Advanced Human Physiology
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Advanced Human Physiology explores the complex mechanisms that govern the function of the human body at cellular, tissue, organ, and system levels. Emphasizing integrative processes, the course examines topics such as neural and endocrine regulation, cardiovascular and respiratory dynamics, renal physiology, muscle function, and homeostatic control. Students will analyze the physiological adaptations to stress, disease, and environmental changes, utilizing recent research findings and clinical case studies to deepen their understanding of how the body maintains internal balance and responds to challenges. This course is designed for students pursuing advanced studies in health sciences, biomedical research, and clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology An Integrated Approach 7th Edition by Silverthorn
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26 Chapters
3071 Verified Questions
3071 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why the prefix homeo- is used in the term homeostasis.Why do some physiologists prefer the term homeodynamics over homeostasis?
Answer: The prefix homeo-, meaning like or similar, is used to indicate that the body's internal environment is maintained within a range of acceptable values rather than a fixed state.Some physiologists argue that the term homeodynamics better reflects the small but constant changes that continuously take place in the internal environment, as opposed to homeostasis, which erroneously implies lack of change.
Q2) Adaptive significance is an important concept in physiology because it describes the
A) importance of a highly variable external environment.
B) physiological functions that promote an organism's survival.
C) ability of an organism to monitor and restore its internal state to normal conditions when necessary.
D) similarities between ancient and modern marine organisms.
E) parameters necessary to maintain a constant internal environment.
Answer: B
Q3) Why are physiology and anatomy frequently studied together?
Answer: This is discussed in the "Physiology Is an Integrative Science"
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Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following biological molecules exhibit the characteristics of saturation, specificity and competition?
A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) receptor proteins
D) nucleotides
E) lipids and proteins
Answer: C
Q2) If a reaction which is stopped by substance X can recover when a lot more of the native activator is supplied, substance X would be considered which of the following?
A) covalent modulator
B) competitive inhibitor
C) allosteric modulator
D) irreversible antagonist
E) a phosphotase
Answer: B
Q3) Solutions are formed with water and ________ solutes which dissolve in them.
Answer: hydrophilic
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Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are synthesized along various sites of the endoplasmic reticulum except one.Identify the exception.
A) proteins
B) fatty acids
C) steroids
D) RNA
E) phospholipids
Answer: D
Q2) Describe the two general meanings of the term membrane, as used in biology.Which usage indicates layers of cells and which indicates layers of molecules?
Answer: Prior to the use of microscopes, membranes were simply thin, flexible layers of cells that separated large compartments or lined large cavities.When microscopic study of cells allowed visualization of the cell envelope and organelles, the term membrane was additionally applied to thin layers of molecules.
Q3) Sketch a cell membrane.Label at least three components and briefly explain what each one does.
Answer: See Figure 3.2
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5
Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) kinase
A)oxidoreductase
B)hydrolase
C)transferase
D)ligase
E)Lyase
Q2) Inside the matrix of the mitochondria, pyruvate
A) is converted to acetyl CoA which requires energy from an NADH.
B) gains a carbon in its conversion to acetyl CoA.
C) requires the vitamin pantothenic acid for its conversion to acetyl CoA.
D) is converted to lactate under anaerobic conditions.
Q3) dehydrogenase
A)oxidoreductase
B)hydrolase
C)transferase
D)ligase
E)Lyase
Q4) Compare and contrast potential energy with kinetic energy.
Q5) Define the law of mass action.
Q6) The peptide bond formed between amino acids occurs as a consequence of
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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) K leaves the cell
A)resting membrane potential
B)hyperpolarization
C)depolarization
D)repolarization
E)more than one of the answers
Q2) The three types of gated channels are ________, ________, and ________.
Q3) A 70-year-old man weighs 145 pounds and has 48% of his body weight in the form of water.How many liters of water is that?
Q4) structural proteins
A)transfer signals from the extracellular environment to the cytoplasm of the cell
B)form cell-to-cell connections
C)bind to molecules to facilitate entry to or exit from the cell
D)ligands bind to these proteins and are changed by the protein
Q5) Explain the five rules for diffusion and the two rules for simple diffusion across a membrane.
Q6) The membrane proteins that provide for support of the cell membrane and allow for cells to connect to each other are ________.
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Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ link membrane receptors to either ion channels or to membrane enzymes located on the cytoplasmic face of the membrane.
Q2) What is the half-life of a signal?
Q3) Cells that respond to signals are usually called A) responders.
B) receivers.
C) targets.
D) contacts.
E) junctions.
Q4) the minimum stimulus to trigger a response
A)threshold
B)effector
C)integrating center
D)setpoint
E)sensory receptor
Q5) Describe or diagram the basic pattern of a biological signal transduction pathway.
Q6) ________ can be caused by alterations in receptors or by problems with G protein or second messenger pathways.
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term that describes the need for one hormone to be present for a second hormone to produce a full effect is called ________.
Q2) thyroid
A)prolactin
B)insulin
C)aldosterone
D)melatonin
E)calcitonin
F)Epinephrine
Q3) List and explain two ways hormones affect their targets.
Q4) lipophobic molecule that interacts with receptors on cell surface
A)peptide hormone
B)steroid hormone
C)amino acid-derived hormone
D)anterior pituitary
E)hypothalamus
F)posterior pituitary
Q5) A cell's or tissue's response to a hormone primarily depends on ________ and
Q6) ________ pathologies arise in the last endocrine gland in a reflex.
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Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) When sodium channels open during an action potential, the opening is caused by
A) binding of sodium ions.
B) binding of potassium ions.
C) presence of calcium.
D) presence of positive charge.
Q2) If the graded potential increases in amplitude, then the frequency of the action potentials fired also increases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Neurotransmitter is stored and released from
A) axon terminals only.
B) axon varicosities only.
C) dendritic spines only.
D) cell bodies only.
E) axon terminals and axon varicosities.
Q4) Graded potentials that arrive at postsynaptic neurons are called ________ if they make that cell less likely to fire.
Q5) Compare and contrast fast and slow synaptic potentials, including detailed mechanisms used and what kinds of cells they occur in.
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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) composed of many small nuclei, an area that integrates as well as relays sensory information that passes through it
A)cerebellum
B)hypothalamus
C)thalamus
D)cerebrum
Q2) In annelids, simple reflexes occurring within a segment (i.e., without brain input)are possible because of ________; in vertebrates these reflexes are called ________.
Q3) Which of these roles is NOT related to the reticular formation?
A) arousal and sleep
B) muscle tone and stretch reflexes
C) pain modulation
D) blood pressure regulation
E) regulation of the menstrual cycle
Q4) Describe cerebrospinal fluid flow from secretion to absorption.
Q5) Describe the phases of a normal sleep cycle.
Q6) Give a brief synopsis of CNS control of movement.
Q7) Discuss the functions of the blood-brain barrier.What cellular characteristics contribute to its effectiveness?
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) stretch
A)free nerve ending
B)Merkel receptor
C)Meissner's corpuscle
D)Ruffini corpuscle
E)Pacinian corpuscle
Q2) Describe how lateral inhibition allows for localization of a stimulus.
Q3) Discuss the structure and function of the cochlea.
Q4) Diffuse light illuminates both center and surround of on-center cell.
A)fully excited
B)fully inhibited
C)weak response
Q5) Sensations of the forces of gravity and linear acceleration are detected in the A) semicircular canals.
B) cochlea.
C) ossicles.
D) saccule and utricle.
E) organ of Corti.
Q6) Aside from the obvious, describe the differences between slow and fast pain.
Q7) ________ cells connect photoreceptors to ganglion cells.
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Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the molecular level, what are the effects of nicotine on the nervous system? How are these effects exerted? How are these effects similar to or different from those of curare? How do these effects explain some of the physiological consequences of smoking?
Q2) ________ are swellings that contain vesicles filled with neurotransmitter.
Q3) Which statements apply to the parasympathetic division of the nervous system?
A) It is dominant during "resting and digesting."
B) Its ganglia are nearby, on or near their target organs.
C) Epinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic division.
D) It is dominant during "resting and digesting" and its ganglia are nearby, on or near their target organs.
E) All of the statements apply.
Q4) In a laboratory experiment, adding curare, which binds to acetylcholine receptors, to the solution around a muscle decreases the size of the end-plate potential.Adding prostigmine, an acetylcholinesterase blocker, increases the size of the end-plate potential.Explain why.
Q5) Describe the different types of cholinergic receptors in the nervous system.Which neurotransmitter binds to each type?
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Q6) The signal molecule ________ elicits the stronger response from beta receptors.
Chapter 12: Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define and explain the difference between isotonic, isometric and eccentric contractions and give an example of a specific movement for each.What is the role of series elastic elements in muscle contraction?
Q2) The nervous system avoids muscle fatigue during submaximal contraction by
A) always recruiting slow-twitch motor units.
B) asynchronous recruitment.
C) synchronous recruitment.
D) always recruiting fast-twitch motor units.
Q3) The molecular event that occurs immediately after the power stroke is the
A) release of actin from the myosin head.
B) hydrolysis of ATP by the myosin head.
C) release of ADP from the myosin.
D) binding of tropomyosin to the myosin.
E) binding of actin to the myosin.
Q4) In order for the bicep muscle to shorten, the force applied by the muscle must be ________ the load applied at the hand.
A) greater than
B) less than C) equal to
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Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Design a concept map that shows the types of reflexes, the basis for their classification, and their functions.
Q2) several neurons involved in a pathway; can be complex
A)somatic
B)autonomic
C)spinal
D)cranial
E)innate
F)acquired
G)polysynaptic
Q3) The effector in a reflex is the
A) control center.
B) afferent neuron.
C) efferent neuron.
D) sensory receptor.
E) muscle or gland.
Q4) ________ monitor the position of skeletal muscles and joints.
Q5) Draw a monosynaptic reflex and a polysynaptic reflex.Label each part of the reflex pathway.Briefly explain how the two reflexes differ.
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Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organ is NOT known to include a special portal system for blood?
A) heart
B) kidney
C) liver
D) brain
E) All of these organs have portal systems.
Q2) The term myogenic indicates that the heart muscle is the source of
A) the contractile force for pumping.
B) a hormone that indirectly regulates blood volume.
C) the electrical signal that triggers heart contraction.
D) receptors that trigger blood pressure reflexes.
E) stem cells that repair damaged heart tissue.
Q3) Diagram at least seven different factors that affect the components of the equation that relates cardiac output to heart rate and stroke volume.Explain each factor involved.
Q4) also called the mitral valve
A)tricuspid valve
B)bicuspid valve
C)aortic valve
D)pulmonary valve
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Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Due to the differences in opposing forces, there is net ________ occurring at the arteriolar end of most capillaries, coupled with net ________ at the venous end.
A) absorption, filtration
B) filtration, absorption
Q2) In order to cause vasodilation of most vascular smooth muscle,
A) acetylcholine combines with nicotinic receptors.
B) acetylcholine combines with muscarinic receptors.
C) norepinephrine combines with alpha receptors.
D) norepinephrine combines with receptors.
E) sympathetic stimulation is removed.
Q3) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the A) systemic pressure.
B) mean arterial pressure.
C) pulse pressure.
D) blood pressure.
E) circulatory pressure.
Q4) The sympathetic nervous system will cause vasodilation in the arteries of many blood vessels, but vasoconstriction in the brain.Why does this occur?
Q5) The term for chronically elevated blood pressure is ________.
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tom suffers from a severe liver disease.Which of the following symptoms would you expect to see as a result of this condition?
A) decreased clotting ability
B) decreased blood osmotic pressure
C) increased levels of bilirubin in the blood
D) accumulation of fluid in the tissue spaces of the extremities
E) All answers are correct.
Q2) general term for the condition of low hemoglobin in the blood
A)hereditary spherocytosis
B)polycythemia vera
C)iron-deficiency anemia
D)sickle cell disease
E)anemia
Q3) ________ regulates the growth and maturation of megakaryocytes.
A) Erythropoietin
B) Interleukin
C) Thrombopoietin
D) Colony-stimulating factor
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q4) The carrier protein that transports absorbed iron through the blood is ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic inhalation of fine particles that reach the alveoli leads to ________ lung disease.
A) obstructive
B) restrictive
C) fibrotic
D) compliant
E) congestive
Q2) What is Dalton's law? Why is it important?
Q3) Summarize the four gas laws.
Q4) Type I alveolar cells
A) allow rapid diffusion of gases through their thin membranes.
B) secrete a chemical known as surfactant.
C) are phagocytic.
D) allow rapid diffusion of gases through their thin membranes, secrete a chemical known as surfactant, and are phagocytic.
E) None of the statements are True.
Q5) The ________ consist of light, spongy tissue whose volume is occupied mostly by air-filled spaces.
Q6) Describe the pleura and explain its role in respiration.
Q7) Which single muscle contributes most to normal, resting inspiration?
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Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is characterized by an increased airway resistance and decreased ventilation.
Q2) An increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will A) decrease the rate of breathing.
B) increase the rate of breathing.
C) decrease pulmonary ventilation.
D) decrease the alveolar ventilation rate.
E) increase the pH of arterial blood.
Q3) Which is typically more important in regulating the respiratory system, PO or PCO ? Explain your answer and briefly discuss the receptors involved.Give examples of situations in which each of those factors changes enough to stimulate a reflex.How and why are these factors related to each other?
Q4) In ________, fluid accumulates in the interstitial spaces of the lungs, slowing gas exchange.
Q5) Diffusion rate is directly proportional to ________ and ________.
Q6) Fear and excitement may affect the pace and depth of respiration by stimulation of portions of the ________.
Q7) Describe the different causes of hypoxia, and give specific examples of the associated conditions.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: The Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urea is
A) actively secreted in the distal tubule.
B) actively reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.
C) passively reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.
D) completely eliminated in the urine.
E) actively transported into the filtrate by the cells of the collecting duct.
Q2) Urine is carried to the urinary bladder by
A) blood vessels.
B) lymphatics.
C) the ureters.
D) the urethra.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Neural control of GFR is mediated by ________ that innervate ________ receptors on vascular smooth muscle causing ________.
Q4) The Bowman's capsule and glomerulus make up the A) renal pyramid.
B) loop of Henle.
C) renal corpuscle.
D) renal papilla.
E) collecting system.
21
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Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) When baroreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies register increased blood pressure, this results in
A) secretion of vasopressin.
B) inhibition of vasopressin secretion.
C) increased glomerular filtration.
D) decreased urine production.
E) increased thirst.
Q2) Which of the following concerning the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide is False?
A) produced by cells in the heart
B) promotes sodium loss at the kidneys
C) reduces blood pressure
D) suppresses vasopressin secretion
E) increases aldosterone secretion
Q3) Which of the following leads to the lowest water loss during a day?
A) metabolism
B) feces
C) skin
D) lungs
E) kidneys
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bicarbonate secretion
A) neutralizes acid entering from the stomach into the duodenum.
B) is secreted by apical Cl -HCO exchanger.
C) is not dependent on high levels of carbonic anhydrase to maintain bicarbonate production.
D) is secreted by the acinar cells.
E) neutralizes acid entering from the stomach into the duodenum and is secreted by apical Cl -HCO exchanger.
Q2) Bile is produced in the ________ and stored in the ________.
A) gallbladder, liver
B) liver, gallbladder
C) pancreas, hepatocytes
D) hepatocytes, pancreas
Q3) In some severe cases, a person suffering from stomach ulcers may have surgery to cut the branches of the vagus nerve that innervates the stomach.How would this help the problem?
Q4) Name two functions of cholecystokinin.
Q5) List the four basic processes of the digestive system, and describe each.
Q6) The enteric nervous system and the CNS have several similarities.What are they?
Q7) What would be the nutritional consequence of excessive antacid use?
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Atkins and South Beach diets are considered ketogenic because
A) Type I diabetics use them.
B) they cause the body to burn calories from non-carbohydrate sources.
C) they shift one's metabolism to increased levels of glycolysis.
D) they have the potential to increase the body's pH.
E) they require people to eat large quantities of ketones.
Q2) Two individuals are the same age, sex, and ethnic background.While being tested for their BMR, Bill consumes 20 liters of oxygen/hour and Randy consumes 16 liters of oxygen/hour.Which of the two needs to consume the most calories in order to maintain proper health and constant weight?
A) Bill
B) Randy
Q3) Which of the following symptoms would you expect to observe in a person suffering from type I diabetes mellitus?
A) glucosuria
B) ketoacidosis
C) thirst and polydipsia
D) hyperglycemia
E) All of these answers are correct.
Q4) The process of glycogen formation is known as ________.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thyroid hormones are structural derivatives of the amino acid ________.
Q2) The action of a hormone on a target cell involves effects on A) receptor proteins.
B) nonreceptor proteins.
C) lipids.
D) receptor and nonreceptor proteins.
E) receptor proteins and lipids.
Q3) Somatostatin is another name for A) growth hormone.
B) growth hormone-releasing hormone.
C) growth hormone-inhibiting hormone.
D) thyroid hormone.
E) parathyroid hormone.
Q4) Describe the hypothalamic-pituitary-endocrine organ pathways for the adrenal cortex and thyroid gland.Do releasing and/or trophic hormones exert effects outside this pathway? Explain.
Q5) Name four physiological functions of calcium.
Q6) The most important metabolic effect of ________ is protection against ________, crucial to surviving significant stress.
Q7) List and explain the effects of cortisol.
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Chapter 24: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) These are the most abundant leukocyte; they are formed in the bone marrow.
A)lymphocytes
B)neutrophils
C)monocytes
D)eosinophils
E)basophils
Q2) C-reactive protein is a type of A) cytokine.
B) chemotaxin.
C) acute-phase protein.
D) pyrogen.
E) granzyme.
Q3) ________ are phagocytic cells that are permanent residents of specific tissues and organs.
Q4) Compare and contrast inflammation and infection.
Q5) ________ are fixed macrophages found in the liver.
Q6) Explain the role of experience in the immune system.Given the importance of experience, is a person's immune response determined by the genes or the environment? Explain.
Q7) Compare and contrast innate and acquired immunity.
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Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) With acclimatization, the body begins to do a better job of conserving A) water only.
B) heat only.
C) salt only.
D) water and heat only.
E) water, heat, and salt.
Q2) During exercise, blood flow to the active skeletal muscles is increased by autoregulation.Propose a mechanism based on the need for nutrients that would explain how the autoregulation might take place.
Q3) Susie has hyperthyroidism.How might this affect ATP production during exercise?
Q4) The nutrients that yield the most energy per gram when metabolized are A) carbohydrates. B) proteins.
C) fats.
D) nucleic acids.
E) vitamins.
Q5) In resistance exercise, such as strength training, muscles rely heavily on ________ energy production.
A) anaerobic
B) aerobic
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a part of the ovarian cycle?
A) follicular phase
B) ovulation
C) luteal phase
D) menses
E) corpus luteum formation
Q2) The hormone primarily responsible for milk synthesis is
A) progesterone.
B) oxytocin.
C) prolactin.
D) estrogen.
E) growth hormone.
Q3) uterus
A)urethral folds and groove
B)gonad cortex
C)gonad medulla
D)Wolffian duct
E)Müllerian duct
Q4) What seems to be the most likely hormone that we could use as a male contraceptive pill? Explain.
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