Advanced Hematology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Hematology explores the complex biology and pathology of blood and blood-forming tissues. The course covers detailed aspects of hematopoiesis, red and white blood cell disorders, platelet physiology, coagulation mechanisms, and transfusion medicine. Students examine the molecular and genetic basis of hematologic diseases, including anemias, leukemias, lymphomas, and coagulopathies, as well as diagnostic techniques and laboratory methodologies such as flow cytometry, cytogenetics, and advanced microscopy. Emphasis is placed on integrating current research, evidence-based practices, and case studies to prepare students for clinical or research careers in hematology.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Hematology and Fundamentals of Hemostasis 5th Edition by Denise M. Harmening
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36 Chapters
1596 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Morphology of Human Blood and Marrow Cells:
Hematopoiesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cell in the granulocytic series is present in greatest percentages in the normal bone marrow?
A) Band neutrophil
B) Promyelocyte
C) Metamyelocyte
D) Myelocyte
E) None of the above
Answer: A
Q2) What stages do both basophils and eosinophils pass through in their sequence of maturity?
A) Promyelocyte, myelocyte, band cell, segmented cell
B) Myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, band cell, segmented cell
C) Myelocyte, metamyelocyte, band cell, segmented cell
D) Band cell, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, segmented cell
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Bone Marrow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hematogones are thought to be committed progenitor cells of what lineage?
A) Granulocytic
B) Platelets
C) Erythrocytic
D) Monocytic
E) Lymphoid
Answer: E
Q2) Why is a clotted marrow specimen unacceptable for hematologic smears?
A) Cells would not stain.
B) Fibrin threads would impede spreading.
C) Fluid would be discolored.
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Red Blood Cell: Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of hemoglobin is to:
A) Deliver oxygen to the tissues
B) Consume oxygen
C) Deliver carbon dioxide to the tissues
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Which principal peripheral protein represents approximately 75% of the peripheral RBC membrane protein and 25% of the total membrane protein?
A) Spectrin
B) Actin
C) Glycophorin
D) Ankyrin
E) None of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Anemia: Diagnosis and Clinical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with microcytic anemia might have which of the following diseases?
A) Iron-deficiency anemia
B) Sideroblastic anemia
C) Lead poisoning
D) Thalassemia
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following can cause anemia?
A) Blood loss
B) Iron or vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency
C) Cancer
D) Infection
E) All of the above
Q3) A patient whose RBC indices are MCV = 80 fL, MCH = 28 pg, and mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 34% would be classified as:
A) Normocytic/normochromic
B) Normocytic/hyperchromic
C) Microcytic/hypochromic
D) Normocytic/hypochromic
E) None of the above
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Chapter 5: Evaluation of Red Blood Cell Morphology and
Introduction to Platelet and White Blood Cell Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Codocyte is another name for which type of red cell?
A) Drepanocyte
B) Ovalocyte
C) Sickle cell
D) Spherocyte
E) Target cells
Q2) A 4+ grading for anisocytosis would indicate what percentage of red blood cells (RBCs) would differ from the normal red cells?
A) 5-10%
B) 25-50%
C) 50-75%
D) >75%
E) 10-25%
Q3) All of the following are proposed mechanisms of macrocytosis except:
A) Impaired DNA synthesis
B) Impaired RNA synthesis
C) Accelerated erythropoiesis
D) Increased membrane cholesterol and lecithin
E) None of the above
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Chapter 6: Iron Metabolism and Hypochromic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) For infants, what are the minimal daily requirements for iron and the corresponding iron content of food required?
A) 1.0 mg/10 mg
B) 2.0 mg/20 mg
C) 3.0 mg/30 mg
D) 0.5 mg/5 mg
Q2) Which of the following represent(s) stained iron particles in the RBC?
A) Heinz bodies
B) Howell-Jolly bodies
C) Pappenheimer bodies
D) Cabot rings
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is stored in macrophages and can be visualized in bone marrow aspirates by staining with Prussian blue?
A) Hemosiderin
B) Transferrin
C) Hemopexin
D) Haptoglobin
E) None of the above
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Chapter 7: Megaloblastic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the etiology of ineffective hematopoiesis in megaloblastic anemia?
A) Decreased mature cells in peripheral blood
B) Premature death of precursor cells in the bone marrow
C) Increased mature cells in peripheral blood
D) A and B
E) None of the above
Q2) An elderly white male of Scandinavian descent presents with the following hematopoietic studies: MCV = 115 fL, 3+ oval macrocytes, 20% hypersegmented neutrophils. What hematologic condition is suspected?
A) Iron-deficiency anemia
B) Megaloblastic anemia
C) Thalassemia
D) Anemia of chronic disorders
E) None of the above
Q3) Where is vitamin B<sub>12 </sub>stored?
A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Kidney
D) Bone marrow
E) None of the above
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Chapter 8: Aplastic Anemia Including Pure Red Cell Aplasia and
Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia and Paroxysmal
Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does a bone biopsy reveal in a patient with aplastic anemia?
A) Hypercellularity
B) Hypocellularity
C) Increase in all cell lines
D) Two of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the treatment of choice for a patient younger than 50 years of age who has aplastic anemia?
A) Bone marrow transplant
B) Steroids
C) Androgens
D) Cord blood transplant
E) None of the above
Q3) Which is a congenital disease associated with aplastic anemia?
A) Fanconi's anemia
B) Richter's syndrome
C) Hodgkin's disease
D) Kala-azar
E) None of the above
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemias:
Intracorpuscular Defects: I Hereditary Defects of the Red
Cell Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following laboratory results are characteristic of HS?
A) Increased MCHC
B) Abnormal osmotic fragility test
C) Abnormal autohemolysis test
D) Normal MCV (mean corpuscular volume) and MCH (mean corpuscular hemoglobin)
E) All of the above
Q2) What does the autohemolysis test measure?
A) Surface-to-volume ratio of the RBC
B) Structural and metabolic integrity of RBC membrane
C) Amount of RBC membrane spectrin
D) RBC metabolic pathways
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following RPI results will suggest an inadequate response of erythropoiesis by bone marrow in response to anemia?
A) >3.0
B) 2.0-3.0
C) <2.0
D) 2.5
E) None of the above
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Chapter 10: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: II
Hereditary Enzyme Deficiencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which red cell inclusion is characteristic of G6PD deficiency?
A) Cabot ring
B) Howell-Jolly body
C) Heinz body
D) Pappenheimer bodies
E) Siderotic granule
Q2) What is the major clinical feature of a patient with methemoglobinemia?
A) Reticulocytosis
B) Cyanosis
C) Splenomegaly
D) Pallor
E) Favism
Q3) The presence of Heinz bodies is related to which enzyme deficiency?
A) Gd A-
B) Gd Med
C) Pyruvate kinase
D) Two of the above
E) All of the above
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Chapter 11: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: III
the Hemoglobinopathies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following therapies represents the "mainstay" of treatment for painful crises to correct fluid and electrolyte deficits in patients with sickle cell anemia?
A) Aspirin
B) Hydration (administration of fluid volume)
C) Antibiotics
D) Transfusion therapy
E) Plasmapheresis
Q2) Which of the following cannot be used as a screening test for hemoglobin S in newborns?
A) Tube solubility tests
B) Sodium metabisulfite sickle prep
C) Hemoglobin electrophoresis
D) A and C
E) A and B
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13
Chapter 12: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects:
Thalassemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for thalassemia major?
A) Cooley's anemia
B) Fanconi's anemia
C) Alpha thalassemia
D) Schilling's syndrome
E) None of the above
Q2) Decreased or absent alpha-chain production will result in:
A) Decreased gamma chain production during fetal life and adult life
B) Excess gamma chain production during fetal life and at birth
C) No gamma chain production during fetal life
D) No gamma chain production during adult life
E) None of the above
Q3) The characteristic facial changes in a patient diagnosed with thalassemia major include hypertrophy of maxilla, widely spared eyes, and prominent cheekbones. This is the result of:
A) Expansion of marrow space
B) Extramedullary hematopoiesis
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency
D) Increase in hemoglobins
E) None of the above
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Anemias: Extracorpuscular Defects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical features suggests a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction has occurred?
A) Mild fever
B) Mild jaundice
C) Unexpected fall in hemoglobin
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The spherocyte is indicative of:
A) Liver damage
B) Intravascular hemolysis
C) Extravascular hemolysis
D) Non-immune-mediated hemolysis
E) None of the above
Q3) A drug mechanism that results in a positive DAT with IgG specificity and a reactive eluate that usually mimics anti-e specificity is:
A) Immune complex
B) Drug absorption
C) Membrane modification
D) Methyldopa-induced
E) Autoimmune
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Chapter 14: Hypoproliferative Anemia: Anemia Associated With Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of both immature white and red cells on a peripheral smear is referred to as:
A) Leukoerythrocytopenia
B) Leukoerythroblastosis
C) Leukoerythrocytosis
D) Myelophthisic
E) Leukopenia
Q2) Most HIV-infected patients develop __________.
A) Reticulocytosis
B) Leukocytosis
C) Pancytopenia
D) Macrocytosis
E) Erythrocytosis
Q3) In anemia associated with renal disease, the anemia that develops is the result of inadequate quantity of circulating:
A) Erythropoietin (EPO)
B) Thrombopoietin
C) Interleukin (IL-1)
D) G-CSF
E) GM-CSF
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Cell Biology, Disorders of Neutrophils, Infectious
Mononucleosis, and Reactive Lymphocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neutropenia can be due to:
A) Decrease in production by the bone marrow
B) Impaired release from the marrow into the blood
C) Maldistribution resulting in pseudoneutropenia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following morphologies differentiates reactive lymphocyte from monocytes?
A) Pale blue-gray cytoplasm
B) Even staining quality
C) Increased patchy basophilic cytoplasm
D) Cytoplasmic vacuolation
E) None of the above
Q3) Myeloperoxidase is present in the primary granules of __________.
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Monocytes/macrophages
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Leukemia and the Acute Leukemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following indicators correlate to children with a poor prognosis for ALL?
A) Older age (>13 years)
B) L2 and L3 morphology
C) High WBC count
D) Chromosome abnormalities
E) All of the above
Q2) Which type of ALL occurs primarily in adults?
A) L1
B) L2
C) L3
D) L4
E) None of the above
Q3) What clinical features suggest a chronic leukemia?
A) Insidious clinical onset
B) Mild organomegaly and presence of immature leukemic cells
C) Variable white blood cell (WBC) count
D) Low WBC count
E) All of the above
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Chapter 17: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders I: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML) is characterized by examining the production of __________ and their precursors.
A) Erythrocytes
B) Platelets
C) Granulocytes
D) Lymphocytes
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the chromosomal abnormality in CML?
A) t(8;14)
B) t(9;22)
C) t(1;12)
D) Trisomy 12
E) t(15;17)
Q3) When CML is diagnosed in infants and toddlers, it is called __________ CML.
A) Young
B) Juvenile
C) Infant
D) Myelofibrosis
E) AML
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Chapter 18: Chronic
Myeloproliferative
Polycythemia Vera, Essential Thrombocythemia, and
Idiopathic Myelofibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the hypercellular (prefibrotic) phase of chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis (CIMF), the bone marrow displays panhyperplasia with a predominance of __________.
A) Megakaryocytes
B) Granulocytes
C) Lymphocytes
D) Erythrocytes
E) A and B are correct
Q2) What is/are the strongest differentiating feature(s) that distinguish chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML) from IMF?
A) Decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)
B) Presence of Philadelphia chromosome
C) Splenomegaly
D) A and B
E) B and C
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20
Chapter 19: Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The myeloid-to-erythroid ratio in MDS:
A) Is increased
B) Is decreased
C) Represents normal hematopoiesis
D) Represents decreased erythropoiesis
E) None of the above
Q2) The French-American-British (FAB) classification system separates the myelodysplastic syndromes into __________ different types.
A) One
B) Three
C) Five
D) Six
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following biological and/or genetic anomalies are important in the pathogenesis of MDS?
A) Chromosomal translocations
B) Chromosomal deletions
C) Hemolysis
D) Increased intramedullary apoptosis
E) B and D
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Chapter 20: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia and Related
Lymphoproliferative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following is true regarding hairy cell leukemia:
A) Pancytopenia is a common finding
B) Lymphocytes appear as hair-like cytoplasmic projections
C) Alkaline phosphatase is not inhibited by tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) reaction
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q2) The laboratory test for detecting minimal residual disease in patients who have previously been treated for CLL but currently lack histopathologic evidence of relapse is the:
A) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
B) Complete blood count (CBC) and differential
C) Electrophoresis
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 21: The Lymphomas
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Sample Questions
Q1) What current view is accepted as the etiology for Hodgkin's disease?
A) A malignant proliferation of Reed-Sternberg cells and their variants
B) A benign proliferation of Reed-Sternberg cells and their variants
C) A malignant proliferation of plasmacytoid lymphocytes and their variants
D) A benign proliferation of plasmacytoid lymphocytes and their variants
E) None of the above
Q2) The diffuse aggressive lymphomas are:
A) Seldom curable
B) Rapidly fatal if untreated
C) Best treated with a combination of surgery and radiotherapy
D) Single-agent chemotherapy is the treatment of choice.
E) All of the above
Q3) All of the following are conditions associated with an increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin's lymphoma except:
A) Sjögren's syndrome
B) Sarcoidosis
C) Niemann-Pick disease
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
E) AIDS
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Multiple Myeloma and Related Plasma Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial infection is the most common cause of death in multiple myeloma patients due to __________.
A) Decreased production of normal immunoglobulin
B) Increased production of normal immunoglobulin
C) Anemia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the cause of decreased production of formed elements in the marrow (red cells, white cells, platelets) seen in patients with multiple myeloma?
A) Stem cell defect
B) Malignant plasma cell mass replaces normal marrow
C) Growth factor deficiency
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 23: Lipid Lysosomal Storage Diseases and Histiocytosis
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Q1) In some patients with mucopolysaccharidoses, leukocytes such as lymphocytes and polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) contain abnormally large granules. These large granules are called:
A) Alder-Reilly bodies
B) Howell-Jolly bodies
C) Döhle bodies
D) Chédiak-Higashi anomaly
E) May-Hegglin anomaly
Q2) Which stain is used to aid in confirmation of Alder-Reilly bodies?
A) Wright's stain
B) New methylene blue
C) Giemsa stain
D) Toluidine blue
E) Prussian blue
Q3) Which of the following are hematologic findings in Gaucher's disease?
A) Normocytic normochromic anemia
B) Decreased iron in erythroid precursors
C) Leukopenia
D) Thrombocytopenia
E) All of the above
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents factor IV?
A) Prothrombin
B) Stuart-Prower factor
C) Calcium
D) Hageman factor
E) None of the above
Q2) The organelle zone is composed of __________.
A) Alpha granules
B) Dense granules
C) Lysosomes
D) Glycogen
E) All of the above
Q3) Which constituent of the peripheral zone contain glycoproteins responsible for blood group specificity (ABO), tissue compatibility [human leukocyte antigen (HLA)], and platelet antigenicity?
A) Glycocalyx
B) Plasma membrane
C) Open canalicular system
D) Submembranous region
E) None of the above
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Chapter 25: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis: Quantitative and
Qualitative Platelet Disorders and Vascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ineffective thrombopoiesis is defined as:
A) The state in which the number of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow is normal to increased, but maturation and release is abnormal
B) The state in which the number of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow is decreased
C) The state in which the number of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow is normal to decreased, but maturation and release is normal
D) The state in which the number of thrombocytes in the bone marrow is normal to increased, but maturation and release is abnormal
E) None of the above
Q2) Decreased platelet production may be associated with congenital or acquired disorders that affect the bone marrow, resulting in __________.
A) Megakaryocytic hypoplasia
B) Megakaryocytic hyperplasia
C) Myeloblast hypoplasia
D) Erythroid hypoplasia
E) None of the above
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27
Chapter 26: Disorders of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-factor VIII antibodies (inhibitors) may arise:
A) Spontaneously
B) In the elderly
C) Due to factor replacement therapy
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
Q2) In the laboratory assessment of hemophilia B, the one-stage APTT factor assay for factor IX is __________.
A) Increased
B) Normal
C) Decreased
D) Variable
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the treatment of choice in the acquired dysprothrombinemias?
A) Immunosuppressive drugs
B) Whole blood
C) Prothrombin complex concentrates
D) Hormonal therapy
E) None of the above
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Chapter 27:
Interaction
Fibrinolytic,
Kinin Systems; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation; and Related Pathology
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Q1) Which of the following has/have been used in the treatment of TTP?
A) Antiplatelet drugs
B) Plasmapheresis
C) Exchange transfusion
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
Q2) Venous occlusion and strenuous exercise release which of the following from the endothelium?
A) Activated protein C
B) Protein S
C) TPA
D) Thrombomodulin
E) All of the above
Q3) The molecular components of the fibrinolytic system consist of all of the following except:
A) Plasminogen
B) Plasmin
C) Thrombin
D) <sub>2</sub>-anti-Plasmin inhibitor
E) Fibrin/fibrinogen Page 29
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Page 30
Chapter 28: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which inherited thrombotic disorder may present clinically as neonatal purpura fulminans and with coagulation test results indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A) Homozygous protein C deficiency
B) Activated protein C resistance
C) Heterozygous protein C deficiency
D) Heterozygous protein S deficiency
E) None of the above
Q2) All of the following are true about low-molecular-weight heparin therapy except:
A) It can be easier for both the physician and patient and therapeutic monitoring is not always required.
B) It can be given subcutaneously, and patients can administer it to themselves. C) It is much less expensive than unfractionated heparin therapy and never causes HIT. D) If monitoring is required, it cannot be monitored via the APTT. E) It requires monitoring by a target concentration strategy.
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Chapter 29: Quality Control in the Hematology Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which Westgard rule refers to one data point exceeding the ±2 SD limit?
A) 1<sub>2s</sub>
B) 1<sub>3s</sub>
C) 2<sub>2s</sub>
D) 4<sub>1s</sub>
Q2) Which quality approach requires performance to be measured against another world-class company?
A) Root cause analysis
B) Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
C) Benchmarking
D) Lean
Q3) Which Westgard rule refers to four consecutive control measurements exceeding the +1 SD or -1 SD limit on the same side of the graph?
A) 1<sub>2s</sub>
B) 1<sub>3s</sub>
C) 2<sub>2s</sub>
D) 4<sub>1s</sub>
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Chapter
and
Morphologic Analysis of Serous, Cerebrospinal, and Synovial Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The removal of synovial fluid is known as ______________.
A) Arthrocentesis
B) Thoracentesis
C) Paracentesis
D) Lumbar puncture
Q2) For cerebrospinal fluid analysis, which tube is used for chemical analysis?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q3) A technologist is performing a total cell count on a synovial fluid. He prepares the undiluted fluid on a hemacytometer. An average of 213 cells was seen in 4 mm<sup>2</sup> of the chamber on each side of the hemacytometer. Calculate the total cell count.
A) 237 cells/µL
B) 533 cells/µL
C) 2681 cells/µL
D) 10,650 cells/µL
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Hematology Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal WBC values for a 2-year old are ________.
A) 4.8-10.8 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 5-21 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 6.2-17 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 6-17.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
E) 5-19.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
Q2) In states of ________, the reticulocyte percentage is not a true reflection of reticulocyte production.
A) Anemia
B) Polycythemia
C) Infection
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) The hematocrit is usually determined via the _________ method.
A) Cytoprep
B) Cytospin
C) Microcentrifuge
D) Radioimmunoassay
E) None of the above
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Chapter 32: Principles of Automated Differential Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a WBC count measured by automated methods that would require a manual differential by certain laboratories is:
A) <4.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 5.5-10.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) >15.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) A, B, and C
E) A and C
Q2) In the Coulter S Plus IV differential analysis of WBCs, those cells with volume ranging from 160 to 450 fL are classified as __________.
A) Lymphocytes
B) Granulocytes
C) Mononuclear cells
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 33: Coagulation Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In patients with __________, the PT is prolonged as a result of a change in the ratio of anticoagulant to plasma.
A) Iron-deficiency anemia
B) Thalassemia
C) Polycythemia
D) Liver disease
E) None of the above
Q2) The __________ is the assay used for the one-stage quantitative method for factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII?
A) PT
B) APTT
C) TT
D) Fibrinogen assay
E) None of the above
Q3) Patients with __________ show a decrease in factor VIII antigen.
A) Hemophilia A
B) vWD
C) Female carriers of hemophilia A
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 34: Applications of Flow Cytometry to Hematology and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flow cytometry is a technology that provides rapid measurement of:
A) Physical characteristics of cells
B) Cellular stain affinities
C) Suspension fluidics
D) Sample laminar flow rate
Q2) Residual white blood cells are detected in red blood cell packs by flow cytometry based on the presence of:
A) Lipids
B) Lysosomes
C) DNA
D) Granules
Q3) Immunophenotyping is a staining approach that uses antibodies chemically linked to fluorochromes to recognize cell types by identifying specific ______________ on the surface of the cell or inside the cell.
A) Antibodies
B) Antigens
C) Haptens
D) Light chains
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Chapter 35: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques in Hematopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major advantage of fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)?
A) Permits visualization of target DNA in the context of karyotypic visualization of metaphase chromosomes
B) Requires live cells capable of entering mitosis to interpret results in interphase chromosomes
C) Visualization of fluorochrome requires input light source
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is/are clinical applications of PCR?
A) Detect foreign nucleic acid characteristic of infectious diseases
B) Detect DNA that has a particular cancer-associated defect
C) Detect minimal residual disease
D) Detect clonal immunoglobulin or T-cell receptor gene rearrangement
E) All of the above
Q3) Which substance acts as an intermediary to DNA in transmitting genetic information?
A) Oncogenes
B) Chromosomes
C) RNA (ribonucleic acid)
D) Nucleotides
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Chapter 36: Special Stainscytochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Material that stains PAS positive appears __________.
A) Bluish-green
B) Bright orange
C) Bright red
D) Pink
E) None of the above
Q2) Which specimen requirements apply to the TdT test?
A) A nonheparinized bone marrow aspirate
B) Separated marrow cells washed with culture media
C) Slides must be stored at 4°C in the dark
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
Q3) The alternate peroxidase stain differs from the regular procedure by using the substrate __________, which results in peroxidase positive granules stained
A) Benzidine dihydrochloride/red-brown
B) Benzidine dihydrochloride/black
C) 3-Amino-9-ethylcarbazole/red-brown
D) 3-Amino-9-ethylcarbazole/black
E) None of the above
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