Advanced Maternity and Women's Health Nursing Exam Preparation Guide - 812 Verified Questions

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Advanced Maternity and Women's Health Nursing

Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

This course provides an in-depth exploration of advanced concepts and practices in maternity and women's health nursing. It emphasizes the physiological, psychological, and sociocultural aspects of reproductive health throughout the lifespan, including fertility, pregnancy, childbirth, postpartum care, and common gynecological issues. The curriculum covers advanced assessment, clinical decision-making, evidence-based interventions, and interprofessional collaboration to address complex needs of women in diverse healthcare settings. Special focus is given to high-risk pregnancies, fetal assessment, family-centered care, and current trends in womens health, preparing students to deliver holistic, patient-centered care with cultural competence and professional advocacy.

Recommended Textbook

Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray

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27 Chapters

812 Verified Questions

812 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/168

Page 2

Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Many communities now offer the availability of free-standing birth centers to provide care for low-risk women during pregnancy, birth, and postpartum. When counseling the newly pregnant patient regarding this option, the nurse should be aware that this type of care setting includes which advantages? (Select all that apply.)

A) Staffing by lay midwives

B) Equipped for obstetric emergencies

C) Less expensive than acute care hospitals

D) Safe, homelike births in a familiar setting

E) Access to follow-up care for 6 weeks postpartum

Answer: C, D, E

Q2) Which response by the nurse is the most therapeutic when the patient states, "I'm so afraid to have a cesarean birth"?

A) "Everything will be OK."

B) "Don't worry about it. It will be over soon."

C) "What concerns you most about a cesarean birth?"

D) "The physician will be in later and you can talk to him."

Answer: C

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues

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32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) With regard to an obstetric litigation case, a nurse working in labor and birth is found to be negligent. Which intervention performed by the nurse indicates that a breach of duty has occurred?

A) The nurse did not document fetal heart tones (FHR) during the second stage of labor.

B) The patient was only provided ice chips during the labor period, which lasted 8 hours.

C) The nurse allowed the patient to use the bathroom rather than a bedpan during the first stage of labor.

D) The nurse asked family members to leave the room when she prepared to do a pelvic exam on the patient.

Answer: A

Q2) At the present time, which agency governs surrogate parenting?

A) State law

B) Federal law

C) Individual court decision

D) Protective child services

Answer: C

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4

Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Delayed onset of menstruation or primary amenorrhea is considered if the girl's periods have not begun by which age in years? Record your answer in a whole number.

Answer: 16

Delayed onset of menstruation is called primary amenorrhea if the girl's periods have not begun within 2 years after the onset of breast development or by age 16, or if the girl is more than 1 year older than her mother or sisters were when their menarche occurred.

Q2) The middle school nurse is reviewing the phases of the endometrial cycle with a group of female students. Which statement by a student will the nurse need to correct?

A) "The proliferative phase occurs when the ovum is maturing."

B) "The expulsion phase occurs when the ovum is discharged from the ovary."

C) "The secretory phase occurs during the second half of the menstrual cycle."

D) "The menstrual phase occurs after the levels of estrogen and progesterone fall."

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 35-year-old patient has an amniocentesis performed to identify whether her baby has a chromosomal defect. Which statement indicates that the patient understands the situation?

A) "The doctor will tell me if I should have an abortion when the test results come back."

B) "When all the lab results come back, my husband and I will make a decision about the pregnancy."

C) "My mother must not find out about all this testing. If she does, she will think I'm having an abortion."

D) "I know there are support groups for parents who have a baby with birth defects, but we have plenty of insurance to cover what we need."

Q2) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%

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Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement best describes the changes that occur during the fetal period of development?

A) Maturation of organ systems

B) Development of basic organ systems

C) Resistance of organs to damage from external agents

D) Development of placental oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange

Q2) Some of the embryo's intestines remain within the umbilical cord during the embryonic period because the

A) intestines need this time to grow until week 15.

B) nutrient content of the blood is higher in this location.

C) abdomen is too small to contain all the organs while they are developing.

D) umbilical cord is much larger at this time than it will be at the end of pregnancy.

Q3) The nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after birth. After assigning the first Apgar score of 9, the nurse notes two vessels in the umbilical cord. What is the nurse's next action?

A) Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.

B) Note the assessment finding in the infant's chart.

C) Notify the health care provider of the assessment finding.

D) Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to attend the infant immediately.

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy

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32 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which comment made by a new mother to her own mother is most likely to encourage the grandmother's participation in the infant's care?

A) "Could you help me with the housework today?"

B) "The baby is spitting up a lot. What should I do?"

C) "I know you are busy, so I'll get John's mother to help me."

D) "The baby has a stomachache. I'll call the nurse to find out what to do."

Q2) Physiologic anemia often occurs during pregnancy due to A) inadequate intake of iron.

B) the fetus establishing iron stores.

C) dilution of hemoglobin concentration.

D) decreased production of erythrocytes.

Q3) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number. ______ times

Q4) Which physiologic finding is consistent with normal pregnancy?

A) Systemic vascular resistance increases as blood pressure decreases.

B) Cardiac output increases during pregnancy.

C) Blood pressure remains consistent independent of position changes.

D) Maternal vasoconstriction occurs in response to increased metabolism.

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Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which suggestion is most helpful for the pregnant patient who is experiencing heartburn?

A) Drink plenty of fluids at bedtime.

B) Eat only three meals a day so the stomach is empty between meals.

C) Drink coffee or orange juice immediately on arising in the morning.

D) Use Tums or Rolaids to obtain relief, as directed by the health care provider.

Q2) Which laboratory result would be a cause for concern if exhibited by a patient at her first prenatal visit during the second month of her pregnancy?

A) Rubella titer, 1:6

B) Platelets, 300,000/mm3

C) White blood cell count, 6000/mm3

D) Hematocrit 38%, hemoglobin 13 g/dL

Q3) When documenting a patient encounter, which term will the nurse use to describe the woman who is in the 28th week of her first pregnancy?

A) Multigravida

B) Multipara

C) Nullipara

D) Primigravida

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9

Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient taking prenatal vitamins how to avoid constipation. Which should the nurse plan to include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)

A) Advise taking a daily laxative for constipation.

B) Recommend a diet high in fruits and vegetables.

C) Encourage an increase in fluid consumption during the day.

D) Increase the intake of whole grains and whole grain products.

E) Suggest increasing the intake of dairy products, especially cheeses.

Q2) Which effect is a common response to both smoking and cocaine use in the pregnant patient?

A) Vasoconstriction

B) Increased appetite

C) Increased metabolism

D) Changes in insulin metabolism

Q3) Changes in the diet of the pregnant patient who has phenylketonuria would include A) adding foods high in vitamin C.

B) eliminating drinks containing aspartame.

C) restricting protein intake to <20 g a day.

D) increasing caloric intake to at least 1800 cal/day.

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Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the purpose of initiating contractions in a contraction stress test (CST)?

A) Increase placental blood flow.

B) Identify fetal acceleration patterns.

C) Determine the degree of fetal activity.

D) Apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus.

Q2) Which aspect of fetal diagnostic testing is most important to expectant parents?

A) Safety of the fetus

B) Duration of the test

C) Cost of the procedure

D) Physical discomfort caused by the procedure

Q3) The nurse is reviewing the procedure for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening with a patient at 16 weeks' gestation. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching when she states that will be collected for the initial screening process?

A) Urine

B) Blood

C) Saliva

D) Amniotic fluid

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Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with no prenatal care delivers a healthy male infant via the vaginal route, with minimal blood loss. During the labor period, vital signs were normal. At birth, significant maternal hypertension is noted. When the patient is questioned, she relates that there is history of heart disease in her family; but, that she has never been treated for hypertension. Blood pressure is treated in the hospital setting and the patient is discharged. The patient returns at her scheduled 6-week checkup and is found to be hypertensive. Which type of hypertension is the patient is exhibiting?

A) Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)

B) Gestational hypertension

C) Preeclampsia superimposed on chronic hypertension

D) Undiagnosed chronic hypertension

Q2) Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the

A) direct Coombs test of twin A.

B) direct Coombs test of twin B.

C) indirect Coombs test of the mother.

D) transcutaneous bilirubin level for both twins.

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Page 12

Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs

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20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) In planning sex education classes for the middle school age group, more emphasis should be placed on

A) how to set limits for sexual behavior.

B) the inaccuracy of information from peers.

C) the use of oral contraceptives to prevent unwanted pregnancy.

D) the use of condoms to prevent sexually transmitted diseases as well as pregnancy.

Q2) Which health concern is most likely to be an issue for the older mother?

A) Nutrition and diet planning

B) Exercise and fitness

C) Having enough rest and sleep

D) Effective contraceptive methods

Q3) A patient has delivered twins. The first twin was stillborn, and the second is in the intensive care nursery, recovering quickly from respiratory distress. The patient is crying softly and says, "I wish my baby could have lived." What is the most therapeutic response?

A) "How soon do you plan to have another baby?"

B) "Don't be sad. At least you have one healthy baby."

C) "I have a friend who lost a twin and she's doing just fine now."

D) "I am so sorry about your loss. Would you like to talk about it?"

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Processes of Birth

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which physiologic event is the key indicator of the commencement of true labor?

A) Bloody show

B) Cervical dilation and effacement

C) Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet

D) Uterine contractions every 7 minutes

Q2) Which mechanism of labor occurs when the largest diameter of the fetal presenting part passes the pelvic inlet?

A) Extension

B) Engagement

C) Internal rotation

D) External rotation

Q3) The clinical nurse educator is providing instruction to a group of new nurses during labor orientation. Which information regarding the factors that have a role in the initiation of labor should the educator include in this teaching session? (Select all that apply.)

A) Progesterone levels become higher than estrogen levels.

B) Natural oxytocin in conjunction with other substances plays a role.

C) Stretching, pressure, and irritation of the uterus and cervix increase.

D) The secretion of prostaglandins from the fetal membranes decreases.

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient presents to the labor and birth area for emergent birth. Vaginal exam reveals that the patient is fully dilated, vertex, +2 station, with ruptured membranes. The patient is extremely apprehensive because this is her first childbirth experience and asks for an epidural to be administered now. What is the priority nursing response based on this patient assessment?

A) Use contact anesthesia for an epidural and prepare the patient per protocol.

B) Tell the patient that she will not need any pain medication because the birth will be over in a matter of minutes and the pain will stop.

C) Assist the patient with nonpharmacologic methods of pain distraction during this time as you prepare for vaginal birth.

D) Call the physician for admitting orders.

Q2) A patient in active labor requests an epidural for pain management. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention at this juncture?

A) Assess the fetal heart rate pattern over the next 30 minutes.

B) Take the patient's blood pressure every 5 minutes for 15 minutes.

C) Determine the patient's contraction pattern for the next 30 minutes.

D) Initiate an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's solution at 2000 mL/hour over 30 minutes.

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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse documents that the fetal heart rate variability is marked. This indicates that the range is greater than how many beats per minute? Record your answer as a whole number. _____ bpm

Q2) Proper placement of the tocotransducer for electronic fetal monitoring is

A) Inside the uterus.

B) On the fetal scalp.

C) Over the uterine fundus.

D) Over the mother's lower abdomen.

Q3) Which maternal condition should be considered a contraindication for the application of internal monitoring devices?

A) Unruptured membranes

B) Cervix dilated to 4 cm

C) Fetus has known heart defect

D) Maternal HIV

Q4) Which nursing action is correct when initiating electronic fetal monitoring?

A) Lubricate the tocotransducer with an ultrasound gel.

B) Securely apply the tocotransducer with a strap or belt.

C) Inform the patient that she should remain in the semi-Fowler position.

D) Determine the position of the fetus before attaching the electrode to the maternal abdomen.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth

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50 Verified Questions

50 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A maternal indication for the use of vacuum extraction is

A) a wide pelvic outlet.

B) maternal exhaustion.

C) a history of rapid deliveries.

D) failure to progress past 0 station.

Q2) Following an external cephalic version, which assessment finding indicates a complication?

A) Onset of irregular contractions

B) Maternal blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg

C) Deceleration of FHR to 88 bpm

D) Maternal pulse rate of 100 bpm

Q3) Which clinical finding would be an indication to the nurse that the fetus may be compromised?

A) Active fetal movements

B) Fetal heart rate in the 140s

C) Contractions lasting 90 seconds

D) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid

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Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has had two previous cesarean births is in active labor when she suddenly complains of pain between her scapulae. Which should be the nurse's priority action?

A) Notify the health care provider promptly.

B) Observe for abnormally high uterine resting tone.

C) Decrease the rate of nonadditive intravenous fluid.

D) Reposition the patient with her hips slightly elevated.

Q2) Which factor is most likely to result in fetal hypoxia during a dysfunctional labor?

A) Incomplete uterine relaxation

B) Maternal fatigue and exhaustion

C) Maternal sedation with narcotics

D) Administration of tocolytic drugs

Q3) After a birth complicated by a shoulder dystocia, the infant's Apgar scores were 7 at 1 minute and 9 at 5 minutes. The infant is now crying vigorously. The nurse in the birthing room should

A) palpate the infant's clavicles.

B) encourage the parents to hold the infant.

C) perform a complete newborn assessment.

D) give supplemental oxygen with a small face mask.

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which action should the nurse take in order to provide support and encouragement to the new postpartum patient?

A) Recount how she solved her own problems.

B) Correct the new mother at every opportunity.

C) Praise the mother's early attempts at infant care.

D) Explain to the new mother that everything will be fine.

Q2) The nurse is caring for a postpartum patient who delivered by the vaginal route 12 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the health care provider?

A) Pulse rate of 50

B) Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F)

C) Firm fundus, but excessive lochia

D) Lightheaded when moving from a lying to standing position

Q3) Postpartal overdistention of the bladder and urinary retention can lead to which complication?

A) Fever and increased blood pressure

B) Postpartum hemorrhage and eclampsia

C) Urinary tract infection and uterine rupture

D) Postpartum hemorrhage and urinary tract infection

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postpartum patient would be at increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage if she delivered a(n)

A) 5-lb, 2-oz infant with outlet forceps.

B) 6.5-lb infant after a 2-hour labor.

C) 7-lb infant after an 8-hour labor.

D) 8-lb infant after a 12-hour labor.

Q2) A postpartum patient has developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and treatment with warfarin (Coumadin) has been initiated. Which dietary selection should be modified in view of this treatment regimen?

A) Fresh fruits

B) Milk

C) Lentils

D) Soda

Q3) Which statement by a postpartum patient indicates that further teaching regarding thrombus formation is unnecessary?

A) "I'll keep my legs elevated with pillows."

B) "I'll sit in my rocking chair most of the time."

C) "I'll stay in bed for the first 3 days after my baby is born."

D) "I'll put my support stockings on every morning before rising."

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a vitamin K injection to the infant shortly after birth. Which statement is important to understand regarding the properties of vitamin K?

A) It is necessary for the production of platelets.

B) It is important for the production of red blood cells.

C) It is not initially synthesized because of a sterile bowel at birth.

D) It is responsible for the breakdown of bilirubin and the prevention of jaundice.

Q2) An infant at 39 weeks' gestation was just delivered; included in the protocol for a term infant is an initial blood glucose assessment. The nurse obtains the blood sample and the reading is 58 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action based upon this reading?

A) Document the finding in the newborn's chart.

B) Double-wrap the newborn under a warming unit.

C) Feed the newborn a 10% dextrose solution.

D) Notify the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) of the pending admission.

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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is performing the initial assessment of a newborn and notes retractions, nasal flaring, and tachypnea. The nurse will continue to perform a focused assessment on which system?

A) Respiratory

B) Cardiovascular

C) Gastrointestinal

D) Musculoskeletal

Q2) A new mother states, "My baby is so thin and wrinkled. It looks like he has too much skin." Which is the most therapeutic response by the nurse in response to the patient's statement?

A) "You sound disappointed about how your infant looks."

B) "All mothers are concerned about how their babies look."

C) "Don't worry. In no time he'll fill out his skin and look just fine."

D) "You know, all the cigarettes you smoked interfered with the nourishment he needed."

Q3) Infants who develop cephalohematoma are at an increased risk for

A) infection.

B) jaundice.

C) caput succedaneum.

D) erythema toxicum.

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn

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Sample Questions

Q1) Administration of medications after birth is the topic of discussion during a prenatal education class. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the pregnant patient understands the primary indication for the administration of vitamin K?

A) "The nurse will draw blood to determine if vitamin K is needed."

B) "Vitamin K prevents the possibility of bleeding problems in my baby."

C) "My baby will receive medication by mouth when the nurse administers the vitamin K."

D) "Vitamin K will be administered shortly after birth, generally within the first hour."

Q2) When an infant's temperature drops from (37 to 36.3°C) 98.7 to 97.4°F, the nurse should

A) instruct parents on the risks of cold stress.

B) determine the time and amount of last feeding.

C) increase the temperature in the mother's room.

D) evaluate infant for the presence of a blood sugar level higher than 50 mg/dL.

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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an important consideration in positioning a newborn for breastfeeding?

A) Placing the infant at nipple level facing the breast

B) Keeping the infant's head slightly lower than the body

C) Using the forefinger and middle finger to support the breast

D) Limiting the amount of areola the infant takes into the mouth

Q2) A breastfeeding mother asks the postpartum nurse if any supplementation is necessary once her breast milk comes in. What is the nurse's most appropriate response?

A) "Are you concerned about your ability to adequately nurse your baby?"

B) "Do you eat a well-balanced diet, high in protein and carbohydrates?"

C) "Breast milk is low in vitamin D and supplementation with 400 IU is recommended."

D) "Your breast milk has all the vitamins and will adequately meet your baby's needs."

Q3) In which condition is breastfeeding contraindicated?

A) Triplet birth

B) Flat or inverted nipples

C) Human immunodeficiency virus infection

D) Inactive, previously treated tuberculosis

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24

Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement regarding newborns classified as small for gestational age (SGA) is accurate?

A) They weigh less than 2500 G

B) They are born before 38 weeks of gestation.

C) They are below the tenth percentile on gestational growth charts.

D) Placental malfunction is the only recognized cause of this condition.

Q2) Which nursing action is especially important for an SGA newborn?

A) Promote bonding.

B) Observe for and prevent dehydration.

C) Observe for respiratory distress syndrome.

D) Prevent hypoglycemia with early and frequent feedings.

Q3) Following the vaginal birth of a macrosomic infant, the nurse should evaluate the infant for

A) hyperglycemia.

B) clavicle fractures.

C) hyperthermia.

D) an increase in red blood cells.

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Page 25

Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Shortly after a cesarean birth, a newborn begins to exhibit difficulty breathing. Nasal flaring and slight retractions are noted. The newborn is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) for closer observation, with a diagnosis of transient tachypnea of the neonate (TTN). The parents are notified and become anxious because they have no understanding of what this means for their infant. The best action that the nurse can take at this time is to

A) refer them to the neonatologist for more information.

B) reassure them not to worry. The infant will be monitored closely by trained staff.

C) explain to them that this often occurs following a birth and it will most likely resolve in the next 24 to 48 hours.

D) tell them that they will be able to come and see their baby, which will help make calm their anxiety.

Q2) Which diagnostic test is used to help confirmation of hyperbilirubinemia in an infant?

A) Direct Coombs test based on maternal blood sample

B) Indirect Coombs test based on infant cord blood sample

C) Infant bilirubin level

D) Maternal blood type

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Chapter 25: Family Planning

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are teaching a group of adolescents regarding myths and facts related to contraception. Which statement indicates that additional teaching is needed for this group?

A) Adolescents are more likely to become pregnant even if they use available contraception methods correctly.

B) The withdrawal technique provides a higher likelihood that a teen will not get pregnant.

C) Pregnancy can occur in the presence or absence of orgasm.

D) Pregnancy can occur even if a teen is menstruating at the time of coitus.

Q2) Which of the following is a potential disadvantage for the patient who wishes to use an intrauterine device (IUD) as a method of birth control?

A) Insertion of the device prior to coitus resulting in decreased spontaneity

B) Ectopic pregnancy

C) Protection against STDs

D) Decrease in dysmenorrhea

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Chapter 26: Infertility

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which adverse reactions are associated with the administration of clomiphene citrate (Clomid)? (Select all that apply.)

A) Abdominal bloating

B) Diarrhea

C) Oliguria

D) Nausea and vomiting

E) Abnormal uterine bleeding

Q2) Which factors would contribute to abnormalities of the fallopian tube associated with the development of infertility? (Select all that apply.)

A) History of conization of the cervix

B) History of pelvic surgical procedures

C) Incompetent cervix

D) Past treatments of STD with follow-up test of cure

E) Endometriosis

Q3) Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?

A) Never conceived.

B) Had repeated spontaneous abortions.

C) Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.

D) Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 28

Chapter 27: Womens Health

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2175

Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement regarding primary dysmenorrhea is most accurate?

A) Primary dysmenorrhea is experienced by all women.

B) It is unaffected by oral contraceptives.

C) It occurs in young multiparous women.

D) It may be caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin.

Q2) A patient, age 49, confides in the nurse that she has started experiencing pain with intercourse. The patient asks, "Is there anything I can do about this?" The nurse's best response is

A) "No, it is part of the aging process."

B) "Water-soluble vaginal lubricants may provide relief."

C) "You need to be evaluated for a sexually transmitted disease."

D) "You may have vaginal scar tissue that is producing the discomfort."

Q3) A benign breast condition that includes dilation and inflammation of the collecting ducts is known as

A) fibroadenoma.

B) ductal ectasia.

C) intraductal papilloma.

D) chronic cystic disease.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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