Advanced Human Biology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Human Biology delves into the complex structures and systems that underlie human health and function. This course explores in detail the biological processes that govern cellular communication, genetic inheritance, organ system integration, and physiological regulation. With a focus on current scientific research and technological advancements, students will critically analyze topics such as immunology, neurobiology, developmental biology, and pathophysiology. Through laboratory investigations and case studies, learners will develop advanced skills in scientific inquiry, data analysis, and problem-solving, preparing them for further study or professional practice in biomedical and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics Concepts and Applications 9th Edition by Ricki Lewis
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Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Q1) A test performed on secretions on a piece of fabric left at a crime scene that is used to implicate an apprehended suspect is
A) DNA replication.
B) RNA transcription.
C) DNA profiling.
D) DNA sharing.
E) gene expression profiling.
Answer: C
Q2) Shawn's mother and Heather's mother are sisters.Shawn and Heather have __ of their genes in common.
A) 1/2
B) 1/4
C) 1/8
D) 1/16
E) 1/32
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Cells
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Q1) At the point in the cell cycle when mitosis begins
A) the chromatids have separated into two identical chromosomes.
B) DNA replication begins.
C) each chromosome consists of two identical chromatids joined at the centromere.
D) chromosome number is halved.
E) the cell enters a dormant phase.
Answer: C
Q2) An experimental treatment for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease),which causes gradual loss of the ability to move,sends four genes into cells sampled from a patient's skin.This procedure reprograms the cells,which are then exposed to molecules and genes that stimulate them to develop as healthy versions of the cells affected in the disease.These cells are implanted into the patient.They are
A) embryonic stem cells.
B) adult connective tissue stem cells.
C) induced pluripotent stem cells.
D) apoptotic cells.
E) cloned cells.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Meiosis and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The placenta
A) transforms the breasts from fatty sacs to glands that secrete milk.
B) is where blood cells form before the fetus has bone marrow.
C) nourishes the fetus and secretes hormones that maintain the pregnancy.
D) is a membrane surrounding the embryo that gives rise to the blood vessels in the umbilical cord.
E) is the membrane that contains the fetus.
Answer: C
Q2) Which is a characteristic of seminal fluid?
A) It consists of sperm and secretions.
B) It is acidic.
C) It travels in the large intestine to the anus.
D) It is free of prostaglandins and nutrients.
E) It travels in a tube that parallels the urethra.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Q1) A severe disease that is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait is more likely to skip generations in a pedigree than an autosomal recessive trait that causes a harmless phenotypic variant because
A) all autosomal recessive traits skip generations.
B) a person with the harmless variant is less likely to reproduce than a person with the disease.
C) a person with an autosomal recessive disease is less likely to be well enough to reproduce than a person with a harmless trait variant.
D) all inborn errors of metabolism are dominant.
E) a family with an autosomal recessive disease is usually much smaller than a family with an autosomal recessive harmless trait variant.
Q2) Mendel's laws derive from
A) mitosis.
B) meiosis.
C) evolution.
D) processes unique to pea plants.
E) calculus and algebra.
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Chapter 5: Beyond Mendels Law
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Q1) In common English,"linkage" refers to one event that tends to occur when another does.In genetics,linkage has a precise meaning.It refers to A) two genes that have the same effect. B) two genes that have opposite effects.
C) two genes on different chromosomes.
D) two genes on the same chromosome.
E) genotype and phenotype.
Q2) A mitochondrial trait passes from A) mothers to all children.
B) fathers to daughters only.
C) mothers to daughters only.
D) fathers to sons only.
E) fathers to all children.
Q3) The mitochondrial genome consists of ___ genes.
A) 12
B) 37
C) 250
D) 370
E) 3,700.
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Chapter 6: Matters of Sex
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Q1) In female mammals,
A) the Y chromosome is shut off in every cell.
B) the maternally inherited X chromosome is shut off in every cell.
C) the paternally inherited X chromosome is shut off in some cells.
D) one X chromosome is shut off in a germline cell.
E) both SRY genes are activated.
Q2) The calculation for determining sex ratio is
A) multiplying the average times for each stage of mitosis in a particular cell type.
B) averaging the percentage of students who are female in many large school populations.
C) the number of males divided by the number of females multiplied by 1,000 for people of a particular age.
D) 1,000 minus the number of whichever sex is in excess.
E) the number of Y chromosomes in a population divided by one-third the number of X chromosomes.
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8
Chapter 7: Multifactorial Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) A continuously varying trait is
A) height in pea plants.
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) seed color in pea plants.
D) extra fingers and toes.
E) height in humans.
Q2) The empiric risk to a family member of an affected individual developing a disorder caused by a multifactorial trait
A) decreases with severity of the disorder.
B) increases with fewer affected family members.
C) decreases in larger families.
D) increases with increasing relatedness to affected individuals.
E) remains the same in a population.
Q3) The proportion of shared genes between a grandparent and grandchild is ___ percent.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 100
E) 0
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Chapter 8: Genetics of Behavior
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Q1) A likely biological basis of major depressive disorder is
A) reuptake pumps for serotonin in the presynaptic neuron membrane that do not function adequately.
B) absent reuptake pumps for serotonin in the presynaptic neuron membrane.
C) reuptake pumps for serotonin in the postsynaptic neuron membrane that do not function adequately.
D) reuptake pumps for serotonin in the postsynaptic neuron membrane that are overactive, depleting serotonin in the synapse.
E) reuptake pumps for dopamine in the presynaptic neuron membrane that do not function adequately.
Q2) LSD binds receptors that normally bind
A) dopamine.
B) serotonin.
C) epinephrine.
D) trace amines.
E) insulin.
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Chapter 9: DNA Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "steps" of the DNA double helix spiral staircase are
A) sugars.
B) hydrogen bonds.
C) base pairs.
D) nucleotides.
E) phosphates.
Q2) Which of the following is most correct regarding genes,DNA and protein?
A) A gene is a section of DNA whose sequence encodes a particular protein, which is composed of amino acids.
B) A gene is a section of a chromosomal DNA composed of many amino acids.
C) DNA is composed of many genes, which are formed from amino acid sequences.
D) A gene is composed of amino acids whose sequence encodes a particular protein.
E) DNA is composed of amino acids, which encode the protein and genotype.
Q3) The DNA researcher who had his genome sequenced is A) Francis Crick.
B) James Watson.
C) Frederick Griffith.
D) Rosalind Franklin.
E) Jay Leno.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Gene Action: From Dna to Protein
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Q1) The scientists who identified a set of coordinately regulated genes,called an operon,responsible for lactose metabolism in E.coli were
A)Watson and Crick.
B)Meselson and Stahl.
C)Jacob and Monod.
D)Hershey and Chase.
E)Linus and Pauling.
Q2) A signal sequence
A) directs RNA nucleotides to a particular gene.
B) attracts tRNAs to an mRNA.
C) is the first part of a protein's amino acid sequence that helps to direct it to a certain part of the cell.
D) is a coding codon that mutates into a stop codon.
E) is part of proteins that are synthesized on free ribosomes.
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Chapter 11: Gene Expression and Epigenetics
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Q1) In the adult pancreas,the beta,alpha,gamma,and F cells are
A) stem cells.
B) progenitor cells.
C) differentiated cells.
D) blood cells.
E) connective tissue cells.
Q2) Blood plasma contains about ____ different types of proteins,but only ___ types account for 90 percent of the total number of proteins.
A) 40,000; 10
B) 20,000; 20
C) 1,000; 100
D) 500; 35
E) 20; 10
Q3) Chromatin remodeling can block ________ and microRNA binding can block
A) transcription; translation
B) translation; transcription
C) synthesis of tRNAs; synthesis of rRNAs
D) DNA replication; DNA repair
E) acetylation; phosphorylation
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Chapter 12: Gene Mutation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations in the lamin A gene are responsible for very diverse disorders because
A)different tissues have different variants of the gene.
B)lamin A proteins affect how chromatin touches the nuclear membrane.
C)many different results occur.
D)every tissue type has lamin A.
E)they are only active under certain conditions.
Q2) Four children of a man and woman who are second cousins have too few teeth,an autosomal recessive condition called oligodontia caused by mutation in a gene called LTPB3 on chromosome 11.The affected individuals are also short with increased bone density in the spine and skull.The protein that causes the symptoms by affecting certain bone cells is too short.The mutation in this family is most likely
A) a missense mutation.
B) a nonsense mutation.
C) a deletion of 9 bases.
D) a duplication of the gene.
E) a replacement of all purines with pyrimidines.
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes
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Q1) A karyotype that uses FISH that shows two chromosomes,each with two colors,but in the opposite patterns,most likely indicates a
A) Robertsonian translocation.
B) pericentric inversion.
C) paracentric inverson.
D) reciprocal translocation.
E) isochromosome.
Q2) Only nine types of aneuploids are known in newborns because
A) only nine chromosomes undergo nondisjunction.
B) most types of aneuploids are lethal early in development.
C) most aneuploids do not cause detectable defects.
D) missing chromosomes cause most lethal aneuploids.
E) most aneuploids do not affect the phenotype.
Q3) CVS reveals a fetus has the karyotype 45,X.What is the diagnosis?
A) normal male
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Turner syndrome
D) Patau syndrome
E) Down syndrome
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Chapter 14: Constant Allele Frequencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who invented DNA profiling?
A) Godfrey Hardy
B) William Weinberg
C) Alec Jeffreys
D) Linus Pauling
E) Godfrey Hardy and William Weinberg
Q2) DNA profiling was less useful in identifying remains from the 2004 tsunami than in criminal cases because
A) the DNA after the tsunami was too wet to analyze.
B) rescuers could not get to the scene of the tsunami in time to collect DNA.
C) the tsunami left few bodies with collectible DNA.
D) not enough repeats were profiled.
E) none of the victims were listed in the FBI's files.
Q3) Which of the following would not alter a gene's frequency in a population?
A) mutation
B) migration
C) random mating
D) inbreeding
E) a bottleneck
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Chapter 15: Changing Allele Frequencies
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Q1) The population of HIV variants in a person's body changes during the course of infection due to
A) natural selection.
B) mutation.
C) migration.
D) genetic drift.
E) genetic load.
Q2) A person who is a heterozygote for G6PD deficiency is protected against A) malaria.
B) diphtheria.
C) tuberculosis.
D) cholera.
E) sickle cell disease.
Q3) Which of these affects allele frequencies the least?
A) natural selection
B) mutation
C) migration
D) nonrandom mating
E) genetic drift
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Human Ancestry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fact that Hox genes of very similar sequence are found in bacteria,flowering plants,insects,birds,amphibians,and mammals indicates that these genes are
A) lowly conserved.
B) variably expressive.
C) highly pleiotropic.
D) highly conserved.
E) highly eclectic.
Q2) A study of certain nuclear genes in humans and chimpanzees shows that the two species differ in 5 percent of their DNA bases.Base substitution mutations occur at a rate of 1 percent per one million years.How many million years ago did these species diverge?
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 3
D) 5
E) 300
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18
Chapter 17: Genetics of Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an allograft,the tissue donor is
A) the recipient.
B) a non-relative.
C) a dizygotic twin.
D) a member of a different species.
E) a monozygotic twin.
Q2) Identifying combinations of _______ alleles is useful in tissue typing,establishing identity,and estimating disease risk.
A) HIV
B) CCR5
C) HLA
D) antibody
E) erythrocyte
Q3) B cells secrete antibodies when they
A) bind antigens.
B) are engulfed by macrophages.
C) become T cells.
D) are stimulated by activated T cells.
E) undergo apoptosis.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) The term used to describe the fact that cancer cells have lost the specializations of the cells from which they descend is
A) heritable.
B) angiogenic.
C) oncogenic.
D) dedifferentiated.
E) apoptotic.
Q2) Matthew has the inherited form of the eye cancer retinoblastoma.His disease is caused by
A) a germinal mutation in one RB allele, and no mutation in the other allele.
B) a somatic mutation in each copy of the RB gene in the same cell.
C) a germinal mutation in one RB allele, then a somatic mutation in the other allele.
D) a somatic mutation in the one of the RB genes in the same area of the retina of one eye.
E) activation of the X-linked oncogene RB.
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Chapter 19: Genetic Technologies: Amplifying, Modifying, and Monitoring DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tiny fat bubbles used to deliver genes are
A) electropores.
B) phospholipids.
C) cholesterols.
D) liposomes.
E) plasmids.
Q2) The requirements for patenting of an invention involving DNA in the U.S.are that it
A) be new, useful, and not obvious to an expert in the field.
B) be obvious, but no one had previously been able to accomplish it.
C) be helpful and affordable.
D) be new, useful, and predicted by experts in the field.
E) combine DNA from different species in the same cell.
Q3) The first drug produced using recombinant DNA technology was A) insulin.
B) streptokinase.
C) tPA.
D) EPO.
E) Viagra.
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Chapter 20: Genetic Testing and Treatment
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Q1) Germline gene therapy would correct a genetic defect in
A) an unaffected individual only.
B) an unaffected individual and his or her offspring.
C) an affected individual and all of his or her descendants.
D) the parents of an affected individual.
E) the unaffected sibling of an affected individual.
Q2) Performing gene therapy on somatic cells removed from the body and then returned to the body is called _______ gene therapy.
A) in vivo
B) in situ
C) in vitro
D) ex vivo
E) ex geno
Q3) Muscle is a good target for gene therapy because
A) it is an abundant tissue with a rich blood supply.
B) muscular dystrophy is an autosomal dominant trait.
C) genes that function in muscles tend to be small.
D) muscle cells can be stimulated to divide with exercise.
E) the musculature is similar in males and females.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Reproductive Technologies
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Q1) In gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT),fertilization occurs in
A) the uterus.
B) a culture dish.
C) a uterine tube.
D) a testis.
E) the ovary.
Q2) An example of the type of information that can be learned by research using donated human fertilized ova and embryos is
A) when talents such as musical ability or excellence in languages arise in the fetus.
B) when the genome in the new individual becomes actively transcribed.
C) when the brain begins to function and the embryo can think and feel pain.
D) how human prenatal development differs from that of other animals.
E) a man with XXY syndrome not only makes abnormal sperm, but also embryos.
Q3) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)screens _______ for genetic disorders.
A) oocytes
B) spermatocytes
C) polar bodies
D) early embryos
E) spermatids
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an insufficient number of genomes are cut in a sequencing run,the result could be A) gaps.
B) mutations.
C) single nucleotide polymorphisms.
D) duplications.
E) inverted sequences.
Q2) The term genomics means
A) the study of genotypes.
B) population genetics.
C) the study of genetic disease.
D) the study of genes.
E) the study of genomes.
Q3) An initial objection to sequencing the human genome was that it would take funding away from a pressing health concern of the time.This problem was A) the AIDS epidemic.
B) tuberculosis and malaria in developing nations.
C) swine flu, which was threatening to be a pandemic.
D) SARS.
E) a dramatic increase in the incidence of lung cancer.
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