Advanced Maternal and Child Health Nursing
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Maternal and Child Health Nursing focuses on the specialized care of women, infants, and children, addressing complex health needs during the childbearing and child-rearing periods. The course emphasizes evidence-based practices in prenatal, intrapartum, postpartum, neonatal, and pediatric nursing, incorporating current trends and issues affecting maternal and child health. Students will deepen their understanding of physiological, psychological, and sociocultural factors affecting health outcomes, develop critical thinking skills in clinical decision-making, and learn to collaborate effectively with multidisciplinary teams to promote the well-being of mothers, newborns, and families in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook Maternity and Womens Health Care 11th Edition by Lowdermilk
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37 Chapters
1079 Verified Questions
1079 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/961 Page 2
Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity and Womens Health Nursing
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18940
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes maternity nursing care that is based on knowledge gained through research and clinical trials?
A) Maternity nursing care is derived from the Nursing Intervention Classification.
B) Maternity nursing care is known as evidence-based practice.
C) Maternity nursing care is at odds with the Cochrane School of traditional nursing.
D) Maternity nursing care is an outgrowth of telemedicine.
Answer: B
Q2) A 23-year-old African-American woman is pregnant with her first child.Based on the statistics for infant mortality,which plan is most important for the nurse to implement?
A) Perform a nutrition assessment.
B) Refer the woman to a social worker.
C) Advise the woman to see an obstetrician, not a midwife.
D) Explain to the woman the importance of keeping her prenatal care appointments.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Community Care: The Family and Culture
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term is an accurate description of the process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society?
A) Acculturation
B) Assimilation
C) Ethnocentrism
D) Cultural relativism
Answer: A
Q2) Which health care service represents a primary level of prevention?
A) Immunizations
B) Breast self-examination (BSE)
C) Home care for high-risk pregnancies
D) Blood pressure screening
Answer: A
Q3) In what form do families tend to be the most socially vulnerable?
A) Married-blended family
B) Extended family
C) Nuclear family
D) Single-parent family
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Nursing and Genomics
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cancer is now recognized as a genetic disorder that begins with one or more genetic mutations.Which type of cancer is specifically being investigated in this regard?
A) Lung cancer
B) Liver cancer
C) Colorectal cancer
D) Oral cancer
Answer: C
Q2) One of the most promising clinical applications of the Human Genome Project has been pharmacogenomic testing (the use of genetic information to guide a client's drug therapy).Which conditions are potential candidates for pharmacogenomic application?(Select all that apply).
A) Fragile X syndrome
B) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
C) Breast cancer
D) Myocardial infarction
E) Hemophilia
Answer: B,C,D
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Chapter 4: Assessment and Health Promotion
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individual irregularities in the ovarian (menstrual)cycle are most often caused by what?
A) Variations in the follicular (preovulatory) phase
B) Intact hypothalamic-pituitary feedback mechanism
C) Functioning corpus luteum
D) Prolonged ischemic phase
Q2) What is the goal of a long-term treatment plan for an adolescent with an eating disorder?
A) Managing the effects of malnutrition
B) Establishing sufficient caloric intake
C) Improving family dynamics
D) Restructuring client perception of body image
Q3) Which statement indicates that a client requires additional instruction regarding BSE?
A) "Yellow discharge from my nipple is normal if I'm having my period."
B) "I should check my breasts at the same time each month, after my period."
C) "I should also feel in my armpit area while performing my breast examination."
D) "I should check each breast in a set way, such as in a circular motion."
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6
Chapter 5: Violence Against Women
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22 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the 1970s,the rape-trauma syndrome (RTS)was identified as a cluster of symptoms and related behaviors observed in the weeks and months after an episode of rape.Researchers identified three phases related to this condition.Which phase is not displayed in a client with RTS?
A) Acute Phase: Disorganization
B) Outward Adjustment Phase
C) Shock/Disbelief: Disorientation Phase
D) Long-Term Process: Reorganization Phase
Q2) Which statement is the most comprehensive description of sexual violence?
A) Sexual violence is limited to rape.
B) Sexual violence is an act of force during which an unwanted and uncomfortable sexual act occurs.
C) Sexual violence encompasses a number of sexual acts.
D) Sexual violence includes degrading sexual comments and behaviors.
Q3) Which statement is most accurate regarding the reporting of IPV in the United States?
A) Asian women report more IPV than do other minority groups.
B) Caucasian women report less IPV than do non-Caucasians.
C) Native-American women report IPV at a rate similar to other groups.
D) African-American women are less likely to report IPV than Caucasian women.
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Chapter 6: Reproductive System Concerns
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A perimenopausal client has arrived for her annual gynecologic examination.Which preexisting condition would be extremely important for the nurse to identify during a discussion regarding the risks and benefits of hormone therapy?
A) Breast cancer
B) Vaginal and urinary tract atrophy
C) Osteoporosis
D) Arteriosclerosis
Q2) Chaste tree fruit
A)Uterine antispasmodic
B)Uterotonic
C)Antiinflammatory
D)Estrogen-like luteinizing hormone suppressant
E)Decreases prolactin levels
Q3) Which alteration in cyclic bleeding best describes bleeding that occurs at any time other than menses?
A) Oligomenorrhea
B) Menorrhagia
C) Leiomyoma
D) Metrorrhagia
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Sexually Transmitted and Other Infections
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Syphilis is a complex disease that can lead to serious systemic illness and even death if left untreated.Which manifestation differentiates primary syphilis from secondary syphilis?
A) Fever, headache, and malaise
B) Widespread rash
C) Identified by serologic testing
D) Appearance of a chancre 2 months after infection
Q2) A group of infections known collaboratively as TORCH infections are capable of crossing the placenta and causing serious prenatal effects on the fetus.Which infections are included in this group of organisms?
(Select all that apply).
A) Toxoplasmosis
B) Other infections
C) Roseola
D) Clostridium
E) Herpes simplex
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9
Chapter 8: Contraception and Abortion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which client would be an ideal candidate for injectable progestins such as Depo-Provera (DMPA)as a contraceptive choice?
A) The ideal candidate for DMPA wants menstrual regularity and predictability.
B) The client has a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer.
C) The ideal candidate has difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily.
D) The client is homeless or mobile and rarely receives health care.
Q2) An unmarried young woman describes her sex life as "active" and involving "many" partners.She wants a contraceptive method that is reliable and does not interfere with sex.She requests an intrauterine device (IUD).Which information is most important for the nurse to share?
A) "The IUD does not interfere with sex."
B) "The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease will be higher with the IUD."
C) "The IUD will protect you from sexually transmitted infections."
D) "Pregnancy rates are high with the IUD."
Q3) Which contraceptive method best protects against STIs and the HIV?
A) Periodic abstinence
B) Barrier methods
C) Hormonal methods
D) Same protection with all methods
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Significant advances have been made with most reproductive technologies.Which improvement has resulted in increased success related to preimplantation genetic diagnosis?
A) Embryos are transferred at the cleavage stage.
B) Embryos are transferred at the blastocyst stage.
C) More than two embryos can be transferred at a time.
D) Two cells are removed from each embryo.
Q2) A man smokes two packs of cigarettes a day.He wants to know if smoking is contributing to the difficulty he and his wife are having getting pregnant.Which guidance should the nurse provide?
A) "Your sperm count seems to be okay in the first semen analysis."
B) "Only marijuana cigarettes affect sperm count."
C) "Although smoking has no effect on sperm count, it can give you lung cancer."
D) "Smoking can reduce the quality of your sperm."
Q3) Anorexia
A)Ovarian
B)Tubal or peritoneal factors
C)Uterine
D)Vaginal-cervical factors
E)Other factors
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Chapter 10: Problems of the Breast
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most conservative approach for early breast cancer treatment involves lumpectomy followed by which procedure?
A) Radiation
B) Adjuvant systemic therapy
C) Hormonal therapy
D) Chemotherapy
Q2) Chemotherapy with multiple drug agents is used in the treatment of recurrent and advanced breast cancer with positive results.Which side effects would the nurse anticipate for the client once treatment has begun?
(Select all that apply).
A) Hair loss
B) Severe constipation
C) Anemia
D) Leukopenia
E) Thrombocytopenia
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12
Chapter 11: Structural Disorders and Neoplasms of the Reproductive System
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22 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has arrived for her preoperative testing appointment.She is scheduled for a myomectomy the following day.What condition would require the client to undergo this procedure for symptom relief?
A) Numerous small fibroid tumors
B) Bartholin cysts
C) Fibroid tumors near the outer wall of the uterus with a uterine size no larger than at 12 weeks of gestation
D) Leiomyomas (also known as fibroid tumors) in a uterus larger than 14 weeks of gestation
Q2) The nurse should be aware that a pessary is most effective in the treatment of which disorder?
A) Cystocele
B) Uterine prolapse
C) Rectocele
D) Stress urinary incontinence
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Chapter 12: Conception and Fetal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman at 25 weeks of gestation tells the nurse that she dropped a pan last week and her baby jumped at the noise.Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "That must have been a coincidence; babies can't respond like that."
B) "The fetus is demonstrating the aural reflex."
C) "Babies respond to sound starting at approximately 24 weeks of gestation."
D) "Let me know if it happens again; we need to report that to your midwife."
Q2) A woman is 15 weeks pregnant with her first baby.She asks how long it will be before she feels the baby move.What is the nurse's best answer?
A) "You should have felt the baby move by now."
B) "Within the next month, you should start to feel fluttering sensations."
C) "The baby is moving; however, you can't feel it yet."
D) "Some babies are quiet, and you don't feel them move."
Q3) What kind of fetal anomalies are most often associated with oligohydramnios?
A) Renal
B) Cardiac
C) Gastrointestinal
D) Neurologic
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Chapter 13: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A first-time mother at 18 weeks of gestation is in for her regularly scheduled prenatal visit.The client tells the nurse that she is afraid that she is going into premature labor because she is beginning to have regular contractions.The nurse explains that these are Braxton Hicks contractions.What other information is important for the nurse to share?
A) Braxton Hicks contractions should be painless.
B) They may increase in frequency with walking.
C) These contractions might cause cervical dilation.
D) Braxton Hicks contractions will impede oxygen flow to the fetus.
Q2) Which hormone is essential for maintaining pregnancy?
A) Estrogen
B) hCG
C) Oxytocin
D) Progesterone
Q3) What is the correct term used to describe the mucous plug that forms in the endocervical canal?
A) Operculum
B) Leukorrhea
C) Funic souffle
D) Ballottement
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy
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46 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ideally,when should prenatal care begin?
A) Before the first missed menstrual period
B) After the first missed menstrual period
C) After the second missed menstrual period
D) After the third missed menstrual period
Q2) During the initial visit with a client who is beginning prenatal care,which action should be the highest priority for the nurse?
A) The first interview is a relaxed, get-acquainted affair during which the nurse gathers some general impressions of his or her new client.
B) If the nurse observed handicapping conditions, he or she should be sensitive and not inquire about them because the client will do that in her own time.
C) The nurse should be alert to the appearance of potential parenting problems, such as depression or lack of family support.
D) Because of legal complications, the nurse should not ask about illegal drug use; that is left to the physician.
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16
Chapter 15: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pregnant adolescents are at greater risk for decreased BMI and "fad" dieting with which condition?
A) Obesity
B) Gestational diabetes
C) Low-birth-weight babies
D) High-birth-weight babies
Q2) Placenta
A)0.5 to 1.8
B)1.8 to 2.3
C)3.2 to 3.9
D)0.9
E)0.9 to 1.1
Q3) A client states that she does not drink milk.Which foods should the nurse encourage this woman to consume in greater amounts to increase her calcium intake?
A) Fresh apricots
B) Canned clams
C) Spaghetti with meat sauce
D) Canned sardines
Q4) The BMI for a woman who is 51 kg before pregnancy and 1.57 m tall is _________.
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Chapter 16: Labor and Birth Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth?
A) Fetal head is felt at 0 station during the vaginal examination.
B) Bloody mucous discharge increases.
C) Vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head.
D) Membranes rupture during a contraction.
Q2) What is the primary difference between the labor of a nullipara and that of a multipara?
A) Amount of cervical dilation
B) Total duration of labor
C) Level of pain experienced
D) Sequence of labor mechanisms
Q3) Which statement is the best rationale for assessing the maternal vital signs between uterine contractions?
A) During a contraction, assessing the fetal heart rate is the priority.
B) Maternal circulating blood volume temporarily increases during contractions.
C) Maternal blood flow to the heart is reduced during contractions.
D) Vital signs taken during contractions are not accurate.
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18
Chapter 17: Maximizing Comfort for the Laboring Woman
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman in the active phase of the first stage of labor is using a shallow pattern of breathing,which is approximately twice the normal adult breathing rate.She starts to complain about feeling lightheaded and dizzy and states that her fingers are tingling.Which intervention should the nurse immediately initiate?
A) Contact the woman's physician.
B) Tell the woman to slow her pace of her breathing.
C) Administer oxygen via a mask or nasal cannula.
D) Help her breathe into a paper bag.
Q2) Which alternative approaches to relaxation have proven successful when working with the client in labor?
(Select all that apply).
A) Aromatherapy
B) Massage
C) Hypnosis
D) Cesarean birth
E) Biofeedback
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Chapter 18: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse caring for a woman in labor should understand that absent or minimal variability is classified as either abnormal or indeterminate.Which condition related to decreased variability is considered benign?
A) Periodic fetal sleep state
B) Extreme prematurity
C) Fetal hypoxemia
D) Preexisting neurologic injury
Q2) Part of the nurse's role is assisting with pushing and positioning.Which guidance should the nurse provide to her client in active labor?
A) Encourage the woman's cooperation in avoiding the supine position.
B) Advise the woman to avoid the semi-Fowler position.
C) Encourage the woman to hold her breath and tighten her abdominal muscles to produce a vaginal response.
D) Instruct the woman to open her mouth and close her glottis, letting air escape after the push.
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20
Chapter 19: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical finding indicates that the client has reached the second stage of labor?
A) Amniotic membranes rupture.
B) Cervix cannot be felt during a vaginal examination.
C) Woman experiences a strong urge to bear down.
D) Presenting part of the fetus is below the ischial spines.
Q2) Step 2
A)After obtaining permission, gently insert the index and middle fingers into the vagina.
B)Explain the findings to the client.
C)Position the woman to prevent supine hypotension.
D)Use sterile gloves and soluble gel for lubrication.
E)Document findings and report to the health care provider.
F)Cleanse the perineum and vulva, if necessary.
G)Determine dilation, presenting part, status of membranes, and characteristics of amniotic fluid.
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21
Chapter 20: Postpartum Physiologic Changes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding the postpartum uterus is correct?
A) At the end of the third stage of labor, the postpartum uterus weighs approximately 500
B) After 2 weeks postpartum, it should be abdominally nonpalpable.
C) After 2 weeks postpartum, it weighs 100 g.
D) Postpartum uterus returns to its original (prepregnancy) size by 6 weeks postpartum.
Q2) A woman gave birth to a healthy infant boy 5 days ago.What type of lochia does the nurse expect to find when evaluating this client?
A) Lochia rubra
B) Lochia sangra
C) Lochia alba
D) Lochia serosa
Q3) After delivery,excess hypertrophied tissue in the uterus undergoes a period of self-destruction.What is the correct term for this process?
A) Autolysis
B) Subinvolution
C) Afterpains
D) Diastasis
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22
Chapter 21: Nursing Care of the Family During the
Postpartum Period
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Sample Questions
Q1) What information should the nurse understand fully regarding rubella and Rh status?
A) Breastfeeding mothers cannot be vaccinated with the live attenuated rubella virus.
B) Women should be warned that the rubella vaccination is teratogenic and that they must avoid pregnancy for at least 1 month after vaccination.
C) Rh immunoglobulin is safely administered intravenously because it cannot harm a nursing infant.
D) Rh immunoglobulin boosts the immune system and thereby enhances the effectiveness of vaccinations.
Q2) Postpartum overdistention of the bladder and urinary retention can lead to which complications?
A) Postpartum hemorrhage and eclampsia
B) Fever and increased blood pressure
C) Postpartum hemorrhage and urinary tract infection
D) Urinary tract infection and uterine rupture
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23
Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the United States,the en face position is preferred immediately after birth.Which actions by the nurse can facilitate this process?
(Select all that apply).
A) Washing both the infant's face and the mother's face
B) Placing the infant on the mother's abdomen or breast with their heads on the same plane
C) Dimming the lights
D) Delaying the instillation of prophylactic antibiotic ointment in the infant's eyes
E) Placing the infant in the grandmother's arms
Q2) During a telephone follow-up conversation with a woman who is 4 days postpartum,the woman tells the nurse,"I don't know what's wrong.I love my son,but I feel so let down.I seem to cry for no reason!" Which condition might this new mother be experiencing?
A) Letting-go
B) Postpartum depression (PPD)
C) Postpartum blues
D) Attachment difficulty
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Chapter 23: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is circulating during a cesarean birth of a preterm infant.The obstetrician requests that cord clamping be delayed.What is the rationale for this directive?
A) To reduce the risk for jaundice
B) To reduce the risk of intraventricular hemorrhage
C) To decrease total blood volume
D) To improve the ability to fight infection
Q2) How would the nurse optimally reassure the parents of an infant who develops a cephalhematoma?
A) A cephalhematoma may occur with a spontaneous vaginal birth.
B) A cephalhematoma only happens as a result of a forceps- or vacuum-assisted delivery.
C) It is present immediately after birth.
D) The blood will gradually absorb over the first few months of life.
Q3) Which component of the sensory system is the least mature at birth?
A) Vision
B) Hearing
C) Smell
D) Taste
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Chapter 24: Nursing Care of the Newborn and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is responsible for teaching new parents regarding the hygienic care of their newborn.Which instruction should the nurse provide regarding bathing?
A) Avoid washing the head for at least 1 week to prevent heat loss.
B) Sponge bathe the newborn for the first month of life.
C) Cleanse the ears and nose with cotton-tipped swabs, such as Q-tips.
D) Create a draft-free environment of at least 24° C (75° F) when bathing the infant.
Q2) A nurse is assessing a newborn girl who is 2 hours old.Which finding warrants a call to the health care provider?
A) Blood glucose of 45 mg/dl using a Dextrostix screening method
B) Heart rate of 160 beats per minute after vigorously crying
C) Laceration of the cheek
D) Passage of a dark black-green substance from the rectum
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Chapter 25: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman wants to breastfeed her infant; however,her husband is not convinced that there are any scientific reasons to do so.The nurse can give the couple printed information comparing breastfeeding and bottle feeding.Which statement regarding bottle feeding using commercially prepared infant formulas might influence their choice?
A) Bottle feeding using a commercially prepared formula increases the risk that the infant will develop allergies.
B) Bottle feeding helps the infant sleep through the night.
C) Commercially prepared formula ensures that the infant is getting iron in a form that is easily absorbed.
D) Bottle feeding requires that multivitamin supplements be given to the infant.
Q2) A new mother recalls from prenatal class that she should try to feed her newborn daughter when she exhibits feeding readiness cues rather than waiting until the baby is frantically crying.Which feeding cue would indicate that the baby is ready to eat?
A) Waves her arms in the air
B) Makes sucking motions
C) Has the hiccups
D) Stretches out her legs straight
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Chapter 26: Assessment of High Risk Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) In comparing the abdominal and transvaginal methods of ultrasound examination,which information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) Both require the woman to have a full bladder.
B) The abdominal examination is more useful in the first trimester.
C) Initially, the transvaginal examination can be painful.
D) The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.
Q2) Which information is the highest priority for the nurse to comprehend regarding the BPP?
A) BPP is an accurate indicator of impending fetal well-being.
B) BPP is a compilation of health risk factors of the mother during the later stages of pregnancy.
C) BPP consists of a Doppler blood flow analysis and an amniotic fluid index (AFI).
D) BPP involves an invasive form of an ultrasonic examination.
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Chapter 27: Hypertensive Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?
A) Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability
B) Risk for altered gas exchange
C) Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate
D) Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs
Q2) The nurse has evaluated a client with preeclampsia by assessing DTRs.The result is a grade of 3+.Which DTR response most accurately describes this score?
A) Sluggish or diminished
B) Brisk, hyperactive, with intermittent or transient clonus
C) Active or expected response
D) More brisk than expected, slightly hyperactive
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Chapter 28: Hemorrhagic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer methotrexate to the client.This hazardous drug is most often used for which obstetric complication?
A) Complete hydatidiform mole
B) Missed abortion
C) Unruptured ectopic pregnancy
D) Abruptio placentae
Q2) What is the correct definition of a spontaneous termination of a pregnancy (abortion)?
A) Pregnancy is less than 20 weeks.
B) Fetus weighs less than 1000g.
C) Products of conception are passed intact.
D) No evidence exists of intrauterine infection.
Q3) When is a prophylactic cerclage for an incompetent cervix usually placed (in weeks of gestation)?
A) 12 to 14
B) 6 to 8
C) 23 to 24
D) After 24
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Chapter 29: Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A serious but uncommon complication of undiagnosed or partially treated hyperthyroidism is a thyroid storm,which may occur in response to stress such as infection,birth,or surgery.What are the signs and symptoms of this emergency disorder? (Select all that apply).
A) Fever
B) Hypothermia
C) Restlessness
D) Bradycardia
E) Hypertension
Q2) Screening at 24 weeks of gestation reveals that a pregnant woman has gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM).In planning her care,the nurse and the client mutually agree that an expected outcome is to prevent injury to the fetus as a result of GDM.This fetus is at the greatest risk for which condition?
A) Macrosomia
B) Congenital anomalies of the central nervous system
C) Preterm birth
D) Low birth weight
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Chapter 30: Medical-Surgical Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which congenital anomalies can occur as a result of the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs)in pregnancy?
(Select all that apply).
A) Cleft lip
B) Congenital heart disease
C) Neural tube defects
D) Gastroschisis
E) Diaphragmatic hernia
Q2) A woman with asthma is experiencing a postpartum hemorrhage.Which drug should be avoided when treating postpartum bleeding to avoid exacerbating asthma?
A) Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
C) Hemabate
D) Fentanyl
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Chapter 31: Mental Health Disorders and Substance Abuse
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Q1) A client with a history of bipolar disorder is called by the postpartum support nurse for follow-up.Which symptoms would reassure the nurse that the client is not experiencing a manic episode?
A) Psychomotor agitation and lack of sleep
B) Increased appetite and lack of interest in activities
C) Hyperactivity and distractibility
D) Pressured speech and grandiosity
Q2) Reports have linked third trimester use of selective serotonin uptake inhibitors (SSRIs)with a constellation of neonatal signs.The nurse is about to perform an assessment on the infant of a mother with a history of a mood disorder.Which signs and symptoms in the neonate may be the result of maternal SSRI use?
(Select all that apply).
A) Hypotonia
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Shivering
D) Fever
E) Irritability
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Chapter 32: Labor and Birth Complications
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Q1) What is a maternal indication for the use of vacuum-assisted birth?
A) Wide pelvic outlet
B) Maternal exhaustion
C) History of rapid deliveries
D) Failure to progress past station 0
Q2) The nurse recognizes that uterine hyperstimulation with oxytocin requires emergency interventions.What clinical cues alert the nurse that the woman is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation?
(Select all that apply).
A) Uterine contractions lasting <90 seconds and occurring >2 minutes in frequency
B) Uterine contractions lasting >90 seconds and occurring <2 minutes in frequency
C) Uterine tone <20 mm Hg
D) Uterine tone >20 mm Hg
E) Increased uterine activity accompanied by a nonreassuring FHR and pattern
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Chapter 33: Postpartum Complications
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Q1) Which is the initial treatment for the client with vWD who experiences a PPH?
A) Cryoprecipitate
B) Factor VIII and von Willebrand factor (vWf)
C) Desmopressin
D) Hemabate
Q2) The most effective and least expensive treatment of puerperal infection is prevention.What is the most important strategy for the nurse to adopt?
A) Large doses of vitamin C during pregnancy
B) Prophylactic antibiotics
C) Strict aseptic technique, including hand washing, by all health care personnel
D) Limited protein and fat intake
Q3) Heart sounds
A)Palpation
B)Auscultation
C)Inspection
D)Observation
E)Measurement
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35
Chapter 34: Nursing Care of the High Risk Newborn
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Q1) A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure dates.A nonstress test (NST)in the obstetrician's office revealed a nonreactive tracing.On artificial rupture of membranes,thick meconium-stained fluid was noted.What should the nurse caring for the infant after birth anticipate?
A) Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin
B) Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and RDS
C) Golden yellow to green-stained skin and nails, absence of scalp hair, and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat
D) Hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, and an alert, wide-eyed appearance
Q2) A premature infant never seems to sleep longer than an hour at a time.Each time a light is turned on,an incubator closes,or people talk near her crib,she wakes up and inconsolably cries until held.What is the correct nursing diagnosis beginning with "ineffective coping,related to"?
A) Severe immaturity
B) Environmental stress
C) Physiologic distress
D) Behavioral responses
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Chapter 35: Acquired Problems of the Newborn
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Q1) Near the end of the first week of life,an infant who has not been treated for any infection develops a copper-colored maculopapular rash on the palms and around the mouth and anus.The newborn is displaying signs and symptoms of which condition?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection
C) Congenital syphilis
D) HIV
Q2) What is the most important nursing action in preventing neonatal infection?
A) Good handwashing
B) Isolation of infected infants
C) Separate gown technique
D) Standard Precautions
Q3) Which conditions are infants of diabetic mothers (IDMs)at a higher risk for developing?
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Respiratory distress syndrome
D) Sepsis
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Chapter 36: Hemolytic Disorders and Congenital
Anomalies
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Q1) Which statement regarding congenital anomalies of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems is correct?
A) Cardiac disease may demonstrate signs and symptoms of respiratory illness.
B) Screening for congenital anomalies of the respiratory system need only be performed for infants experiencing respiratory distress.
C) Choanal atresia can be corrected with the use of a suction catheter to remove the blockage.
D) Congenital diaphragmatic hernias are diagnosed and treated after birth.
Q2) The nurse is caring for an infant with DDH.Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe?
(Select all that apply).
A) Positive Ortolani click
B) Unequal gluteal folds
C) Negative Babinski sign
D) Trendelenburg sign
E) Telescoping of the affected limb
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38
Chapter 37: Perinatal Loss, Bereavement, and Grief
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is diagnosed with having a stillborn infant.At first,she appears stunned by the news,cries a little,and then asks the nurse to call her mother.What is the proper term for the phase of bereavement that this client is experiencing?
A) Anticipatory grief
B) Acute distress
C) Intense grief
D) Reorganization
Q2) A family is visiting two surviving triplets.The third triplet died 2 days ago.What action indicates that the family has begun to grieve for the dead infant?
A) Refers to the two live infants as twins
B) Asks about the dead triplet's current status
C) Brings in play clothes for all three infants
D) Refers to the dead infant in the past tense
Q3) Which statement most accurately describes complicated grief?
A) Occurs when, in multiple births, one child dies and the other or others live
B) Is a state during which the parents are ambivalent, as with an abortion
C) Is an extremely intense grief reaction that persists for a long time
D) Is felt by the family of adolescent mothers who lose their babies
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