Advanced Medical Coding Question Bank
Course Introduction
Advanced Medical Coding delves into the complex principles and practices of coding diagnoses, procedures, and services using current classification systems such as ICD-10-CM, CPT, and HCPCS. This course is designed for students who have a foundational understanding of medical coding and are ready to master advanced concepts including code auditing, resolving ambiguous documentation, compliance with healthcare regulations, and the application of coding guidelines in specialized medical fields. Emphasis is placed on real-world case studies, critical thinking, and problem-solving skills to ensure accuracy in medical billing, maximize reimbursement, and support healthcare data integrity.
Recommended Textbook
ICD 10 CM PCS Coding Theory and Practice 2018 Edition 1st Edition by Karla R. Lovaasen
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26 Chapters
1616 Verified Questions
1616 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Rationale for and History of Coding
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42574
Sample Questions
Q1) The ____ Bills of Mortality in the 17th century was the first attempt to statistically gather data on disease.
A)Paris
B)London
C)France
D)England
Answer: B
Q2) Work for ICD-10-CM began in ____.
A)1963
B)1973
C)1983
D)1993
Answer: C
Q3) CCS
A)American Academy of Professional Coders
B)Certified Coding Specialist
C)American Hospital Association
D)National Center for Health Statistics
E)Registered Health Information Technician
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Health Record As the Foundation of Coding
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consultations
A)Accredits and certifies health care organizations
B)The problem in the patient's own words
C)The approach the practitioner is taking to solve the patient's problem
D)The condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care
E)Codes reported on health insurance claim forms that should be supported by documentation in the medical record
F)Person qualified by education and legally authorized to practice medicine
G)Requested by the attending physician to gain an expert opinion on the treatment of a particular aspect of the patient's condition that is outside the expertise of the attending physician
H)People who treat patients
I)The physician identifies the history, physical exam, and diagnostic tests
J)Where the subjective and objective combine for conclusion
K)Words of the patient; the reason the patient has presented to a health care facility for treatment
Answer: G
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4
Chapter 3: ICD-10-Cm Format and Conventions
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ is/are used in both the Index and Tabular List to enclose supplementary words that may be present or absent in the statement of a disease or procedure without affecting the code assignment.
A)Excludes
B)Brackets
C)Includes
D)Parentheses
Answer: D
Q2) The code "L05.0 pilonidal cyst and sinus with abscess" represents a ____.
A)chapter
B)section
C)category
D)subcategory
Answer: D
Q3) The bolded subterm in the diagnostic statement bacterial pneumonia is a(n) ____ modifier.
A)essential
B)nonessential
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Basic Steps of Coding
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A coder must always remember that, after a term is located in the Alphabetic Index, the code must be verified in the Tabular List.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Modifiers of the main term that have an effect on the appropriate code choice
A)Tabular List
B)See also
C)Subterms
D)Discharge summary
E)Coding Clinic
F)ER
G)Differential diagnosis
H)Chief complaint
I)The first basic step in coding the principal diagnosis
J)Nonessential modifiers
Q3) The admitting diagnosis is usually a sign or a symptom.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the subterm in "rheumatoid arthritis"?
Q5) What is the subterm in "infantile eczema"?
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Chapter 5: General Coding Guidelines for Diagnosis
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is a known diabetic is admitted for treatment of pneumonia. What is the principal diagnosis?
Q2) What is/are the diagnosis code(s) for acute and chronic pancreatitis?
Q3) List one reason when it is NOT acceptable to code a symptom code from Chapter 18.
Q4) A(n) ____ is a residual effect (condition produced) after the acute phase of an illness or injury has terminated.
A)combination effect
B)acute effect
C)sequela
D)chronic effect
Q5) Conditions that are routinely associated with a disease or condition should not be coded as additional diagnoses unless instructed by the classification or unless they affect the patient's condition or treatment given.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is/are the diagnosis code(s) for memory deficit due to previous cerebral infarction?
Q7) What is/are the diagnosis code(s) for acute and chronic respiratory failure?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Introduction to Icd-10-PCS
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127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ICD-10-PCS codes?
A)Codes are alphanumeric
B)Codes are seven characters.
C)Codes are expandable.
D)Codes are three to four digits.
Q2) Taking or letting out fluids and/or gases from a body part is called ____.
A)extirpation
B)fragmentation
C)extraction
D)drainage
Q3) Alphabetic Index entry for resection of the adrenal glands (bilateral)
Q4) The resection of tonsils is coded to an open approach.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The parietal bone is in what body system?
Q6) ICD-10-PCS is expandable with an unlimited number of codes.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Right inguinal herniorrhaphy with synthetic mesh, open
Q8) Open partial nephrectomy, left
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Chapter 7: General Coding Guidelines for Other Medicaland
Surgical-Related Procedures and Ancillary Procedures
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109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bone marrow transplant is coded to the root operation, transplant. A)True
B)False
Q2) EEG monitoring, external
Q3) A bone marrow transplant is coded in the administration section. A)True
B)False
Q4) Low cervical cesarean section would be identified by the fifth character, approach. A)True
B)False
Q5) Monitoring is defined as determining the level of physiological or physical function repetitively over a period of time.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Hemodialysis, multiple sessions
Q7) CT bilateral lungs using low osmolar contrast
B)False Page 9
Q8) Radionuclide is the second character in the nuclear medicine section. A)True
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Coding Medical and Surgical Procedures
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonexcisional debridement of skin-right foot ulcer
Q2) ____________________ is the removal of tissue for pathologic exam to establish a precise diagnosis.
Q3) Which of these is a true characteristic of significant procedures?
A)Surgical in nature
B)Carry a procedural risk
C)Carry an anesthetic risk
D)Require specialized training
E)All of the above
Q4) If a surgical procedure starts out as a laparoscopic approach, it may never be converted to an open procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When a patient shows up to have a procedure performed but the procedure is canceled for whatever reason, the principal diagnosis would be
Q6) Percutaneous repositioning of dislocated atrial pacemaker lead
Q7) Transurethral endoscopic laser ablation of prostate
Q8) Therapeutic paracentesis of peritoneal cavity, percutaneous
Q9) Removal of drainage device from right pleural cavity, external approach Page 11
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Chapter 9: Symptoms, Signs, and Abnormal Clinical and Laboratory
Findings Not Elsewhere Classified, and Z Codes
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient was admitted for prophylactic breast removal. The patient has a strong family history of breast cancer, and the patient has severe fibrocystic disease in both breasts, making breast exam difficult. The patient was taken to the OR, and a bilateral simple mastectomy was performed. The patient recovered with no problems. The pathology report showed no evidence of malignancy.Final Diagnosis: Family history of breast cancer; severe fibrocystic disease Procedure: Bilateral simple mastectomy
A)Z40.8, N60.11, N60.12, 0HTV0ZZ
B)Z40.01, Z80.3, N60.11, N60.12, 0HTV0ZZ
C)Z40.01, Z80.3, N60.19, 0HTT0ZZ, 0HTU0ZZ
D)N60.11, N60.12, Z40.01, 0HTT0ZZ, 0HTU0ZZ
Q2) A(n) ________________ is subjective evidence of a disease or of a patient's condition as perceived by the patient.
Q3) Urinary hesitancy due to enlarged prostate: __________
Q4) A Z code for long-term use of antibiotics should not be assigned when antibiotics are taken for a short period of time for an acute illness.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What does BMI stand for?
Page 13
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Chapter 10: Certain Infectious and Parasitic Diseases
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64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient was admitted with septic shock. Blood cultures were positive for coagulase-negative staphylococcus (CONS). Patient was also treated for pneumonia. BAL was performed (right middle lobe bronchus). Physician documents sepsis due to coagulase-negative staphylococcus with septic shock and CONS pneumonia.
A)A41.02, R65.11, J15.4, 3E0F7KZ
B)R65.20, A41.1, J18.9, 3E0F8KZ
C)A41.2, R65.21, J15.29, 0B958ZZ
D)A41.1, R65.21, J15.29, 0B958ZX
Q2) SIRS due to infection
A)SIRS
B)Bacteremia
C)Septicemia
D)Gonorrhea
E)Septic shock
F)Sepsis
Q3) Of the following medications, which is NOT an antifungal medication?
A)Nizoral
B)Grisactin
C)Lotrimin
D)Zovirax
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Chapter 11: Neoplasms
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42584
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was admitted with an intestinal obstruction due to peritoneal metastasis from inoperable rectosigmoid cancer.
A)C78.6, C19
B)K56.69, C19, C78.6
C)C78.6, K56.60
D)C19, C78.6
Q2) A patient was admitted for prophylactic removal of ovaries due to genetic susceptibility and positive family history of ovarian cancer with laparoscopic removal of both ovaries.
A)Z40.02, Z80.41, Z15.02, 0UT04ZZ, 0UT14ZZ
B)Z15.02, Z80.41, Z40.02, 0UT20ZZ
C)Z40.09, Z80.41, Z15.02, 0UT24ZZ
D)Z40.02, Z80.41, Z15.02, 0UT24ZZ
Q3) ____ carcinoma is primary neoplasm of the liver.
A)Squamous cell
B)Bronchogenic
C)Hepatocellular
D)Invasive ductal
Q4) Gastrointestinal stromal tumor of the duodenum, malignant
Q5) Cancer of the lymphatic system is called ____________________.
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Chapter 12: Diseases of the Blood and Blood-Forming
Organs and Certain Disorders Involving the Immune
Mechanism
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen to body tissues
A)Apheresis
B)Blood
C)Autologous transfusion
D)5000 to 10,000/mm3
E)Hemoglobin (HGB)
F)Purpura
G)Idiopathic
H)Hematocrit (Hct)
I)Bone marrow biopsy
J)WBCs
K)Secondary thrombocytopenia
Q2) A patient has pancytopenia due to oral methotrexate, which is taken for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, initial encounter.
A)D61.811, T45.1x5A, M06.9
B)T45.1x5A, D61.810, M06.9
C)D61.810, T45.1x5S, M06.9
D)T45.1x5S, D61.811, M06.89
Q3) What is the function of leukocytes (WBCs)?
Q4) Scorbutic anemia: __________ Page 16
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Page 17
Chapter 13: Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42586
Sample Questions
Q1) Dietary surveillance and counseling
A)Z79.890
B)Z90.411
C)Z83.49
D)Z86.39
E)Z71.3
Q2) Acquired absence of pancreas, partial
A)Z79.890
B)Z90.411
C)Z83.49
D)Z86.39
E)Z71.3
Q3) What is exophthalmos?
Q4) Hypothyroidism is an abnormality of the thyroid gland in which secretion of thyroid hormone is usually increased.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a gland becomes larger, it is called ____________________, and if it becomes smaller, it is called ____________________.
Q6) Familial hypercholesterolemia: __________
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Chapter 14: Mental, Behavioral, and Neurodevelopmental Disorders
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42587
Sample Questions
Q1) Active Heller syndrome: __________
Q2) In ICD-10-CM, mild alcohol use disorder codes to alcohol abuse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Problems that can be due to organic, medical, or psychological dysfunction that affect sexual function
A)Sexual problems
B)PTSD-posttraumatic stress disorder
C)Phobias
D)Panic disorder
E)Generalized anxiety disorder
F)Mood disorders
G)Schizophrenia
Q4) ADHD, combined type: __________
Q5) Cirrhosis of liver due to alcohol dependence in remission: __________
Q6) A patient is brought to the ER and is found to be intoxicated. The patient is homeless and is being treated for schizophrenia, alcohol dependence, and intermittent heroin abuse. The patient is also HIV positive and has hepatitis C. All testresults were normal, and the patient was discharged the next day.Discharge Diagnosis: Alcohol intoxication
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Chapter 15: Diseases of the Nervous System, Diseases of
the Eye and Adnexa, and Diseases of the Ear and Mastoid Process
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bilateral retrolental fibroplasia: __________
Q2) The purpose of the spinal cord is to conduct ____________________ and spinal reflexes.
Q3) Bacterial meningitis is ____.
A)not treated
B)treated with antibiotics
C)treated with high doses of vitamins
D)treated with chlorhexidine
Q4) A patient with trigeminal neuralgia and a history of migraine headaches is admitted for an open rhizotomy. A day after the procedure, the patient develops a severe headache diagnosed as a migraine.
A)G50.0, G43.901, 008M3ZZ
B)G50.0, G43.909, 008K0ZZ
C)G50.0, G43.901, 008K0ZZ
D)G50.0, G43.909, 008K4ZZ
Q5) The spinal cord is located in the ____________________ foramen.
Q6) Romberg syndrome: __________
Q7) Arcus senilis of the left eye: __________ Page 20
Q9) Amaurosis: __________
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Chapter 16: Diseases of the Circulatory System
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42589
Sample Questions
Q1) A stroke that lasts only a few minutes
A)Transient ischemic attack
B)Atherosclerosis
C)Aneurysm
D)Pericarditis
E)Endocarditis
F)Cardiomyopathy
G)Conduction disorder
H)Diagnostic cardiac catheterization
Q2) Patient is admitted with chest pain and rules in for an anterolateral STEMI. There is a family history of CAD.
A)I21.3, Z82.41
B)I22.9, Z82.41
C)I21.09, Z82.49
D)I21.11, Z82.49
Q3) What is the function of blood vessels?
Q4) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a blood clot that forms deep in a vein, usually in the leg or hip.
A)True
B)False
22
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Chapter 17: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42590
Sample Questions
Q1) Family history of asthma
A)Z82.5
B)Z83.6
C)Z87.891
D)Z85.22
E)Z48.24
F)Z77.090
G)Z93.0
Q2) A patient is admitted from a nursing home with cough and fever. The patient has a history of dysphagia and hemiparesis of right dominant side due to previous stroke. Sputum cultures reveal Pseudomonas. Patient went into acute respiratory failure after admission.Discharge Diagnosis: Pseudomonas pneumonia
A)J96.01, J15.0, I69.391, I69.359
B)J96.00, J15.1, I69.391, R13.10, I69.351
C)J15.1, J96.00, I69.391, R13.10, I69.351
D)J15.1, J96.01, I69.391, I69.359
Q3) The ____________________system's primary function is to supply the body with oxygen.
Q4) Laryngeal spasm: __________
Q5) Acute bronchiolitis due to RSV: __________
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Chapter 18: Diseases of the Digestive System
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42591
Sample Questions
Q1) ____ means vomiting of blood.
A)Hematuria
B)Hematochezia
C)Hematemesis
D)None of the above
Q2) The squeezing or movement of food toward the stomach and down the digestive tract is called ____.
A)mastication
B)peristalsis
C)thrombosis
D)perforation
Q3) ____ is the abnormal condition of stones in the gallbladder.
A)Cholecystitis
B)Choledocholithiasis
C)Cholelithiasis
D)Appendicitis
Q4) Mallory-Weiss tear is a name for a(n) ____________________ laceration of the esophagogastric junction, usually after severe vomiting.
Q5) What is an ulcer (such as of the stomach or intestine)?
Q6) Recurrent gangrenous inguinal hernia: __________
Page 24
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous System
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another name for furuncle is a(n) ____________________.
Q2) When dermatitis is caused by contact with a substance, it is called ____ dermatitis.
A)exogenous
B)endogenous
C)mesogenous
D)outer contact
Q3) The outer layer of skin is called the ____________________.
Q4) Hutchinson cheiropompholyx: __________
Q5) The organism responsible for a furuncle is Staphylococcus, which enters the body through ____________________.
Q6) The functions of the integumentary system include all of the following EXCEPT ____. A)protection
B)temperature regulation
C)sensory reception
D)vitamin A synthesis
Q7) The skin is composed of ____________________ layers.
Q8) What usually causes hives?
Q9) Exfoliative dermatitis: __________
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System and Connective Tissue
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pediatric patient was admitted with a pathologic fracture of the proximal right humerus. Radiographic evidence suggests that the fracture was caused by a unicameral bone cyst (solitary). An orthopedic consult was obtained to see whether this should be treated surgically. It was decided to treat conservatively and monitor healing with serial X-rays.Final Diagnosis: Unicameral bone cyst proximal right humerus with pathologic fracture
A)M84.621A, M85.421
B)M84.622A
C)M85.422, M84.621A
D)M84.621D, M85.421
Q2) Lower limb amputation status-below left knee
A)Z87.39
B)Z82.61
C)Z82.69
D)Z96.641
E)Z89.512
F)Z13.828
G)Z13.820
Q3) Kaschin-Beck disease, right ankle: __________
Q4) Tenosynovitis in the right shoulder: __________
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Genitourinary System
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vesicoureteral reflux with nephropathy of the right kidney: __________
Q2) Mittelschmerz: __________
Q3) A patient is admitted to the hospital for fluid overload due to noncompliance with attending renal dialysis sessions. Patient has stage 5 CKD. Multiple sessions of hemodialysis are performed.
A)E87.70, N18.6, Z91.15, 5A1D60Z
B)E87.70, N18.6, Z91.15, 5A1D00Z
C)N18.6, E87.79, Z99.2, 5A1D00Z
D)E87.79, N18.5, Z99.2, 5A1D60Z
Q4) ICD-10-CM classifies chronic kidney disease based on severity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) GN stands for ____________________.
Q6) Postmenopausal atrophic vaginitis: __________
Q7) Stress incontinence is the involuntary loss of small amounts of ____________________ due to increased pressure from coughing, sneezing, or laughing.
Q8) Male patient with intrinsic sphincter deficiency with urinary stress incontinence with insertion of artificial bladder neck sphincter via open approach: __________
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Chapter 22: Pregnancy, Childbirth, and the Puerperium
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56 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is admitted at 20 weeks' gestation for insertion of laminaria for termination of pregnancy. She delivers a liveborn fetus.
A)O60.120, Z3A.22,10A07ZW
B)Z33.2, Z3A.22,10E0XZZ
C)O60.12x0, Z3A.22, Z37.0,10A07ZW
D)Z33.2, Z3A.22, Z37.0,10A07ZW
Q2) Ectopic pregnancies occur in 1 in ____ pregnancies.
A)10
B)25
C)50
D)100
Q3) Which of the following codes are correct when a normal pregnancy is coded?
A)O80 Normal delivery
B)Z37.0 Single liveborn
C)10E0XZZ Manually assisted delivery
D)All of the above
Q4) A pregnancy in which the egg is implanted outside the cavity of the uterus is an __________ pregnancy.
Q5) The process of milk production is ______________________.
Q6) Gestational edema, second trimester antepartum (25 weeks'gestation):
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Chapter
Period and Congenital Malformations, Deformations, and
Chromosomal Abnormalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Congenital pigeon chest: __________
Q2) ____________________ involves problems of the mouth and oral cavity. It may require several reconstructive surgeries after the baby is at least 10 weeks old and weighs at least 10 lb.
Q3) What does AGA stand for?
Q4) Occurs in the fifth week of fetal development and is characterized by a small pouch on the wall of the small bowel containing ectopic tissue
A)Klinefelter syndrome
B)Spina bifida
C)Meckel diverticulum
D)Marfan syndrome
E)Tetralogy of Fallot
F)Down syndrome
Q5) Prematurity is based on recorded birth weight and gestational age and documentation of prematurity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Imperforate hymen: __________ Page 29
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Chapter 24: Injuries and Certain Other Consequences of
External Cases and External Causes of Morbidity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are external cause codes? ____________________
Q2) Sprained left ankle, initial encounter: __________
Q3) Which of the following would NOT be an upper limb fracture?
A)A fracture to the shoulder
B)A fracture to the femur
C)A fracture to the clavicle
D)A fracture to the upper humerus
Q4) The patient is a 2-year-old child who was admitted after falling down four steps and hitting his head on concrete. The accident occurred at the patient's house. There was about 5 minutes' LOC with continued lethargy per paramedics. CT of the head and neck revealed no abnormality. The patient is on oral antibiotics for pneumonia and AOM, and these were continued during the hospital stay. He will follow up with pediatrician.Final
Diagnosis: Closed head injury due to fall
A)S06.9x0A, J18.9, H66.90, W10.9xxA, Y92.019
B)S06.9x1D, J18.9, H66.90, W10.9xxD, Y92.019
C)S06.9x1A, J18.9, H66.90, W10.9xxA, Y92.019
D)S06.9x1A, J18.8, H66.90, W10.9xxA
Q5) A(n) ____________________ is a partial or completed dislocation.
Q6) What does TBI stand for?
Q7) Open-fracture fifth metatarsal on the right, initial encounter: __________ Page 31
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Chapter 25: Burns, Adverse Effects, and Poisonings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient was admitted with second-degree burns of the left hand and first-degree burns of the left forearm. The patient touched a hot steam pipe.
A)T23.202A, T22.111A, X16.xxxA
B)T23.202A, T22.112A, X16.xxxA
C)T23.202D, T22.112D, X16.xxxD
D)T22.112A, T23.202A, X16.xxxA
Q2) The patient was admitted with acute renal failure. The patient had been treated by Home Health with IV gentamicin for Pseudomonas pneumonia. The patient was experiencing some edema and decreased urine output. Blood was drawn, and the physician admitted the patient for IV fluids and investigation of the patient's renal status. Gentamicin was stopped, and another antibiotic was started. The patient's renal function returned to normal.Final Diagnosis: Acute renal failure due to gentamicin Recent pneumonia, still on antibiotic
A)N17.9, T36.5x5D, J15.0,
B)T36.5x3A, N17.9, J15.1,
C)N17.9, T36.5x5A, J15.1
D)T36.5x4A, N18.9, J15.3
Q3) Active treatment of nonhealing second-degree burn to right forearm due to hot iron while ironing (accidental): __________
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Page 33
Chapter 26: Complications of Surgical and Medical Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42599
Sample Questions
Q1) Rejection of heart transplant confirmed by right percutaneous ventricular biopsy:
Q2) A tightening of muscle and skin that prevents normal movement
A)Malunion
B)Nonunion
C)Neuroma
D)Extravasation
E)Contracture
F)Necrosis
Q3) Mechanical complication of gastrostomy: __________
Q4) A growth made up of a bundle of nerve fibers
A)Malunion
B)Nonunion
C)Neuroma
D)Extravasation
E)Contracture
F)Necrosis
Q5) Code only complications that occur within 2 weeks of a transplant surgery.
A)True
B)False
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