Advanced Marketing Question Bank
Course Introduction
This course delves into sophisticated marketing strategies and tools used by modern organizations to build and sustain competitive advantage. Students will explore advanced topics such as consumer behavior analysis, integrated marketing communications, digital and social media marketing, branding, global marketing, and data-driven decision making. Emphasis will be placed on case studies, real-world applications, and analytical frameworks that guide strategic marketing decisions in dynamic business environments. The course is designed for students seeking deeper knowledge of marketing concepts and their practical implementation in complex, rapidly changing markets.
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Marketing Research An Applied Orientation 6th Edition by Naresh K Malhotra
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Marketing Research
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marketing research has often been described as having four stakeholders. These stakeholders have certain responsibilities to each other and to the research project.Which of the following is not one of the stakeholders?
A)the marketing researcher
B)the respondent
C)the public
D)the environment
Answer: D
Q2) Marketing managers need the information provided by marketing research for many reasons. Which of the following is not a reason to need information provided by marketing research?
A)Firms have become national and international in scope.
B)Consumers have become more affluent and sophisticated.
C)Competition has become more intense.
D)All of the above are reasons to need information provided by marketing research.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Defining the Marketing Research Problem and Developing an Approach
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Q1) ________ consists of the factors that have an impact on the definition of the marketing research problem, including past information and forecasts, resources and constraints of the firm, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.
A)The approach to the problem
B)Research design
C)The environmental context of the problem
D)Problem definition
Answer: C
Q2) The economic environment includes public policies, laws, government agencies, and pressure groups that influence and regulate various organizations and individuals in society.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Problem definition is the most important step in the marketing research project.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Research Design
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Q1) Patronage at the local Macy's has been declining. What is the cause and how can it be stopped? Use the six Ws used in descriptive design to clearly define the information needed to address this management decision problem.
Answer: The six Ws are as follows: Who-Who should be considered a patron of a particular department store? What-What information should be obtained from the respondents? When-When should the information be obtained from respondents? Where-Where should the respondents be contacted to obtain the required information? Why-Why are we obtaining information from the respondents? Way-In what way are we going to obtain information from the respondents? The students should have their own responses geared specifically toward the department store patronage project.
Q2) Sometimes, the term sample survey is used interchangeably with the term longitudinal design.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Exploratory Research Design: Secondary Data
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Q1) The distinguishing feature of purchase and media panels is that the respondents record specific behaviors as they occur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Financial, operating, and employment data are also collected by industry services' syndicated research firms for one in 10 North American Industry Classification System (NAICS)industrial categories.
A)True
B)False
Q3) InfoUSA (www.infousa.com)is a leading provider of sales and marketing support data. InfoUSA provides data via a ________.
A)offline database
B)bibliographic database
C)online database
D)internet database
Q4) Scanner data is obtained by passing merchandise over a laser scanner that reads the UPC code from the packages.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Exploratory Research Design: Qualitative Research
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Q1) Quantitative research seeks to quantify the data and, typically, applies some form of statistical analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Qualitative research procedures are classified as either descriptive or causal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Projective techniques generally require personal interviews with highly trained interviewers. This is an advantage of projective techniques.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Projective techniques are different from focus groups and depth interview techniques in that projective techniques attempt to disguise the purpose of the research.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the advantages of online focus groups.
Page 7
Q6) List at least five (5)applications of depth interviews. Give a specific example of each.
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Chapter 6: Descriptive Research Design: Survey and Observation
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Q1) Observational methods may be ________ or ________.
A)structured; unstructured
B)direct; indirect
C)conducted in a natural environment; conducted in a contrived environment
D)all of the above
Q2) Less effort is required of the respondent in a personal interview than in a telephone or mail interview.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following advantages is not a reason why data analysis bias is low for audits and content analysis?
A)because the variables are precisely defined
B)because the phenomenon to be observed can be recorded continuously
C)because the data are quantitative
D)because statistical analysis is conducted
Q4) Electronic surveys can be conducted by e-mail or administered on the Internet or the Web.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the personal interviewing methods.
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Chapter 7: Causal Research Design: Experimentation
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Q1) ________ involves measuring the extraneous variables and adjusting for their effects through statistical analysis.
A)Design control
B)Statistical control
C)Randomization
D)Matching
Q2) In an after-the-fact examination of a situation, we can confidently rule out all other causal factors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An experiment is formed when the researcher manipulates one or more dependent variables and measures their effect on one or more independent variables, while controlling for the effect of extraneous variables.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain laboratory and field environments. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of laboratory experiments compared to field experiments.
Q5) Briefly define internal and external validity.
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Chapter 8: Measurement and Scaling: Fundamentals and Comparative Scaling
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Q1) The benefits of comparative scaling includes all of the following except ________.
A)comparative scales involve fewer theoretical assumptions
B)comparative scales are easily understood and can be applied easily
C)comparative scales tend to reduce halo or carryover effects from one judgment to another
D)small differences between stimulus objects can be detected
Q2) Preference rankings, market position, and social class are examples of interval scales.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why is there confusion over whether constant sum data are ordinal or metric?
Q4) In constant sum scaling, respondents allocate a constant sum of units, such as points, dollars or chips among a set of stimulus objects with respect to some criterion. A)True B)False
Q5) The four basic scale characteristics are nominal, order, distance and origin. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Measurement and Scaling: Noncomparative Scaling Techniques
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Q1) Which non-comparative scale is analyzed using profile analysis?
A)Likert scale
B)semantic differential scale
C)Stapel scale
D)all of the above
Q2) What differentiates mathematically derived scales from the other non-comparative scaling techniques?
Q3) Scores assigned to continuous rating scales by the researcher are typically treated as ________ data.
A)nominal
B)ordinal
C)ratio
D)interval
Q4) The Likert scale is also referred to as a summated scale.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Reliability can be defined as the extent to which measures are free from random error, X<sub>R</sub>.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Questionnaire and Form Design
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Q1) When developing a questionnaire, the six Ws (who, what, when, where, why, and way)are used when ________.
A)defining the issue
B)choosing question wording
C)avoiding generalizations and estimates
D)determining the content of individual questions
Q2) The more diversified the respondent group, the more difficult it is to design a single questionnaire that is appropriate for the entire group.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There is evidence that the response to a question is influenced by the directionality of the question.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Two apparently similar ways of posing a question always yields the same information.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the guidelines for the placement of branching questions?
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Chapter 11: Sampling: Design and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is correct about defining the target population?
A)Imprecise definition of the target population will result in research that is ineffective at best and misleading at worst.
B)Defining the target population involves translating the problem definition into a precise statement of who should and should not be included in the sample.
C)The target population should be defined in terms of elements, sampling units, extent, and time.
D)All of the above statements are true.
Q2) A common form of cluster sampling is area sampling, in which the clusters consist of geographic areas such as counties, housing tracts, or blocks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sampling efficiency is a concept that reflects a tradeoff between sampling cost and precision.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the advantages of convenience samples and when it is appropriate to use them.
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Chapter 12: Sampling: Final and Initial Sample Size
Determination
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Q1) When estimating a population parameter by using a sample statistic, the ________ is the desired size of the estimating interval.This is the maximum permissible difference between the sample statistic and the population parameter.
A)statistic
B)precision level
C)finite population correction
D)parameter
Q2) Ethical dilemmas associated with sample size determination include all of the following except ________.
A)inflating the standard deviation to increase sample size and project revenue
B)what should be done when a difference in the actual standard deviation and the estimated standard deviation results in a larger confidence interval than desired
C)investigating the possibility of non-response bias and making a reasonable effort to adjust for it
D)All of the above pose ethical dilemmas.
Q3) Discuss what can be done to reduce not-at-homes.
Q4) Discuss why there may be ethical concerns when using the standard deviation of a variable in determining sample size.
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Chapter 13: Fieldwork
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Q1) Supervisors involved in quality control and editing should do all of the following except ________.
A)supervisors should do some interviewing
B)supervisors should provide tabulation of important demographic characteristics
C)supervisors should collect questionnaires and other forms and edit them daily
D)supervisors should keep a record of hours worked and expenses
Q2) The quality of interviewing should be evaluated in terms of the appropriateness of the introduction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In their guidelines on interviewing, the Council of American Survey Research Organizations suggests that interviewers have unnecessary side conversations with the respondent in an effort to make the respondent more comfortable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss four of the probing techniques.
Q5) The persons who design the research frequently collect marketing research data. A)True B)False
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Chapter 14: Data Preparation
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Sample
Questions
Q1) Write an example question and its associated coding for (1)a structured question that allows only a single response with less than nine possible choices and (2)a structured question that permits multiple responses.
Q2) ________ is a multivariate dependence technique with more than one dependent variable.
A)Two-group discriminant analysis
B)Multiple regression
C)Multidimensional scaling
D)Multiple discriminant analysis
Q3) During a preliminary check for consistency, you found a respondent had reported an annual income of less than $20,000, yet indicated frequent shopping at prestigious department stores such as Saks Fifth Avenue and Neiman Marcus. You are at the ________ step of the data-preparation process.
A)coding
B)data cleaning
C)questionnaire checking
D)editing
Q4) Discuss how the researcher should go about selecting a data analysis strategy (Figure 14.5 in the text).
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Chapter 15: Frequency Distribution, Cross-Tabulation, and Hypothesis Testing
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Q1) In SPSS, if the data are interval scaled and only the summary statistics are desired, the DESCRIPTIVES procedure can be used.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ test is a nonparametric test for examining differences in the location of two populations, based on paired observations, that compares only the signs of the differences between pairs of variables without taking into account the magnitude of the differences.
A)Mann-Whitney U test
B)sign test
C)binomial test
D)runs test
Q3) The tendency of the deviations from the mean to be larger in one direction than in the other is called skewness.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The chi-square statistic can be estimated on counts of data or on percentages.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Analysis of Variance and Covariance
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Q1) In determining how different price levels will affect a household's cereal consumption, it may be essential to take household size into account. This is best analyzed by ________.
A)n-way ANOVA
B)one-way ANOVA
C)ANCOVA
D)regression
Q2) The null hypothesis for ANOVA typically is that all ________.
A)proportions are equal
B)means are unequal
C)proportions are unequal
D)means are equal
Q3) List the procedure for conducting one-way analysis of variance.
Q4) ________ are contrasts that enable the researcher to construct generalized confidence intervals that can be used to make pairwise comparisons of all treatment means.
A)Single comparison contrasts
B)Multiple comparison contrasts
C)A priori contrasts
D)A posteriori contrasts
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Chapter 17: Correlation and Regression
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Q1) R<sup>2 </sup>cannot decrease as more independent variables are added to the regression equation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Partial correlations have an order associated with them. The order indicates how many variables are being adjusted or controlled. The simple correlation coefficient, r, has a ________, as it does not control for any additional variables when measuring the association between two variables. The coefficient r<sub>sy.z </sub>is a ________ partial correlation coefficient, as it controls for the effect of one additional variable, Z.
A)zero-order; first-order
B)zero-order; second-order
C)first-order; second-order
D)first-order; third-order
Q3) The product moment correlation helps us determine the strength of the association between two metric variables. Regression analysis helps us determine which variables cause a change in other variables.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Discriminant and Logit Analysis
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Q1) When conducting discriminant analysis, the analysis sample is that part of the total sample used to check the results of the estimation sample.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The linear combinations of independent variables developed by discriminant analysis that will best discriminate between the categories of the dependent variable are ________.
A)discriminant functions
B)discriminant scores
C)characteristic profiles
D)classification matrix
Q3) When the probability of success, P is modeled using a binary logit model, it is constrained to lie between ________.
A)0 to -1
B)-1 to 1
C)1 to 100
D)0 and 1
Q4) Discuss the similarities and differences among ANOVA, regression, and discriminant analysis (Table 18.1 in the text).
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Chapter 19: Factor Analysis
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Q1) The equation X<sub>i </sub>= A<sub>i1</sub> F<sub>1 </sub>+ A<sub>i2</sub> F<sub>2 </sub><sub>+</sub><sub> </sub>A<sub>i3</sub> F<sub>3 </sub>+ ...+ A<sub>im</sub> F<sub>m + </sub>V<sub>i</sub>U<sub>i </sub>, represents the common factors expressed as linear combinations of the observed variables.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The factors identified in factor analysis are overtly observed in the population.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Rotation does not affect the communalities and the percentage of total variance explained.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Factor loadings represent the correlations between sets of variables.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List at least four of the procedures used for determining the number of factors.
Q6) What are the steps involved in conducting factor analysis (Figure 19.3 in the text)?
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Chapter 20: Cluster Analysis
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Q1) The average linkage method of hierarchical clustering is preferred to the single and complete linkage methods.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In non-hierarchical clustering, plotting the ratio of total within-group variance to between-group variance against the number of clusters is useful if you are ________.
A)interpreting and profiling the clusters
B)assessing the validity of clustering
C)deciding on the number of clusters
D)both B and C
Q3) Formal procedures for assessing the reliability and validity of clustering are simple and should be undertaken.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cluster analysis does not classify variables as dependent or independent.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What suggested guidelines researchers can use when deciding on the number of clusters?
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Chapter 21: Multidimensional Scaling and Conjoint Analysis
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Q1) In direct approaches to gathering perception data, respondents are asked to make similarity judgments on pairs of various brands or stimuli.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Conjoint analysis assumes that the important attributes of a product can be identified.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which guideline for deciding on the number of MDS dimensions relies on theory or past research to suggest the number of dimensions?
A)a priori knowledge
B)interpretability of the spatial map
C)ease of use
D)elbow criterion
Q4) The fit of an MDS solution is commonly assessed by the stress measure. Stress is a goodness-of-fit measure; higher values of stress indicate better fits.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Structural Equation Modeling and Path Analysis
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Q1) Which of the following value(s)for RMSEA are considered conservative?
A)0.04
B)0.06
C)0.90
D)0.99
E)A and B
Q2) A 0.07 value for RMSEA is considered conservative.
A)True
B)False
Q3) CFI is an absolute fit index.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the assessment of reliability in a measurement model.
Q5) In moving from the measurement model to the structural model the exogenous constructs each become endogenous.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the process of conducting SEM and explain the various steps involved.
Q7) Explain exogenous and endogenous constructs.
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Chapter 23: Report Preparation and Presentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ can communicate relative location and other comparative information.
A)Pie charts
B)Pictographs
C)Schematic figures and flow charts
D)Geographic maps
Q2) Which of the following is a way in which the researcher might assist the client after the marketing research report has been presented?
A)selection of a new product or advertising agency, development of a pricing policy, marketing segmentation, or other marketing actions
B)further research projects
C)help the client firm make the information generated in the marketing research project a part of the firm's marketing (management)information system (MIS)and decision support system (DSS)
D)all of the above
Q3) What are the steps in the report preparation process (Figure 22.1 in the text)?
Q4) List some of the ethical issues faced by the researcher and the client in the report preparation and presentation stage of the marketing research project.
Q5) Define the "Tell 'Em" principle and the "KISS 'Em" principle.
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Chapter 24: International Marketing Research
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Q1) Telephone interviews are most useful with relatively upscale consumers who are accustomed to business transactions by phone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) African countries are culturally more homogeneous than either the United States or Japan, which have many different kinds of family structures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A country's stage of economic development determines all of the following about its markets except ________.
A)the size
B)the degree of modernization
C)the standardization
D)all of the above
Q4) Home-country laws relate to national security, antitrust, worker benefits, and ethical considerations.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define direct translation, back translation, and parallel translation.
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