Advanced Hematology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Advanced Hematology offers an in-depth exploration of the physiological and pathological aspects of blood and blood-forming tissues. This course covers the molecular and cellular basis of hematopoiesis, hemostasis, and immune cell function, as well as advanced diagnostic methods for identifying blood disorders. Students will analyze the pathophysiology, clinical manifestations, and laboratory findings of anemias, leukemias, lymphomas, coagulopathies, and hemoglobinopathies. Special emphasis is placed on emerging therapies, transfusion medicine, and the role of genomics in hematologic disease management. Laboratory sessions and case studies support practical understanding and application of current research in hematology.
Recommended Textbook
Hematology in Practice 2nd Edition by Betty
Ciesla
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19 Chapters
414 Verified Questions
414 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Hematology and Basic Laboratory Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the definition of a reference interval?
A) A solution of a known amount of analyte
B) Materials analyzed concurrently with unknown samples
C) Values established for a particular analyte, given a method, instrument, or patient population
D) Validation techniques on flagged samples
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is not considered a postanalytic variable?
A) Delta checks
B) Proper anticoagulant used
C) Specimen checked for clots
D) Critical results called
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following behaviors is a violation of standard precautions?
A) Handwashing after glove removal
B) Use of impermeable laboratory gowns
C) Use of goggles and face shields
D) Placing laboratory notebooks on laboratory work area
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: From Hematopoiesis to the Complete Blood Count
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opsonizing antibodies produced by the spleen serve to:
A) Strip the capsule from bacterial pathogens
B) Recycle erythrocyte byproducts
C) Aid in extramedullary hematopoiesis
D) Fight viral infection
Answer: A
Q2) A patient's hemoglobin is 12.3 g/dL.On the peripheral smear, the red cells appear normochromic, normocytic.The hematocrit value that correlates with these data is:
A) 34%
B) 37%
C) 40%
D) 43%
Answer: B
Q3) Erythropoietin is produced by the:
A) Kidneys
B) Liver
C) Spleen
D) Thymus gland
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and
Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term used to describe the inclusions seen in the cell at the end of the pointer is (Wright's stain):
A) Pappenheimer bodies
B) Basophilic stippling
C) Howell Jolly bodies
D) Siderotic granules
Answer: B
Q2) Identify the cell at the end of the pointer.
A) Spherocyte
B) Schistocyte
C) Acanthocyte
D) Normocyte
Answer: A
Q3) The red cell inclusion derived from denatured hemoglobin are:
A) Howell-Jolly bodies
B) Pappenheimer bodies
C) Heinz bodies
D) Siderotic granules
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Hemoglobin Function and Principles of Hemolysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemoglobin begins to be synthesized at the polychromatophilic stage of red cell development.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When iron is present in an oxidized state, as Fe<sup>+3</sup> or ferric iron, the resulting hemoglobin is known as:
A) Methemoglobin
B) Carboxyhemoglobin
C) Sulfhemoglobin
D) Deoxyhemoglobin
Q3) Which organ(s) is the most affected during extravascular lysis?
A) Liver and spleen
B) Kidney
C) Pancreas
D) Heart
Q4) How many genes are responsible for the productions of alpha chains?
A) Two
B) One
C) Three
D) Four
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Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The alpha thalassemias result from:
A) Gene deletion
B) Defective alpha genes
C) Iron overload
D) Excessive production of alpha chains
Q2) Which inclusion is associated with a "pitted," golf ball appearance?
A) Hgb H inclusion
B) Howell-Jolly body
C) Cabot rings
D) Pappenheimer bodies
Q3) A 15-year-old Lebanese boy was sent to the laboratory for an evaluation of anemia and had the following lab results:
A) WBC = 7.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) RBC = 5.9 \(\times\) 10<sup>12</sup>/L
C) Hgb = 11.6 g/dL
D) Hct = 36%
Q4) In regards to the thalassemias, the deficit has nothing to do with iron.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Macrocytic Anemias
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most common pathophysiologies that contribute to folic acid deficiency is:
A) Tropical sprue
B) Intrinsic factor deficiency
C) IDA
D) Infection with Diphyllobothrium latum
Q2) All of the following are true about intrinsic factor (IF) except:
A) Partial gastrectomy may lead to the lack of IF.
B) 56% of patients with pernicious anemia have antibodies to IF.
C) Atrophic gastritis may lead to the lack of IF.
D) Kidney failure may lead to lack of IF.
Q3) The Schilling test continues to be an historic reference method for the determination of:
A) IDA
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Folic acid deficiency
D) Hereditary hemochromatosis
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8
Chapter 7: Normochromic Anemias: Biochemical,
Membrane, and Miscellaneous Red Blood Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the least severe clinical manifestations of G6PD deficiency is:
A) Acute hemolytic anemia
B) Favism
C) Neonatal jaundice
D) Congenital non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia
Q2) An anemia that manifests as decreased marrow cellularity, pancytopenia, and a reticulocytopenia is appropriately termed:
A) Megaloblastic anemia
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Sideroblastic anemia
D) Iron deficiency anemia
Q3) The cell pictured at the tip of the pointer is known as a (an):
A) Sickle cell
B) Acanthocyte
C) Bite cell
D) Stomatocyte
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9
Chapter 8: The Normochromic Anemias Caused by
Hemoglobinopathies
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with sickle cell anemia may develop cardiopulmonary disease due to:
A) Untreated leg ulcers
B) High blood viscosity
C) Increased Hgb F levels
D) Hemolytic crisis
Q2) Which of the following "poikilocytes" are classically associated with hemoglobinopathies and liver disease?
A) Spherocytes
B) Sickle cells
C) Acanthocytes
D) Target cells
Q3) In hemoglobin C disease, the majority of the red cells appear as:
A) Target cells
B) Spherocytes
C) Elliptocytes
D) "Bars of gold"
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Chapter 9: Leukopoiesis and Leukopoietic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymphocyte concentrations in peripheral blood are greatest during what age interval?
A) Immediately after birth
B) Older adult (40 to 70 years)
C) Young adult (16 to 40 years)
D) Young child (1 to 4 years)
Q2) All of the following are features of the lymphatic system except:
A) Stimulation of the kidney by EPO
B) Blood filtration
C) Antibody generation
D) Lymphopoiesis
Q3) The initial appearance of specific granulation in the granulocytic series is predominantly seen in the:
A) Promyelocyte
B) Metamyelocyte
C) Myelocyte
D) Eosinophil
Q4) The primary function of lymphocytes is immunologic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Abnormalities of White Blood Cells:
Quantitative, Qualitative, and the Lipid Storage Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal ratio of CD4 to CD8 lymphocytes is:
A) 1:2
B) 1:1
C) 2:1
D) 4:1
Q2) A patient who has a persist leukocytosis, Dohle bodies, and an elevated LAP score most likely has a (an):
A) Leukemoid reaction
B) Pelger-Huët anomaly
C) Parasitic infection
D) HIV infection
Q3) All of the following are mechanisms by which neutropenia is usually produced except:
A) Decreased production by the bone marrow
B) Impaired release from the bone marrow to the blood
C) Increased destruction
D) Bacterial infection
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Acute Leukemias
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pure erythroid leukemia is defined as:
A) Erythroid precursors greater than 30%, myeloblasts less than 20%
B) Erythroid precursors greater than 50%, myeloblasts less than 40%
C) Erythroid precursors less than 50%
D) Erythroid precursors greater than 80%
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of Auer rods?
A) Composed of fused primary granules
B) Predominantly seen in ALL
C) Predominantly seen in HCL
D) Composed of specific granules
Q3) A patient presents with generalized lymphadenopathy and a WBC of 100 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L.This hematologic picture would most likely be seen in:
A) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B) Acute lymphocytic leukemia
C) Burkitt's lymphoma
D) Hairy cell leukemia
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Chapter 12: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pancytosis is a prominent feature of which of the following disorders?
A) Chronic myelocytic leukemia
B) Idiopathic myelofibrosis
C) Polycythemia vera
D) Essential thrombocythemia
Q2) Myocardial infarctions, transient ischemic attacks, and deep vein thrombosis are likely to be complications of:
A) Chronic myelocytic leukemia
B) Acute myelocytic leukemia
C) Polycythemia vera
D) Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
Q3) What effect does the Ph chromosome have on the prognosis of patients with chronic myelocytic leukemia?
A) It is not predictive.
B) The prognosis is better if the Ph chromosome is present.
C) The prognosis is worse if the Ph chromosome is present.
D) The disease usually transforms into AML when the Ph chromosome is present.
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14
Chapter 13: Lymphoproliferative Disorders and Related
Plasma Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CD markers associated with CLL include all of the following except:
A) CD 4
B) CD 15
C) CD 19
D) CD 20
Q2) Which of the following statements about Hodgkin's disease is false?
A) The peak incidence for the disease is 15 to 40 years of age.
B) The disease occurs more frequently in males.
C) It is a precursor to T-cell lymphoma
D) Individuals who have been exposed to the Epstein-Barr virus may be more vulnerable to Hodgkin's lymphoma.
Q3) The most characteristic change seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with multiple myeloma is the presence of:
A) Microcytic hypochromic cells
B) Intracellular inclusion bodies
C) Rouleaux
D) Agglutination
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell at the tip of the pointer is:
A) A basophil
B) A malignant cell
C) A degenerating neutrophil
D) Not a cell; it's an artifact
Q2) The correct name for the cell at the end of the pointer is a:
A) Ringed sideroblast
B) Reticulocyte
C) Giant platelet
D) Siderocyte
Q3) A large percentage of the MDSs end in an acute leukemia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following are associated with the development of the MDSs except:
A) Alkylating therapy
B) Benzene exposure
C) Alcoholism
D) Radiation
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16
Chapter 15: Overview of Hemostasis and Platelet Physiology
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vasoconstrictor substance released from the platelets at the site of injury is:
A) Thrombin
B) Thromboxane A<sub>2</sub>
C) Adenosine diphosphate
D) Prostacyclin
Q2) Factor VII
A)Stabile factor
B)Labile factor
C)Thromboplastin
D)Calcium
E)Anti-hemophiliac factor
F)Fibrinogen
G)Prothrombin
Q3) Which of the following is not a component of the fibrinolytic system?
A) Thrombin
B) Plasmin
C) Tissue-type plasminogen activator (tPA)
D) Urokinase
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Chapter 16: Quantitative and Qualitative Platelet Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The single best predictive assay for von Willebrand factor is:
A) Ristocetin co-factor activity
B) Bleeding time
C) aPTT
D) Platelet count
Q2) Platelet aggregation cannot occur if ___is absent.
A) vWF
B) GP IIb/IIIa
C) cadmium
D) GP Ib
Q3) A platelet release defect in which there is a severe deficiency of dense granules in platelets is known as:
A) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
B) Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
C) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
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Chapter 17: Defects of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment of patients with factor II, VII, or X deficiency consists of:
A) Administration of prothrombin complex concentrate
B) Administration of cryoprecipitate
C) Administration of FFP
D) Administration of whole blood
Q2) Christmas disease is another name for:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) von Willebrand's disease
D) Factor VII deficiency
Q3) Which of the following assays will be abnormal with hemophilia A?
A) Platelet count
B) Bleeding time
C) PT
D) aPTT
Q4) All of the following may lead to deficiencies of clotting factors except:
A) Renal disease
B) Liver disease
C) Autoimmune disease
D) Cardiovascular disease
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Chapter 18: Fibrinogen, Thrombin, and the Fibrinolytic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with the heterozygous form of afibrinogenemia will have plasma levels of fibrinogen in the range of:
A) 0 to 20 mg/dL
B) 20 to 100 mg/dL
C) 50 to 150 mg/dL
D) 100 to 200 mg/dL
Q2) The D-dimer test measures:
A) Fibrinogen deposition
B) Fibrinogen degradation
C) Fibrin degradation
D) Fibrin deposition
Q3) Normal levels of fibrin degradation products are removed by the reticuloendothelial system and usually measure:
A) Less than 20 µg/mL
B) Less than 40 µg/mL
C) Less than 75 µg/mL
D) Less than 100 µg/mL
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The international normalized ratio (INR) is useful in:
A) The detection of coagulation factor deficiencies
B) Monitoring heparin therapy
C) The detection of inhibitors
D) Monitoring Coumadin therapy
Q2) All of the following are naturally occurring thrombin inhibitors except:
A) AT
B) Prothrombin cofactor II
C) Protein C
D) Plasmin
Q3) Primary hemostasis refers to the process by which:
A) The platelet plug is formed
B) A cross-linked fibrin clot is formed
C) Fibrin degradation products are generated
D) None of the above
Q4) All of the following statements are true regarding Coumadin except:
A) It is a vitamin K antagonist.
B) It needs antithrombin as a cofactor.
C) PT is used to monitor its dosage.
D) It is not recommended for pregnant and lactating women.
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