Advanced Human Physiology
Review Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Human Physiology delves into the complex mechanisms that govern the function of the human body at the cellular, tissue, organ, and system levels. The course emphasizes integrative processes such as neuroendocrine regulation, cardiovascular and respiratory dynamics, renal and acid-base homeostasis, and muscular and metabolic function in health and disease. Students explore the physiological adaptations to stress, exercise, and pathological conditions, applying current research to real-world clinical scenarios. Through detailed analyses and problem-based learning, this course equips students with a comprehensive understanding of human physiological principles required for advanced studies in biomedical and clinical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 8th Edition by Saladin
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Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of controls and statistical testing are two aspects of experimental design that help to ensure __________.
A) an adequate sample size
B) objective and reliable results
C) experimental bias
D) psychosomatic effects
E) treatment groups
Answer: B
Q2) The study of mechanism of disease is called __________.
A) histology
B) neuroanatomy
C) pathophysiology
D) endocrinology
E) neurophysiology
Answer: C
Q3) The hypothetico-deductive method is common in physiology,whereas the inductive method is common in anatomy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following equations depicts an exchange reaction?
A) AB A + B
B) A + B AB
C) AB + CD AC + BD
D) AB A<sup>-</sup> + B<sup>+</sup>
E) A + B AB C + D
Answer: C
Q2) Which one of the following would not increase the rate of a reaction?
A) An increase in reactant concentrations
B) A rise in temperature
C) The presence of a catalyst
D) The presence of an enzyme
E) A decrease in reactant concentrations
Answer: E
Q3) Hydrogen,deuterium,and tritium are three isotopes of hydrogen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of particles of a solute in a solution is described by its ____________.The ability of a solution to affect the fluid volume in a cell is referred to as its __________.
A) tonicity;osmolarity
B) osmolarity;diffusion
C) osmolarity;tonicity
D) osmolarity;molarity
E) tonicity;diffusion
Answer: C
Q2) One example of pinocytosis is the uptake of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)by endothelial cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Both the nucleus and the mitochondrion are surrounded by a two layer membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme RNA polymerase participates in translation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which molecule contains anticodons?
A) An mRNA
B) A DNA molecule
C) A tRNA
D) An rRNA
E) A cDNA
Q3) Many genes occur in alternative forms called alleles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following omits some stage(s)of the cell cycle?
A) G1,S,G2,mitosis
B) Interphase,mitosis
C) G1,DNA replication,G2,mitosis
D) Prophase,metaphase,anaphase,telophase,cytokinesis
E) Interphase,prophase,metaphase,anaphase,telophase,cytokinesis
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Chapter 5: Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glands that have branched ducts and secretory cells that form sacs at one end of the ducts are classified as ___________ glands.
A) areolar
B) simple acinar
C) simple coiled tubular
D) compound acinar
E) compound tubuloacinar
Q2) Rapid cell death caused by a complete cutting off of blood supply is called gangrene.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Adult stem cells are usually pluripotent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________ gives rise to the __________.
A) mesoderm;digestive glands
B) endoderm;muscular system and skeletal system
C) ectoderm;nervous system and epidermis
D) endoderm;mesoderm
E) mesoderm;endoderm
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calluses or corns are the result of accelerated multiplication by ___________.
A) melanocytes
B) keratinocytes
C) fibroblasts
D) tactile cells
E) red blood cells
Q2) Secretions from __________ glands contribute to the acid mantle that inhibits bacterial growth on the skin.
A) mammary
B) ceruminous
C) sebaceous
D) apocrine sweat
E) merocrine sweat
Q3) Living keratinocytes exfoliate from the epidermis as tiny specks called dander.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The deeper of the two layers of the skin is the hypodermis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Red bone marrow does not contain __________.
A) myeloid tissue
B) yellow bone marrow
C) hemopoietic tissue
D) white blood cells
E) red blood cells
Q2) The most common bone disease is __________.
A) osteomyelitis
B) osteoporosis
C) osteosarcoma
D) osteomalacia
E) rickets
Q3) The hemopoietic tissue in a bone is otherwise known as myeloid tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Red bone marrow is important in the production of new bone cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ suture separates the temporal bone from the parietal bone.
A) coronal
B) squamous
C) lambdoid
D) sagittal
E) frontal
Q2) The ischium is posterior to the pubis and inferior to the ilium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following are not considered facial bones?
A) Parietal bones
B) Maxillae
C) Lacrimal bones
D) Nasal bones
E) Palatine bones
Q4) Trochanters are unique to the femur.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The coxal joint is a ball-and-socket joint,in which the head of the humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following structures prevents knee hyperextension?
A) The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
B) The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
C) The fibular (lateral)collateral ligament
D) The medial meniscus
E) The lateral meniscus
Q3) The union of the proximal and middle phalanges form __________ joints.
A) pivot
B) plane (gliding)
C) hinge
D) saddle
E) condylar (ellipsoid)
Q4) Bony joints are the most common type of joints.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of the muscular system is known as __________.
A) kinesiology
B) pathophysiology
C) myology
D) biology
E) neurology
Q2) Which of the following best describes the insertion of the extensor digitorum?
A) It indirectly inserts on all digits of the hand.
B) It indirectly inserts on all digits of the hand except the thumb.
C) It directly inserts on all digits of the hand.
D) It directly inserts on all digits of the hand except the thumb.
E) It directly inserts on the index finger only.
Q3) Which one of these muscles helps to open the mouth (depress the mandible)?
A) Zygomaticus major
B) Digastric
C) Sternohyoid
D) Depressor anguli oris
E) Hyoglossus
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Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a property of collagen?
A) Contractility
B) Excitability
C) Elasticity
D) Expendability
E) Impermeability
Q2) A volleyball player depends on the gastrocnemius muscles for plantar flexion,whereas a marathon runner depends more on the soleus muscles for the same action.What characteristic of the soleus muscles makes this so?
A) They have smaller mitochondria.
B) They have more glycogen in them.
C) They don't have as many blood capillaries per gram of tissue.
D) They make more use of aerobic respiration.
E) They break ATP down to ADP and P<sub>i</sub> faster.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the resting membrane potential (RMP)?
A) The intracellular environment is negatively charged.
B) The intracellular environment has more positively charged sodium.
C) The extracellular environment is negatively charged.
D) It has a voltage of about +75 mV.
E) It is dependent upon the absorption of potassium ions by the muscle fiber.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the brain,neurons are more abundant than neuroglia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which part of a neuron is the postsynaptic membrane usually found?
A) Axon terminal
B) Axon
C) Dendrite
D) Perikaryon
E) Axon collateral
Q3) A cholinergic synapse uses __________ as its neurotransmitter.
A) monoamine
B) acetylcholine
C) epinephrine
D) norepinephrine
E) catecholamine
Q4) Where are unmyelinated nerve fibers surrounded by Schwann cells?
A) In the PNS
B) In the CNS
C) In the PNS and CNS
D) Nowhere.Unmyelinated nerve fibers are never surrounded by Schwann cells.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord,spinal Nerves,and Somatic
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ganglion is a _________.
A) bundle of axons in the CNS
B) cluster of dendrites in either the CNS or the PNS
C) cluster of neurosomas in the PNS
D) bundle of axons in the PNS
E) cluster of neurosomas in the CNS
Q2) Ascending signals in the spinal cord travel via gray matter,while descending signals travel via white matter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Eyes and ears are innervated by _________ fibers.
A) white
B) visceral
C) somatic
D) special
E) general
Q4) A typical reflex contains a sensory neuron attached directly to an effector.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures does not contain CSF?
A) Dural sinus
B) Lateral ventricle
C) Central canal
D) Subarachnoid space
Q2) The right and left cerebral hemispheres are separated from each other by __________.
A) many sulci
B) many gyri
C) the brainstem
D) the longitudinal fissure
E) the corpus callosum
Q3) In which structure is the arbor vitae found?
A) Left cerebral hemisphere
B) Tegmentum in the midbrain
C) Cerebellum
D) Reticular formation
E) Diencephalon
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under normal circumstances,both divisions of the autonomic nervous system are active simultaneously.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following is made up of primarily adrenergic fibers?
A) Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division
B) Postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division
C) Postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic division
D) All motor fibers of the somatic motor system
E) Preganglionic neurons of parasympathetic division
Q3) Acetylcholine (ACh)always has an excitatory effect.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most preganglionic fibers synapse with postganglionic fibers in the dorsal root ganglia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All sympathetic postganglionic adrenergic fibers secrete adrenaline.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the only retinal cells that produce action potentials?
A) Rods
B) Cones
C) Ganglion cells
D) Bipolar cells
E) Horizontal cells
Q2) Glaucoma is a state of elevated pressure within the eye that occurs when the __________ is obstructed so the aqueous humor is not reabsorbed as fast as it is secreted.
A) scleral venous sinus
B) posterior chamber
C) anterior chamber
D) lacrimal punctum
E) tarsal gland opening
Q3) Which of the following are unencapsulated endings?
A) Free nerve endings
B) Tactile corpuscles
C) End bulbs
D) Muscle spindles
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) TEST and EST are abbreviations for testosterone and estrogen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which hormone stimulates glucocorticoid secretion?
A) GHRH
B) GHIH
C) ACTH
D) CRH
E) TSH
Q3) Which of the following is synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
A) Aldosterone
B) Cortisol
C) Testosterone
D) Calcitriol
E) Glucagon
Q4) Cholesterol is essential for the synthesis of steroid hormones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would happen if all of the hemoglobin contained within the RBCs became free in the plasma?
A) It would considerably increase blood oxygen carrying capacity.
B) It would facilitate delivery of oxygen into tissues supplied by small capillaries.
C) It would facilitate oxygen diffusion into cells distant from blood capillaries.
D) It would significantly increase blood osmolarity.
E) It would drastically increase osmotic colloid pressure.
Q2) Incompatibility of one person's blood with another results from the action of plasma antibodies against the RBCs' antigens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Erythrocytes transport oxygen and __________.
A) defend the body against pathogens
B) initiate blood clotting
C) regulate erythropoiesis
D) transport nutrients
E) transport some carbon dioxide
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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mitral valve prolapse (MVP)generates a murmur associated with the __________ heart sound that occurs when the __________.
A) lubb (S1);atria contract
B) dupp (S2);atria relax
C) lubb (S1);ventricles contract
D) dupp (S2);ventricles relax
E) lubb (S1);ventricles relax
Q2) Which of the following blood vessels receives blood directly from the right ventricle?
A) Pulmonary trunk
B) Ascending aorta
C) Superior vena cava
D) Inferior vena cava
E) Right pulmonary vein
Q3) Atrial systole begins __________.
A) immediately before the P wave
B) immediately after the P wave
C) during the Q wave
D) during the S-T segment
E) immediately after the T wave
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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) What type of shock can be produced by hemorrhage,severe burns,or dehydration?
A) Anaphylactic
B) Cardiogenic
C) Hypovolemic
D) Venous pooling
E) Neurogenic
Q2) Blood flow to the __________ remains quite stable even when mean arterial pressure (MAP)fluctuates from 60 to 140 mm Hg.
A) hypothalamus
B) adrenal gland
C) stomach
D) skeletal muscles
E) kidneys
Q3) A mean arterial pressure below 60 mmHg can cause which of the following?
A) Neurogenic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Compensated shock
D) Cerebral edema
E) Syncope
22
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adaptive immunity involves skin,NK cells,and phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following does(do)not belong to the second line of defense?
A) The macrophage system
B) Natural killer cells
C) Inflammation
D) The gastric juices
E) Interferon and the complement system
Q3) T cells undergo positive selection in the thymus,which means they __________.
A) react against self antigens
B) develop surface antigen receptors
C) remain alive but unresponsive
D) die and macrophages phagocytize them
E) multiply and form clones of identical T cells
Q4) Antibodies and complement can work together,linking innate and adaptive immunity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory system contains a total of five __________.
A) segmental bronchi
B) choanae
C) laryngeal cartilages
D) lobes
E) tracheal cartilages
Q2) Mucus plays an important role in cleansing inhaled air.It is produced by __________ of the respiratory tract.
A) squamous alveolar cells
B) great alveolar cells
C) the pleurae
D) ciliated cells
E) goblet cells
Q3) In a healthy person,which of the following will have the greatest influence on resistance to pulmonary airflow?
A) Atmospheric pressure
B) Respiratory rate
C) Bronchiole diameter
D) Quantity of surfactant
E) Contraction of the diaphragm
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Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loop diuretics reduce body water content by acting on the __________.
A) feedback loop between the kidney and posterior pituitary gland
B) countercurrent multiplier system
C) countercurrent exchanger system
D) aquaporins of the collecting duct
E) thirst mechanism and water intake
Q2) Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by the __________.
A) renal corpuscle
B) proximal convoluted tubule
C) distal convoluted tubule
D) glomerular capillaries
E) collecting duct
Q3) The countercurrent multiplier recaptures __________ and is based on fluid flowing in the __________ direction in two adjacent tubules.
A) potassium;same
B) calcium;opposite
C) calcium;same
D) sodium;opposite
E) sodium;same
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Chapter 24: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Q1) Blood plasma osmolarity is higher than intracellular fluid osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fluid intake is governed mainly by hypothalamic neurons called .
A) baroreceptors
B) proprioceptors
C) nociceptors
D) osmoreceptors
E) mechanoreceptors
Q3) Where is the greatest volume of water in the body found?
A) Intracellular fluid (ICF)
B) Extracellular fluid(ECF)
C) Tissue(interstitial)fluid
D) Blood plasma and lymph
E) Transcellular fluid
Q4) Ina state of fluid balance, average daily fluid gains and losses are equal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Digestive System
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Q1) Both chemical and mechanical digestion start in the mouth and continue in the stomach.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A sodium bicarbonate solution is secreted in response to a hormone called
A) insulin
B) cholecystokinin (CCK)
C) secretin
D) glucagon
E) gastrin
Q3) Enamel is found in the crown of a tooth,whereas dentin is part of both the crown and the root.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All chemical digestion is essentially just hydrolysis reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following occurs during the postabsorptive state?
A) Blood glucose rises
B) Glycerol is used for gluconeogenesis
C) Lipids are stored in adipose tissue
D) Glucose is stored by glycogenesis
E) Protein synthesis is active
Q2) Gut-brain peptides are secreted by the brain and target the gastrointestinal tract.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where does HDL in the body come from?
A) The diet
B) The liver
C) The pancreas
D) The small intestine
E) The gallbladder
Q4) The heat-promoting center is located in the hypothalamus,which triggers shivering.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Sperm cells get energy to power their movement from __________,which is contributed by the __________.
A) prostaglandins;prostate
B) sucrose;bulbourethral gland
C) fructose;seminal vesicles
D) seminogelin;prostate
E) semen;seminiferous gland
Q2) The countercurrent heat exchanger that prevents arterial blood from overheating the testes is the __________.
A) rete testis
B) epididymis
C) pampiniform plexus of veins
D) blood-testis barrier
E) scrotal portal system
Q3) Spermiogenesis is the last stage of meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nurse cells secrete inhibin,which regulates the rate of sperm production.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Most ovulation home test kits measure a surge of which hormone?
A) FSH
B) LH
C) Estradiol
D) Progesterone
E) HCG
Q2) Pregnancy kits test for the presence of what hormone?
A) Progesterone
B) Human chorionic gonadotropin
C) Estrogen
D) Luteinizing hormone
E) Follicle-stimulating hormone
Q3) What is the earliest sign of puberty in girls?
A) The onset of breast development
B) The appearance of pubic and axillary hair
C) The appearance of sebaceous and axillary glands
D) The first menstrual period
E) The increase in muscle mass
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Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging
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Q1) In the fast block to polyspermy,binding of sperm opens up __________ channels,which depolarizes the egg membrane and __________.
A) Na<sup>+</sup>;prevents the entrance of any more sperm
B) Na<sup>+</sup>;prevents the entrance of more Na<sup>+</sup>
C) Na<sup>+</sup>;prevents the entrance of Ca<sup>2+</sup>
D) Ca<sup>2+</sup>;prevents the entrance of any more sperm
E) Ca<sup>2+</sup>;prevents the entrance of more Na<sup>+</sup>
Q2) By the end of 8 weeks,the individual is considered a fetus because __________.
A) all the primary germ layers are formed
B) the amniotic cavity has formed
C) all of the organ systems are present
D) the neural tube and yolk sac have formed
E) the mesoderm has formed
Q3) A teratogen is most likely to cause __________.
A) a deformity of the limbs
B) aneuploidy
C) trisomy
D) nondisjunction
E) a mutation
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Chapter 30: Atlas a General Orientation to Human
Anatomy
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Q1) The appendicular region consists of the head,neck and trunk.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The fatty membrane that hangs like an apron from the inferolateral margin of the stomach and overlies the small intestine is called the __________.
A) greater omentum
B) mesentery
C) mesocolon
D) lesser omentum
E) mediastinum
Q3) The __________ system regulates blood volume and pressure,stimulates red blood cell formation,and controls fluid,electrolyte,and acid-base balance.
A) urinary
B) respiratory
C) digestive
D) muscular
E) circulatory
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