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Advanced Immunology is a comprehensive course designed to deepen students' understanding of the molecular and cellular mechanisms underlying immune system function. The course covers the development, activation, and regulation of immune cells, explores antigen recognition and signaling pathways, and delves into the complexities of immune responses to pathogens, autoimmunity, hypersensitivity, and immunodeficiencies. Topics also include the latest advances in immunotherapy, vaccine development, and the integration of genomics and bioinformatics in immunological research. Emphasis is placed on current literature, experimental approaches, and the critical analysis of recent discoveries in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Cellular and Molecular Immunology 8th Edition by Abul K. Abbas
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20 Chapters
214 Verified Questions
214 Flashcards
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23120
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Q1) All of the following protein-protein interactions are involved in activation of naive helper T cells by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) EXCEPT binding of:
A) Peptide-MHC complexes on the APC to the TCR on the T cell
B) CD4 on the T cell to nonpolymorphic regions of class II MHC molecules on the APC
C) Integrins on the T cell with adhesion ligands on the APC
D) B7-2 on the APC with CD28 on the T cell
E) CD40L on the T cell with CD40 on the APC
Answer: E
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Q1) A small chemical group recognized by an antibody that is attached to a larger macromolecule
A)Conformational determinant
B)Linear determinant
C)Neoantigenic determinant
D)Hinge region
E)Immunocomplex
F)Fab
G)Fc
H)Tail piece
I)Hapten
Answer: I
Q2) The isotype most closely associated with immediate hypersensitivity (allergic) disease
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Answer: C
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Q1) A child who suffers from a persistent viral infection is found to have a deficiency in lymphocyte production and very few T and B cells. Other bone marrow-derived cells are produced in normal numbers, and MHC molecule expression on cells appears normal. Transfusion of mature T cells from an unrelated donor who had recovered from a previous infection by the same virus would not be expected to help the child clear his infection. Which one of the following is a reasonable explanation for why this therapeutic approach would fail?
A) Viral infections are cleared by antibodies, not T cells.
B) The patient's own immune system would destroy the transfused T cells before they could respond to the viral infection.
C) T cells recognize peptides, not viral particles.
D) Donor T cell viral antigen recognition is restricted by MHC molecules not expressed in the patient.
E) In responding to the previous infection, the donor would have used up all his T cells specific for that virus.
Answer: D
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Q1) E-selectin
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
Q2) CTLA-4
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
Q3) Variable Ig domain
Q4) z protein
Q5) Complementarity-determining regions
Q6) CD3 protein
Q7) Constant Ig domain
Q9) Antigen-binding region Page 6
Q8) Immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM)
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Q1) An Src family kinase that phosphorylates ITAMs in the cytoplasmic tails of B cell receptor complex proteins
A)Ig
B)Ig
C)C3b
D)C3d
E)CR2
F)CD19
G)CD81
H)Fyn
I)Syk
Q2) T cell-independent antigens
A)IgM
B)IgD
C)IgG
D)IgE
E)IgA
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Q1) A ligand on a subset of T cells that binds to E-selectin
A)P-selectin
B)L-selectin
C)CCR8
D)Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
E)VCAM-1
F)LFA-1
G)CCR5
H)CCR4
I)a4b7
J)Cutaneous lymphocyte antigen (CLA)
K)Mip1-a
L)VLA-4
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Q1) Toll-like receptors and other receptors are potent activators of various components of the innate immune system. All of the following proteins are expressed in response to signaling by these receptors EXCEPT:
A) Interleukin-12
B) E-selectin
C) Tumor necrosis factor
D) Inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS)
E) CD28
Q2) Produced by B-1 cells, protects against microbes that succeed in penetrating epithelial barriers
A)Defensin
B)Opsonin
C)Natural antibody
D)Adjuvant
E)Complement
F)Inflammation
G)C-reactive protein
H)Mannose-binding lectin
I)Reactive oxygen intermediate
J)Inducible nitric oxide synthase
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Sample Questions
Q1) Late gene product; encodes coat proteins gp120 and gp41
A)env
B)gag
C)nef
D)pol
E)rev
F)tat
G)vif
Q2) Defect in B cell maturation at the pre-B cell stage caused by mutations in the gene encoding the B cell tyrosine kinase (Btk), resulting in undetectable levels of serum Ig
A)X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B)X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome
C)X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome
D)Bare lymphocyte syndrome
E)Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
F)Leukocyte adhesion deficiency-1 (LAD-1)
G)Leukocyte adhesion deficiency-2 (LAD-2)
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Q1) Mediates neutrophil recruitment into tissues
A)CXCL8 (IL-8)
B)CXCL10 (IP-10)
C)CCL19 (ELC)
D)CCL11 (Eotaxin)
E)CCR5
F)CXCR1
G)CX3CL1 (Fractalkine)
Q2) Expressed as a membrane molecule on the surface of activated T cells, it binds to a receptor found on many cell types, including T cells, and induces apoptosis.
A)TNF-RI
B)CD40
C)Fas ligand
D)RANK
E)Lymphotoxin
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Hypersensitivity and Autoimmunity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT associated with increased relative risk of developing systemic lupus erythematosus?
A) Female gender
B) Deficiency in complement protein C2
C) African-American ethnicity
D) Presence of HLA-DR3
E) Defect in B cell maturation
Q2) A 5-year-old girl is taken to the emergency department with lethargy, confusion, vomiting, abdominal pain, and flushed skin that is warm to the touch. Respirations are fast and shallow (Kussmaul) and emanate a strong, fruity odor. The mother notes that the child has been excessively thirsty over the past week and that she began wetting her bed during naps. Urine dipstick testing reveals markedly elevated levels of glucose and ketones.
A)Type I hypersensitivity
B)Type II hypersensitivity
C)Type III hypersensitivity
D)Type IV hypersensitivity
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Q1) Which of the following cell types is required for all humoral immune responses?
A) Natural killer cells
B) Dendritic cells
C) Cytolytic T lymphocytes
D) B lymphocytes
E) Helper T lymphocytes
Q2) Antibodies and T lymphocytes are the respective mediators of which two types of immunity?
A) Innate and adaptive
B) Passive and active
C) Specific and nonspecific
D) Humoral and cell-mediated
E) Adult and neonatal
Q3) The principal function of the immune system is:
A) Defense against cancer
B) Repair of injured tissues
C) Defense against microbial infections
D) Prevention of inflammatory diseases
E) Protection against environmental toxins
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9 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) CD8-binding site
Q2) Mouse class II MHC allele
A)HLA- 1
, -B7, -Cw4, -DPw5, -DQw10, -DR8
B)H-2
C)HLA-DQ7
D)I-Ad
E)HLA-B5
F)H-2KdI-AdI-EdDdLd
Q3) 2-Microglobulin
Q4) Mouse major histocompatibility complex
A)HLA- 1 , -B7, -Cw4, -DPw5, -DQw10, -DR8
B)H-2
C)HLA-DQ7
D)I-Ad
E)HLA-B5
F)H-2KdI-AdI-EdDdLd
Q5) Peptide-binding groove
Q6) Polymorphic region

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Q1) Generated by factor I-mediated proteolysis, this complement fragment binds to complement receptor 2 (CR2) on B cells and enhances B cell activation.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
Q2) This complement fragment is a component of the membrane attack complex.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
Q3) This complement fragment is a chemoattractant for neutrophils.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
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Q1) Protein constituent of granules that contributes to tissue damage in immediate hypersensitivity reactions
A)Histamine
B)Tryptase
C)Prostaglandin D<sub>2</sub>
D)Leukotriene C<sub>4</sub>
E)Platelet-activating factor
F)Interleukin-5
G)Tumor necrosis factor-a
Q2) Lipoxygenase-pathway product of arachidonic acid metabolism that causes prolonged bronchoconstriction, mucus secretion, and increased vascular permeability
A)Histamine
B)Tryptase
C)Prostaglandin D<sub>2</sub>
D)Leukotriene C<sub>4</sub>
E)Platelet-activating factor
F)Interleukin-5
G)Tumor necrosis factor-a
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Q1) This molecule binds SLC and ELC and is involved in naive T cell migration into interfollicular zones of lymph nodes.
A)Peripheral lymph node addressin
B)Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1)
C)Very late activation antigen-4 (VLA-4)
D)E-selectin
E)P-selectin ligand
F)CCR7
G)CXCR5
H)MadCAM-1
I)Vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 (VCAM-1)
Q2) In naive T cell recirculation, entry of the cells into peripheral lymph nodes occurs through which specialized vessel?
A) Efferent lymphatic
B) Thoracic duct
C) Central artery
D) High endothelial venule
E) Sinusoid
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Q1) Failure of self-tolerance is the cause of which one of the following types of diseases?
A) Allograft rejection
B) Autoimmunity
C) Atopy
D) Anergy
E) Acne
Q2) Mechanism of peripheral tolerance for T cells but not B cells
A)Immature (IgM<sup>+</sup>IgD<sup>-</sup>)
B)Thymic cortex
C)Bone marrow
D)Antigen recognition without T cell help
E)Receptor editing
F)Activation-induced cell death
G)Regulatory T cell-mediated suppression
H)Antigen recognition with costimulation
I)Double positive (CD4<sup>+</sup>CD8<sup>+</sup>)
J)Anergy
K)Thymic medulla
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a required step in B and T lymphocyte maturation?
A) Proliferative expansion of precursor cells
B) Cell surface expression of complete antigen receptor complexes
C) Positive selection
D) Activation of precursors by foreign antigens
E) Pre-antigen receptor expression
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a checkpoint in lymphocyte maturation that contributes to the selective maturation of cells with useful antigen receptors?
A) B cell precursors that cannot express Ig g heavy chains die by apoptosis.
B) T cell precursors that cannot express TCR b chains die by apoptosis.
C) Immature B cells that bind to self antigen with high affinity die by apoptosis.
D) Developing T cells that fail to express TCR a chains die by apoptosis.
E) Developing T cells that recognize self major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules with high affinity die by apoptosis.
Q3) A type of gene segment involved in somatic recombination events in Ig heavy chain and light chain as well as TCR a and b chain gene loci
Q4) Encodes the isotype of antibodies made by naive B cells
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Q1) Good induction of mucosal immunity but risk of developing a viral disease, especially in immunocompromised hosts
A)Live attenuated or killed bacteria
B)Live attenuated oral virus
C)Synthetic viral subunit vaccines
D)Conjugate vaccines
E)Recombinant viral vectors
F)DNA vaccines
G)Purified subunit vaccines
Q2) Composed of viral proteins synthesized from recombinant viral genes
A)Live attenuated or killed bacteria
B)Live attenuated oral virus
C)Synthetic viral subunit vaccines
D)Conjugate vaccines
E)Recombinant viral vectors
F)DNA vaccines
G)Purified subunit vaccines
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Q1) Formed by a glycosyltransferase enzyme that adds a terminal N-acetylgalactosamine residue to the H antigen
A)A
B)B
C)O
D)RhD
E)Lewis
Q2) Formation requires fucosyltransferase activity
A)A
B)B
C)O
D)RhD
E)Lewis
Q3) Formed by a glycosyltransferase enzyme that adds a terminal galactose residue to the H antigen
A)A
B)B
C)O
D)RhD
E)Lewis
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Q1) Therapy that targets an antigen that is not essential to the malignant phenotype of the tumor; antigen-loss variants can emerge during therapy
A)Killed tumor vaccine
B)DNA vaccines
C)Interleukin (IL)-2
D)IL-4
E)GM-CSF (granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor)
F)Anti-CD3 antibodies
G)Lymphokine-activated killer cells
H)Anti-Her2/neu antibodies
I)Anti-idiotypic antibodies
J)Dendritic cell vaccine
Q2) Prostate-specific antigen
A)Product of a cellular oncogene
B)Overexpressed unmutated cellular proteins
C)Product of unmutated genes normally silent in most tissues
D)Overexpressed surface glycolipid
E)Oncofetal antigen
F)Tissue differentiation antigen
G)Product of an oncogenic virus
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