchodilator before you start to exercise."
C) "Breathe in and out through the mouth while you exercise."
D) "Upper body exercise should be avoided to prevent dyspnea."
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Nursing Assessment: Hematological System
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78733
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is found to have leukopenia,anemia,neutropenia,and thrombocytopenia.Which drug classification is known to exhibit these hematological alterations?
A) Isoniazid
B) Aminoglycosides
C) H<sub>2</sub>-receptor blockers
D) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septra)
Q2) Which of the following cells function to provide protection from parasitic infections?
A) Monocytes
B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Neutrophils
Q3) Approximately what percentage of the composition of blood is plasma?
A) 30%
B) 45%
C) 55%
D) 75%
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Chapter 33: Nursing Management: Hematological Problems
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78732
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to assess for the presence of infection in a patient with neutropenia?
A) Monitor WBCs daily.
B) Monitor temperature every 4 hours.
C) Monitor the skin for temperature and diaphoresis.
D) Monitor the mouth and perianal area every shift for signs of redness and swelling.
Q2) After teaching the patient about taking oral iron preparations for a moderate iron-deficiency anemia,which of the following patient statements indicates to the nurse that additional instruction is needed?
A) "I will contact my doctor if my stools start to turn black."
B) "I will call the doctor if the tablets cause a lot of stomach upset."
C) "I will increase my fluid intake if the iron tablets make me constipated."
D) "I should take the iron tablets with orange juice about an hour before meals."
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Chapter 34: Nursing Assessment: Cardiovascular System
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78731
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a normal age-related change in the heart?
A) Increased elastin
B) Decreased collagen
C) Decreased cardiac output
D) Increased stroke volume
Q2) A transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE)is ordered for a patient with possible endocarditis.Which of these actions included in the standard TEE orders will the nurse need to accomplish first?
A) Make the patient nothing by mouth (NPO)status.
B) Start a large-gauge IV line.
C) Administer O<sub>2</sub> per mask.
D) Give lorazepam (Ativan)1 mg IV.
Q3) The standard orders on the cardiac unit state,"Notify the physician for MAP less than 70 mm Hg." For which patient would the nurse call the physician?
A) The patient with left ventricular failure who has a BP of 110/70 mm Hg
B) The patient with a myocardial infarction who has a BP of 114/50 mm Hg
C) The postoperative patient with a BP of 116/42 mm Hg
D) The newly admitted patient with a BP of 122/60 mm Hg
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Chapter 35: Nursing Management: Hypertension
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78730
Sample Questions
Q1) A 52-year-old woman has no history of hypertension and no risk factors related to hypertension.During an annual physical examination,her blood pressure is 188/106 mm Hg.After reconfirming her BP,it is appropriate for the nurse to tell the patient which of the following?
A) She should have her BP rechecked in 2 months.
B) She is in imminent danger of a stroke and should be hospitalized immediately.
C) She needs to reduce the sodium and fat content in her diet and exercise more vigorously.
D) Her increased BP might be due to a specific disease and may require further diagnostic testing.
Q2) A 69-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypertension and placed on acebutolol (Sectral).After reviewing the patient's history,the nurse consults with the physician about the use of this medication upon finding which of the following conditions?
A) Asthma
B) Peptic ulcer disease
C) Alcohol dependency
D) Myocardial infarction
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Chapter 36: Nursing Management: Coronary Artery Disease
and Acute Coronary Syndrome
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78729
Sample Questions
Q1) While caring for a patient with an AMI,the nurse monitors the patient closely,knowing that which of the following conditions is the most common complication of MI?
A) Pericarditis
B) Dysrhythmias
C) Cardiogenic shock
D) Congestive heart failure
Q2) To assist the patient with CAD to make the appropriate dietary changes,which of these nursing interventions will be most effective?
A) Help the patient modify favourite high-fat recipes by using monounsaturated oils when possible.
B) Provide the patient with a list of low-sodium,low-cholesterol foods that should be included in the diet.
C) Instruct the patient that a diet containing no saturated fat and minimal sodium will be necessary.
D) Emphasize the increased risk for cardiac problems unless the patient makes the dietary changes.
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Chapter 37: Nursing Management: Heart Failure
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78728
Sample Questions
Q1) IV nitroprusside (Nipride)is ordered for a patient with acute pulmonary edema.During the initial administration of the drug,the nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following?
A) Bradycardia
B) Hypotension
C) Cyanide toxicity
D) Ventricular dysrhythmias
Q2) To promote more efficient ventricular emptying by decreasing preload in the patient with chronic heart failure,the nurse should implement which of the following actions?
A) Administer oxygen per mask.
B) Encourage active leg exercises to increase venous return.
C) Administer sedatives to promote rest and decrease myocardial oxygen demand.
D) Position the patient in a high-Fowler's position with the feet horizontal in the bed.
Q3) What is the most common form of initial heart failure?
A) Left-sided
B) Right-sided
C) Biventricular
D) All types occur equally;there is no one common form of heart failure.
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Chapter 38: Nursing Management: Dysrhythmias
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78727
Sample Questions
Q1) The cardiac monitor alarm goes off for a patient being monitored in the coronary care unit,and the nurse notes a cardiac pattern of undulations of varying contours and amplitude with no measurable ECG pattern.The patient is unconscious,with no pulse or respirations.After calling for assistance,what should the nurse do?
A) Start basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
B) Administer a bolus dose of epinephrine.
C) Prepare the patient for endotracheal intubation.
D) Wait for the defibrillator to arrive at the bedside.
Q2) When analyzing the waveforms of a patient's ECG,which finding will the nurse need to investigate further?
A) PR interval of 0.18 second
B) QRS interval of 0.14 second
C) T wave of 0.16 second
D) QT interval of 0.34 second
Q3) Which classification of antidysrhythmia drugs has no effect on ECG?
A) Class I: sodium channel blockers
B) Class II: ?-adrenergic blockers
C) Class III: potassium channel blockers
D) Class IV: calcium channel blockers
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Nursing Management: Inflammatory and Structural Heart Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78726
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for flat,painless,small red spots on the palms and soles of a patient who has IE?
A) Osler's nodes
B) Roth's spots
C) Janeway's lesions
D) Palmar surface paradoxus
Q2) While obtaining a nursing history from a 23-year-old man with rheumatic fever,what information related by the patient does the nurse recognize as the most significant?
A) Has used illicit IV drugs within the last 3 months
B) Has been unemployed for 6 months and has been eating poorly
C) Suffered chest trauma with a fractured rib during a fight 2 weeks ago
D) Has had a recent sore throat
Q3) During postoperative teaching with a patient who has had a mitral valve replacement with a mechanical valve,what should the nurse instruct the patient about?
A) The need to avoid high-voltage electrical fields
B) The need for anticoagulation therapy for the duration of the valve
C) The probability that the valve will need to be replaced in 7 to 10 years
D) The need to check the pulse daily to determine the functioning of the valve
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Chapter 40: Nursing Management: Vascular Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78724
Sample Questions
Q1) A 72-year-old man is hospitalized for an aortic dissection of the abdominal aorta that stabilizes with treatment.What emphasis should the nurse include when developing a teaching plan for the patient's discharge?
A) Performing leg exercises to increase peripheral collateral circulation
B) Using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)to control his chronic pain
C) Daily home monitoring of BP and pulse for signs of increased bleeding
D) Using prescribed antihypertensive medications to keep his BP as low as possible to maintain vital perfusion
Q2) After repair of an AAA,the nurse notes that the patient does not have popliteal,posterior tibial,or dorsalis pedis pulses.The legs are cool and mottled.Which action is appropriate for the nurse to take first?
A) Review the preoperative assessment form for data about the pulses.
B) Notify the surgeon and anaesthesiologist.
C) Document that the pulses are absent,and recheck in 30 minutes.
D) Elevate the lower extremities on pillows.
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Chapter 41: Nursing Assessment: Gastrointestinal System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78723
Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a patient following a needle biopsy of the liver at the bedside,what should the nurse do?
A) Elevate the head of the bed to facilitate breathing.
B) Check the patient's postbiopsy coagulation studies.
C) Place the patient on the right side with the bed flat.
D) Instruct the patient to take shallow breaths to avoid pressure on the liver.
Q2) A healthy adult produces approximately how much saliva on a daily basis?
A) 500 mL
B) 1000 mL
C) 1500 mL
D) 2000 mL
Q3) Which major GI hormone is responsible for stimulating pancreatic bicarbonate secretion?
A) Gastrin
B) Secretin
C) Cholecystokinin
D) Gastric inhibitory peptide
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43
Chapter 42: Nursing Management: Nutritional Problems
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78722
Sample Questions
Q1) A feeding tube has been inserted,and the patient is started on continuous EN.As part of the insertion procedure,the tube was externally secured to the patient.How often should the nurses assess the patient to ensure that the tube stays secured to the patient's body and does not move?
A) Every 4 hours
B) Every 8 hours
C) Every 12 hours
D) Every 24 hours
Q2) A 22-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa.She is 163 cm tall and weighs 41 kg.On admission,her laboratory tests reveal hypokalemia,hypercholesterolemia,and iron-deficiency anemia.In planning care for the patient,the nurse places the highest priority on which of the following nursing diagnoses?
A) Risk for activity intolerance related to anemia and weakness
B) Ineffective health maintenance related to obsession with body image
C) Risk for decreased cardiac output related to electrolyte imbalance
D) Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to refusal to eat
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44
Chapter 43: Nursing Management: Obesity
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78721
Sample Questions
Q1) A few months after bariatric surgery,the patient tells the nurse,"My skin is hanging in folds.I think I need cosmetic surgery." Which following response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "The skinfolds will gradually disappear once most of the weight is lost."
B) "The important thing is that your weight loss is improving your health."
C) "Perhaps you would like to talk to a counsellor about your body image."
D) "Cosmetic surgery is certainly a possibility once your weight has stabilized."
Q2) The nurse is developing a weight loss plan for a 21-year-old patient with obesity.Which statement is most likely to help the patient in losing weight on the planned 800-calorie diet?
A) "You will decrease your risk for future health problems such as diabetes by losing weight now."
B) "You are likely to start to notice changes in how you feel with just a few weeks of diet and exercise."
C) "Most of the weight that you lose during the first weeks of dieting is water weight rather than fat."
D) "It will be necessary to change lifestyle habits permanently to maintain weight loss."
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Nursing Management: Upper Gastrointestinal
Problems
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78720
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with acute GI bleeding is receiving normal saline IV at a rate of 500 mL/hour.Which of the following assessment data obtained by the nurse are most important to communicate immediately to the physician?
A) The NG suction is returning "coffee grounds" material.
B) The patient's lungs have crackles audible to the midline.
C) The patient's blood pressure has increased to 142/94 mm Hg.
D) The bowel sounds are very hyperactive in all four quadrants.
Q2) A patient with oral squamous cell carcinoma is transferred to the postoperative surgical unit after a hemiglossectomy and radical neck procedure.When planning care,the nurse will anticipate the need to do which of the following?
A) Insert a long-term central venous catheter for parenteral nutrition.
B) Use an alphabet board to assist the patient with communication.
C) Administer chemotherapy starting the first postoperative day.
D) Reinforce pressure dressings at the surgical incision.
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Chapter 45: Nursing Management: Lower Gastrointestinal
Problems
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78719
Sample Questions
Q1) During the initial postoperative assessment of a patient's stoma formed with a transverse colostomy,the nurse finds it to be red with moderate edema and a small amount of bleeding.What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Document the stoma assessment.
B) Notify the surgeon about the stoma appearance.
C) Monitor the stoma every 30 minutes.
D) Place an ice pack on the stoma to reduce swelling.
Q2) A patient hospitalized with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis is having 14 to 16 bloody stools a day and crampy abdominal pain associated with the diarrhea.Which of the following will the nurse plan to implement?
A) Place the patient on NPO status.
B) Administer cobalamin (vitamin B<sub>12</sub>)injections.
C) Start bowel preparation for colonoscopy.
D) Administer IV metoclopramide.
Q3) Which of the following is a neoplastic polyp of the large intestine?
A) Familial juvenile polyps
B) Pseudopolyps
C) Hereditary polyposis syndromes
D) Leiomyomas
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Biliary Tract Problems
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78718
Sample Questions
Q1) In planning care for a patient with acute pancreatitis,to which of the following patient outcomes would the nurse assign the highest priority?
A) Develops no complications
B) Maintains normal respiratory function
C) Expresses satisfaction with pain control
D) Maintains adequate fluid and electrolyte balance
Q2) A patient hospitalized with possible acute pancreatitis has severe abdominal pain and nausea and vomiting.Which of the following elevated serum levels would the nurse expect the diagnosis to be confirmed by?
A) Calcium
B) Bilirubin
C) Potassium
D) Amylase
Q3) Which data obtained by the nurse during the assessment of a patient with cirrhosis will be of most concern?
A) The patient's skin has multiple spider-shaped blood vessels on the abdomen.
B) The patient has ascites and a 2-kg weight gain from the previous day.
C) The patient complains of right upper quadrant pain with abdominal palpation.
D) The patient's hands flap back and forth when the arms are extended.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Nursing Assessment: Urinary System
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78717
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an abnormal finding of the urinary system?
A) CVA tenderness
B) Nonpalpable kidney
C) No palpable masses
D) Nonpalpable bladder
Q2) A creatinine clearance test is ordered for a hospitalized patient with possible renal insufficiency.Which equipment will the nurse need to obtain?
A) Foley catheter and drainage bag
B) Towelettes for perineal cleaning
C) Basin of ice
D) Sterile specimen cup
Q3) For what purpose does the nurse use auscultation during assessment of the urinary system?
A) To determine the position of the kidneys
B) To assess fluid wave patterns in the bladder
C) To determine the level of a distended bladder
D) To identify renal artery and abdominal aortic bruits
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Chapter 48: Nursing Management: Renal and Urological Problems
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78716
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a confirmed renal calculus in the proximal left ureter undergoes extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy,which successfully shatters the stone.After the lithotripsy,the nurse encourages fluids to 3000 mL/day and knows that the interventions for the patient have been effective based on which of the following findings?
A) Free flow of urine is present.
B) Adequate fluid balance is maintained.
C) The patient verbalizes a decrease in pain.
D) There is no indication of UTI.
Q2) To prevent the incidence of UTIs in a catheterized patient,which of the following actions should the nurse implement?
A) Irrigate the catheter with an antiseptic solution.
B) Apply an antiseptic solution to the perineum daily.
C) Perform perineal cleansing with mild soap and water twice daily and as needed.
D) Apply an antibiotic ointment around the catheter at the urinary meatus at least twice a day.
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Chapter 49: Nursing Management: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78715
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being initiated on peritoneal dialysis.What should the nurse teach the patient in relation to fluid allowance?
A) Limit intake to 1000 mL per day.
B) Adjust intake to equal output plus 300 mL per day.
C) Adjust intake to equal output plus 600 mL per day.
D) Often there is no fluid restriction.
Q2) A patient is receiving immunosuppressive drugs following a living related-donor kidney transplant.To monitor for corticosteroid-related complications,the nurse teaches the patient to report which of the following?
A) Pain at the donor kidney site
B) Dizziness with position change
C) Changes in the character of the urine
D) Pain in the hips,knees,and other joints
Q3) A patient complains of leg cramps during hemodialysis.What should the nurse do?
A) Give acetaminophen.
B) Infuse a bolus of normal saline.
C) Massage the patient's legs.
D) Reposition the patient.
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Chapter 50: Nursing Assessment: Endocrine System
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78713
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is scheduled for a growth hormone (GH)stimulation test.In preparation for the test,which of the following will the nurse obtain?
A) Vial of 50% dextrose solution
B) Vial of glargine insulin
C) Cardiac monitor
D) Basin of ice
Q2) During a patient assessment,which of the following is a question the nurse can ask that addresses thyroid function?
A) "Do you have to get up at night to urinate?"
B) "Have you experienced any blurring or double vision?"
C) "Do you experience fatigue even if you have slept a long time?"
D) "Can you describe the amount of stress you have at home and work?"
Q3) When evaluating the laboratory findings of a patient with increased secretion of the anterior pituitary hormones,what would the nurse expect to find?
A) Increased urinary free cortisol
B) Decreased serum thyroxine (T<sub>4</sub>)levels
C) Low urinary excretion of catecholamines
D) Increased serum aldosterone levels
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Chapter 51: Nursing Management: Endocrine Problems
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78712
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing assessment of a patient with Cushing's syndrome reveals that the patient has truncal obesity and thin arms and legs.What is an additional manifestation of Cushing's syndrome that the nurse would expect to find?
A) Hypotension
B) Decreased axillary and pubic hair
C) Purplish red striae on the abdomen
D) Bronzed hyperpigmentation of the skin
Q2) When providing postoperative care for a patient who has had a bilateral adrenalectomy,which assessment information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the physician?
A) The blood glucose is 8 mmol/L.
B) The patient's blood pressure is 102/50 mm Hg.
C) The patient has level 6 incisional pain on a 10-point scale.
D) The lungs have bibasilar crackles.
Q3) Which type of diabetes insipidus results from excessive water intake?
A) Central
B) Neurogenic
C) Nephrogenic
D) Primary
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Nursing Management: Diabetes Mellitus
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78711
Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiac monitoring is initiated for a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis.The nurse recognizes that this measure is important to identify which of the following complications?
A) Electrocardiogram (ECG)changes and dysrhythmias related to hypokalemia
B) Fluid overload resulting from aggressive fluid replacement
C) The presence of hypovolemic shock related to osmotic diuresis
D) Cardiovascular collapse resulting from the effects of excess glucose on cardiac muscle
Q2) A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for an outpatient coronary arteriogram.Which information obtained by the nurse when admitting the patient indicates a need for a change in the patient's regimen?
A) The patient's most recent HbA<sub>1C</sub> result was 6%.
B) The patient takes metformin every morning.
C) The patient uses captopril (Capoten)for hypertension.
D) The patient's admission blood glucose is 7.1 mmol/L (128 mg/dL).
Q3) Which of the following is a common side effect of metformin?
A) Nausea and diarrhea
B) Edema and weight gain
C) Upper respiratory tract infections
D) Hypoglycemia
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Chapter 53: Nursing Assessment: Reproductive System
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78710
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the process that reduces the number of primordial follicles from 2 to 4 million at birth to approximately 300,000 to 400,000 at menarche?
A) Phagocytosis
B) Pinocytosis
C) Atresia
D) Active transport
Q2) Before a woman uses oral contraceptives,the nurse should question the patient about a history of which one of the following disorders?
A) Rubella
B) Anemia
C) Mumps
D) Cholecystitis
Q3) A patient with a possible ovarian cyst is scheduled for ultrasonography.The nurse will teach the patient which of the following?
A) She should not eat or drink for 4 hours before the procedure.
B) She will experience minimal discomfort during the procedure.
C) She should discontinue taking aspirin before the procedure.
D) She will receive intravenous contrast solution during the procedure.
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Chapter 54: Nursing Management: Breast Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78709
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement by a 32-year-old patient newly diagnosed with stage I breast cancer indicates to the nurse that the goals of therapy are being met?
A) "I am not sure how my husband will react when I tell him about this cancer."
B) "I am ready to die if that is God's plan for me."
C) "I need to know all the options before making a decision about treatment."
D) "I will do whatever the doctor thinks is best."
Q2) When counselling a patient about breast cancer prevention,the nurse considers that the patient has a significant family history of breast cancer if she has which of the following?
A) A sister who died from ovarian cancer at the age of 29
B) A paternal grandmother who died from breast cancer at the age of 72
C) A cousin who was diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 60 and ovarian cancer at the age of 68
D) A mother who was diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 42
Q3) Which breast disorder is most common between the ages of 35 and 50?
A) Lactational mastitis
B) Fibrocystic changes
C) Fibroadenoma
D) Duct ectasia
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Nursing Management: Sexually Transmitted
Infections
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78708
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone (Rocephin)and is given a prescription for doxycycline (Vibramycin)100 mg twice daily for 7 days.What should the nurse explain to the patient about this combination of antibiotics?
A) They are prescribed to treat any coexisting chlamydial infection.
B) They will eradicate resistant strains of Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
C) They prevent the development of resistant organisms.
D) They prevent reinfection in addition to treating the original infection.
Q2) Which of the following is the recommended therapy for treatment of small external genital warts?
A) Penicillin
B) Podophyllin resin
C) Cryotherapy
D) Aluminum salts
Q3) Cervarix,an HPV vaccine,is recommended for which of the following populations?
A) Females before sexual intercourse
B) Males and females between the ages of 9 and 26
C) Females between the ages of 13 and 20
D) Any sexually active female
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Chapter 56: Nursing Management: Female Reproductive Problems
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78707
Sample Questions
Q1) During a routine health examination,a 32-year-old woman tells the nurse that she uses oral contraceptives because her husband wants to delay having children for a few more years.What is the most appropriate response?
A) "It is more difficult for women to conceive the older they become."
B) "I'm sure you will have plenty of time to have a family in a few years when you are ready."
C) "Long-term use of oral contraceptives causes uterine changes that make it more difficult for you to conceive."
D) "Pregnancy is no problem when women pass the age of 30 because their sexual response peak is at about the age of 35."
Q2) A young woman who is trying to become pregnant asks the nurse about ways to determine when she is most likely to conceive.What should the nurse explain?
A) She should take her body temperature daily and have intercourse when it drops.
B) She will need to bring a specimen of cervical mucus to the clinic for testing.
C) Ovulation prediction kits provide accurate information about ovulation.
D) Ovulation is difficult to predict unless she has regular menstrual periods.
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Chapter 57: Nursing Management: Male Reproductive Problems
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78706
Sample Questions
Q1) Following a radical retropubic prostatectomy for prostate cancer,the patient is incontinent of urine.What is an appropriate nursing intervention to teach this patient?
A) Pelvic floor muscle training
B) The use of herbal saw palmetto
C) How to perform intermittent self-catheterization
D) To avoid heavy lifting,which increases the incidence of incontinence
Q2) In teaching a male patient to perform testicular self-examination,the nurse includes information about which of the following?
A) The only structure felt in the scrotal sac is the testis.
B) The examination should be done when the scrotum is warm.
C) If one testis is larger than the other,the patient should consult his physician.
D) Unlike breast self-examination,testicular self-examination should be performed every other month.
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Chapter 58: Nursing Assessment: Nervous System
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78705
Sample Questions
Q1) Which internal structure arises from the basilar and two internal carotid arteries?
A) Reticular formation
B) Blood-brain barrier
C) Circle of Willis
D) Anterior communicating centre
Q2) For a patient who has a corticospinal tract lesion,the nurse should assess for which of the following?
A) Extremity movement and strength
B) Cranial nerve function
C) Peripheral sensitivity to pain
D) Level of consciousness
Q3) The following orders are received for a patient who is unconscious after a head injury caused by an automobile accident.Which one should the nurse question?
A) Perform neurological checks every 15 minutes.
B) Prepare the patient for lumbar puncture.
C) Obtain X-ray films of the skull and spine.
D) Do computed tomography scanning with and without contrast.
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Chapter 59: Nursing Management: Acute Intracranial Problems
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78704
Sample Questions
Q1) The wife of a patient who is in a coma is optimistic about her husband's recovery because he opens his eyes and appears to be awake.What is the most appropriate response to the wife's comment?
A) "Your husband's behaviour is only a reflex and does not really show improvement in his condition."
B) "Sleep-wake cycles are encouraging signs of recovery,and you should be optimistic about your husband's condition."
C) "You are right to be optimistic.When patients begin to recover from a coma,the first behaviours seen are those of wakefulness."
D) "Your husband may show sleep-wake patterns if the part of the brain responsible for arousal is not injured,but these patterns do not reflect activity of the higher brain centres."
Q2) Patient manifestations of a headache,CSF leakage,and cranial nerve deficit are signs of which one of the following indications for cranial surgery?
A) Brain tumour
B) Skull fracture
C) Hydrocephalus
D) Intracranial infection
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Chapter 60: Nursing Management: Stroke
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78702
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse expects that management of the patient who experiences a brief episode of tinnitus,diplopia,and dysarthria with no residual effects will include which of the following treatments?
A) Oral administration of clopidogrel (Plavix)
B) Heparin via continuous intravenous (IV)infusion
C) Prophylactic clipping of cerebral aneurysms
D) Therapy with tPA
Q2) A patient who has a history of a TIA has an order for aspirin 160 mg daily.When the nurse is administering the medications,the patient says,"I don't need the aspirin today.I don't have any aches or pains." Which action should the nurse take?
A) Document that the aspirin was refused by the patient.
B) Call the physician to clarify the medication order.
C) Explain that the aspirin is ordered to decrease stroke risk.
D) Tell the patient that the aspirin is used to prevent aches.
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Chapter 61: Nursing Management: Chronic Neurological Problems
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78701
Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is obtaining a health history from a patient undergoing diagnostic testing for MS,which of the following is a finding identified as characteristic of early MS?
A) Memory lapses
B) Intermittent fever
C) Constipation
D) Weakness of the legs
Q2) The nurse witnesses a patient with a seizure disorder as he suddenly jerks his arms and legs,falls to the floor,and regains consciousness immediately.What type of seizure is demonstrated by this patient that the nurse must document?
A) An atonic seizure
B) A myoclonic seizure
C) A complex partial seizure with automatisms
D) A simple partial seizure with motor symptoms
Q3) Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of myasthenia gravis (MG)?
A) Bulging eyes
B) Scotoma
C) Unstable gait
D) Hypertension
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Disease,and Other Dementias
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78700
Sample Questions
Q1) A 62-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her daughter,who is concerned about her mother's increasing sleep disturbances and inability to solve common problems.To obtain information about the patient's current mental status,which question should the nurse ask the patient?
A) "Where were you were born?"
B) "Do you have any feelings of sadness?"
C) "What day of the week is it today?"
D) "How positive is your self-image?"
Q2) In which of the following conditions does the patient have fluctuations in consciousness throughout the course of the disease?
A) Delirium
B) Depression
C) Psychosis
D) Dementia
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Chapter 63: Nursing Management: Peripheral Nerve and Spinal Cord Problems
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78699
Sample Questions
Q1) The physician orders administration of IV methylprednisolone for the first 24 hours to a patient who experienced a spinal cord injury 3 hours ago.What will the nurse assess when evaluating the effectiveness of this drug?
A) Blood pressure and heart rate
B) Respiratory effort and O<sub>2</sub> saturation
C) Motor and sensory function of the legs
D) Bowel sounds and abdominal distension
Q2) A 24-year-old patient is hospitalized with the onset of Guillain-Barré syndrome.During this phase of the patient's illness,what is the most essential assessment for the nurse to carry out?
A) Monitoring the vital signs every 2 hours
B) Determining the patient's level of consciousness every 2 hours
C) Performing constant evaluation of respiratory function
D) Evaluating sensory and motor function of the extremities
Q3) Spinal cord injuries occur most frequently in which age group?
A) 1 to 8 years
B) 10 to 15 years
C) 15 to 25 years
D) 35 to 50 years
Page 65
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Chapter 64: Nursing Assessment: Musculoskeletal System
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78698
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is seen at the urgent care centre following a blunt injury to his left knee.The knee is grossly swollen and very painful,but the skin is intact.During an arthrocentesis on the patient's knee,how would the nurse expect the aspirated fluid to appear?
A) Sanguineous
B) Purulent and thick
C) Light yellow in colour
D) White,thick,and ropelike
Q2) Skeletal muscle accounts for approximately what percentage of a person's body weight?
A) 25%
B) 33%
C) 50%
D) 66%
Q3) The wrist joint is an example of which one of the following joint types?
A) Hinge joint
B) Pivot joint
C) Condyloid joint
D) Gliding joint
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66
Chapter 65: Nursing Management: Musculoskeletal
Trauma and Orthopedic Surgery
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78697
Sample Questions
Q1) After falling at home,an 81-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department,where X-ray films confirmed the presence of an extracapsular fracture of the femur.When assessing the patient,what would the nurse expect to find?
A) Bruising of the left hip and thigh
B) Numbness in the left leg and hip
C) Outward-pointing toes on the left leg
D) Weak or nonpalpable left leg pulses
Q2) A woman is seen at the urgent care centre after falling on her right arm and shoulder.What is an assessment finding noted by the nurse that would indicate the patient has a dislocated shoulder?
A) Bruising at the shoulder area
B) The right arm being shorter than the left arm
C) Decreased range of motion of the right shoulder
D) Increased pain caused by flexing and extending the elbow
Q3) Which one of the following workers would be most at risk for an RSI?
A) Butcher
B) Car sales person
C) Long-haul truck driver
D) Nurse
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Chapter 66: Nursing Management: Musculoskeletal Problems
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78696
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of pain related to muscle spasms for a patient with acute low back pain associated with acute lumbosacral strain.What is an appropriate nursing intervention for this problem to teach to the patient?
A) Gently perform range-of-motion exercises of the lower extremities.
B) Place a small pillow under the upper back to gently flex the lumbar spine.
C) Rest in bed with the head of the bed elevated 20 degrees,and flex the knees.
D) Elevate the head of the bed on blocks,and lie with the feet firmly against the foot of the bed.
Q2) Which of the following foods would the nurse recommend to the patient as having the highest amount of calcium per serving,to increase the patient's nutritional intake of calcium?
A) Yogourt
B) Whole milk
C) Shrimp
D) Salmon
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Chapter 67: Nursing Management: Arthritis and Connective
Tissue Diseases
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78695
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being assessed for a diagnosis of RA.Which of the following total scores on the American College of Rheumatology/European League Against Rheumatism
Classification Criteria for Rheumatoid Arthritis would be interpreted as a definite diagnosis of RA?
A) 0
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
Q2) A patient is hospitalized with an acute attack of primary gout,which is affecting his left great toe and ankle.What is the patient outcome that the nurse determines as most important for the patient?
A) Maintains a purine-free diet
B) Experiences no evidence of tophi
C) Experiences satisfactory pain relief
D) Has minimal loss of function of the affected joint
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Chapter 68: Nursing Management: Critical Care Environment
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78694
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a nursing diagnosis of risk for injury related to asynchrony with the ventilator secondary to anxiety.Initially,what should the nurse do?
A) Verbally coach the patient to breathe with the ventilator.
B) Sedate the patient with morphine or lorazepam (Ativan).
C) Use a manual resuscitation bag with 100% oxygen to rapidly ventilate the patient.
D) Increase the ventilator rate to override the patient's efforts at breathing.
Q2) To inflate the cuff of an ET when the patient is on mechanical ventilation,what should the nurse do?
A) Inflate the cuff with 10 mL of air.
B) Inject air into the cuff to a pressure of 20 mm Hg.
C) Inject air into the cuff until no leak is heard at peak inspiratory pressure.
D) Inflate the cuff until the pilot balloon cannot be easily compressed with the fingers.
Q3) Which finding represents a normal SV when monitoring hemodynamic parameters?
A) 25 mL/beat
B) 50 mL/beat
C) 100 mL/beat
D) 200 mL/beat
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Page 70
Chapter 69: Nursing Management: Shock,systemic
Inflammatory Response Syndrome,and Multiple-Organ
Dysfunction Syndrome
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78693
Sample Questions
Q1) Which hemodynamic results would the nurse anticipate in a patient who is in cardiogenic shock?
A) Increased heart rate (HR),blood pressure (BP),and cardiac output (CO<sub>2</sub>)
B) Increased HR,decreased BP and CO<sub>2</sub>
C) Decreased HR,BP,and CO<sub>2</sub>
D) Decreased HR,increased BP and CO<sub>2</sub>
Q2) A patient in septic shock has not responded to fluid resuscitation,as evidenced by a decreasing BP and CO<sub>2</sub>.The nurse anticipates the administration of which of the following medications?
A) Nitroglycerine (Tridil)
B) Dobutamine
C) Norepinephrine (Levophed)
D) Sodium nitroprusside (Nipride)
Q3) Which hemodynamic results would the nurse expect to assess in a patient who is in neurogenic shock?
A) Increased HR,decreased BP and pulse pressure
B) Increased HR,BP,and pulse pressure
C) Decreased HR,increased BP and pulse pressure
D) Decreased HR,BP,and pulse pressure
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Chapter 70: Nursing Management: Respiratory Failure and
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78691
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse anticipates the possibility of hypercapnic respiratory failure when the patient has which of the following problems?
A) Chest trauma and multiple rib fractures
B) Carbon monoxide poisoning after a house fire
C) Left-sided ventricular failure and acute pulmonary edema
D) Tachypnea and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Q2) A patient admitted 2 days ago with gram-negative sepsis has the following assessment data: temperature 38.3°C,blood pressure 90/56 mm Hg,pulse 92 beats/min,respiration 34 breaths/min.Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Obtain oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry.
B) Document the vital signs,and continue to monitor.
C) Administer as-needed acetaminophen (Tylenol)650 mg.
D) Notify the physician of the patient's assessment data findings.
Q3) Which assessment finding would the nurse expect in a patient with hypercapnia?
A) Increased tidal volume
B) Increased minute ventilation
C) Dyspnea
D) Bradycardia
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Chapter 71: Nursing Management: Emergency Care Situations
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78690
Sample Questions
Q1) A 72-year-old man has fallen from a ladder and is transported to the emergency department by ambulance.He is unconscious on arrival and accompanied by his wife and son.During the primary survey of the patient,what should the nurse do?
A) Obtain the patient's vital signs.
B) Calculate a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)score.
C) Examine the neck for rigidity or stiffness.
D) Determine whether he has underlying medical conditions.
Q2) A patient has experienced blunt abdominal trauma from a motor vehicle accident.Which of the following diagnostic tests does the nurse know is a noninvasive method of determining the presence of intra-abdominal bleeding?
A) Magnetic resonance imaging
B) Ultrasonography
C) Peritoneal lavage
D) Auscultation of bowel sounds in the chest
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Chapter 72: Emergency Preparedness and Disaster Management
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78689
Sample Questions
Q1) The incident management system (IMS)used in Canada is based on the incident command system that was developed as a result of which event?
A) Tsunami off the coast of Tahiti
B) Wildfires in California
C) Floods in Saskatchewan
D) Drought in Alberta
Q2) What type of approach to disaster management would be used when dealing with a hurricane in southern Alberta?
A) Agent specific
B) All hazards
C) Unique hazard
D) Caused event
Q3) What is the primary function of the incident command centre?
A) Provides a central point for decision making
B) Completes a register with the names of all individuals involved
C) Provides information to keep the media informed of the event
D) Organizes the efforts of all of the first responders to avoid duplication
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