Advanced Health Assessment Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Advanced Health Assessment is an in-depth course designed for graduate-level nursing and healthcare students focusing on the comprehensive evaluation of individuals across the lifespan. The course emphasizes advanced physical examination skills, diagnostic reasoning, and the integration of health history with clinical findings. Students develop proficiency in identifying normal and abnormal findings, formulating differential diagnoses, and utilizing evidence-based assessment tools. Through case studies, simulations, and hands-on practice, the course prepares students to perform thorough assessments in diverse clinical settings, laying a foundation for effective clinical decision-making and patient care management.
Recommended Textbook
Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses 3rd Edition
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20 Chapters
571 Verified Questions
571 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Assessment and Clinical Decision-Making: Overview
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical reasoning tools is defined as evidence-based resource based on mathematical modeling to express the likelihood of a condition in select situations,settings,and/or patients?
A) Clinical practice guideline
B) Clinical decision rule
C) Clinical algorithm
D) Clinical recommendation
Answer: B
Q2) A likelihood ratio above 1 indicates that a diagnostic test showing a:
A) Positive result is strongly associated with the disease
B) Negative result is strongly associated with absence of the disease
C) Positive result is weakly associated with the disease
D) Negative result is weakly associated with absence of the disease
Answer: A
Q3) The following can be used to assist in sound clinical decision-making:
A) Algorithm published in a peer-reviewed journal article
B) Clinical practice guidelines
C) Evidence-based research
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Page 3
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Chapter 2: An Overview of Genetic Assessment
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An affected individual who manifests symptoms of a particular condition through whom a family with a genetic disorder is ascertained is called a(n):
A) Consultand
B) Consulband
C) Index patient
D) Proband
Answer: D
Q2) A woman affected with an X-linked recessive disorder:
A) Has one X chromosome affected by the mutation
B) Will transmit the disorder to all of her children
C) Will transmit the disorder to all of her sons
D) Will not transmit the mutation to any of her daughters
Answer: C
Q3) The leading causes of death in the United States are due to:
A) Multifactorial inheritance
B) Single gene mutations
C) X-linked disorders
D) Aneuploidy
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Skin
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What kind of lesions are caused by the herpes simplex virus?
A) Scales
B) Vesicles
C) Plaques
D) Urticaria
Answer: B
Q2) Skin turgor is best assessed by pinching skin over the:
A) Forehead
B) Forearm
C) Knees
D) Dorsum of the hand
Answer: B
Q3) Patient presents with complaint of a "swollen node" under his arm.The area is tender and the node has progressed in size over the past few days.Which of the following should be included in your differential diagnosis?
A) Hidradenitis suppurativa
B) Epidermoid cyst
C) Furuncle
D) Both A and C
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Head,face,and Neck
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammation of the parotid gland can cause which of the following conditions?
A) Trigeminal neuralgia
B) Bruxism
C) Mumps
D) Temporomandibular joint syndrome
Q2) Chronic abuse of alcohol and tobacco are associated with ,which can present with lymphadenopathy of the head and neck.
A) Lymphoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Leukemia
D) Thyroid cancer
Q3) Your patient presents to the ER due to a bee sting on the cheek.As you are examining the patient,you note increasing facial swelling and redness as well as swelling of the lips and eyes.This condition is due to:
A) Angioedema
B) Parotitis
C) Sinusitis
D) Sialoadenitis
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6
Chapter 5: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is suffering from herpes zoster along the trigeminal nerve distribution of the face.You should carefully assess for the presence of:
A) Keratitis
B) Uveitis
C) Scleritis
D) Conjunctivitis
Q2) An Amsler grid is used to evaluate which of the following conditions?
A) Optic neuritis
B) Macular degeneration
C) Amaurosis fugax
D) Retinal detachment
Q3) Your patient has been treated for glaucoma for 5 years.Which of the following will provide indication of the level of progression during the funduscopic examination for this patient?
A) Checking the macula
B) Estimating cup-to-disk ratio
C) Verifying a red reflex
D) Extraocular movements
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Chapter 6: Ear, nose, mouth, and Throat
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malignant oral cancerous lesions are most frequently located on the:
A) Tongue
B) Tonsils
C) Gums
D) Hard palate
Q2) Which of the following symptoms is common with acute otitis media?
A) Bulging tympanic membrane
B) Bright light reflex of tympanic membrane
C) Increased tympanic membrane mobility
D) All of the above
Q3) Your patient has been using chewing tobacco for 10 years.On physical examination,you observe a white ulceration surrounded by erythematous base on the side of his tongue.The clinician should recognize that very often this is:
A) Malignant melanoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Aphthous ulceration
D) Behcet's syndrome
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Chapter 7: Cardiac and Peripheral Vascular Systems
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pain of can frequently be mistaken for cardiac chest pain.
A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
B) Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
C) Cholecystitis
D) All of the above
Q2) An S<sub>3</sub> gallop is commonly heard in:
A) Children with fever
B) Adults with heart failure
C) Children with aortic stenosis
D) Adults with hypertension
Q3) The key sign(s)of aortic stenosis are:
A) Syncope
B) Dyspnea
C) Angina
D) All of the above
Q4) The pain of costochondritis typically .
A) Mimics cardiac crushing and squeezing pain
B) Worsens with movement and full inspiration
C) Radiates from epigastrium into the back
D) Is a tearing and ripping pain
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Chapter 8: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following imaging studies should be considered if a pulmonary malignancy is suspected?
A) Computed tomography (CT)scan
B) Chest xray with PA,lateral,and lordotic views
C) Ultrasound
D) Positron emission tomography (PET)scan
Q2) While assessing auscultated spoken sounds,the ausculated sound is heard as "a-a-a" when he is asked to repeat "e-e-e." This is indicative of:
A) Asthma
B) Tumor
C) Pneumonia
D) Pleural effusion
Q3) When asthma is suspected,which of the following is NOT useful in making a diagnosis?
A) Decreased FEV1/FVC ratio
B) Decreased FEV1
C) Some reversibility with administration of bronchodilator
D) Peak flow meter reading
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Chapter 9: Breasts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is a 46-year-old woman suffering from psychosis complains of milky discharge from both her breasts.Upon examination,there are no significant findings and the patient is not pregnant,breastfeeding,or in the postpartum period.You should:
A) Order CT scan of head to rule out pituitary tumor
B) Obtain a complete list of the patient's medications
C) Have the patient keep a menstrual cycle diary
D) Refer the patient for mammogram
Q2) A 62-year-old female presents with a singular,hard,1 cm,non-tender,non-mobile mass in the right breast.There are no nipple or skin changes,however,you palpate an enlarged right-sided supraclavicular lymph node.The clinician should recognize these are signs of:
A) Fibroadenoma
B) Breast cyst
C) Malignancy
D) Paget's disease
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11
Chapter 10: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following symptom(s)in the patient's history should raise the clinician's suspicion of colon cancer:
A) Alternating constipation and diarrhea
B) Narrowed caliber of stool
C) Hematochezia
D) All of the above
Q2) The clinician should auscultate the abdomen to listen for possible bruits of the:
A) Aorta
B) Renal artery
C) Iliac artery
D) All of the above
Q3) The major sign of ectopic pregnancy is:
A) Sudden onset of severe epigastric pain
B) Amenorrhea with unilateral lower quadrant pain
C) Lower back and rectal pain
D) Palpable abdominal mass
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Chapter 11: Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What it the normal capacity of the urinary bladder?
A) 700 mL
B) 400 mL
C) 200 mL
D) 100 mL
Q2) When performing a dipstick test on a patient's urine sample,a positive leukocyte esterase and nitrite is indicative of:
A) Microscopic hematuria
B) Urinary tract infection
C) Calculi in the urine
D) Possible bladder tumor
Q3) A major reason for the atrophic changes that occur in the pelvic floor muscles of the elderly woman is:
A) Diminished levels of estrogen
B) Increased levels of testosterone
C) Autonomic neuropathy
D) Decreased glycogen in the vagina
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13
Chapter 12: Male Reproductive System
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following most commonly causes balanitis?
A) Tinea
B) Syphilis
C) Candida
D) Gonorrhoea
Q2) Which of the following is a risk factor for testicular cancer?
A) Fournier's disease
B) Testicular torsion
C) Varicocele of the testes
D) Cryptorchidism
Q3) A 7-year-old male presents with fever and swollen parotid glands.He is diagnosed with mumps.A complication that can occur with mumps in a male patient is:
A) Orchitis
B) Prostatitis
C) Testicular torsion
D) Varicocele
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Chapter 13: Female Reproductive System
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your postmenopausal 60-year-old female patient complains of vaginal irritation and pruritus of the external genitalia.She self-medicated with an over-the-counter anti-candida agent.However,the vaginal symptoms persist.The clinician should recognize that:
A) Over-the-counter medications do not treat all species of candida
B) Postmenopausal women are susceptible to trichomonas infection
C) Decreased estrogen makes vaginal mucosa susceptible to bacterial vaginosis
D) Irritation due to atrophic vaginal mucosa can mimic symptoms of candida
Q2) A 16-year-old female complains of sudden left-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain.Last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago.On physical examination,the abdomen is non-tender with no masses and no organomegaly.Bowel sounds are normal in 4 quadrants.Pelvic examination is within normal limits.Abdominal CT scan is negative.Pregnancy test is negative.These signs and symptoms are consistent with:
A) Ovarian cancer
B) Hydatidiform mole
C) Endometriosis
D) Follicular cyst
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Musculoskeletal System
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 55-year-old patient complains of lower back pain due to heavy lifting at work yesterday.He reports weakness of the left leg and paresthesias in the left foot.On physical examination,the patient has diminished ability to dorsiflex the left ankle.Which of the following symptoms should prompt the clinician to make immediate referral to a neurosurgeon?
A) Straight leg raising sign
B) Lumbar herniated disc on x-ray
C) Loss of left sided patellar reflex
D) Urinary incontinence
Q2) What is the most common cause of hip pain in older adults?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Osteoarthritis
C) Trauma due to fall
D) Trochanteric bursitis
Q3) Which of the following serological diagnostic tests is most specific for rheumatoid arthritis?
A) C-reactive protein (CRP)
B) Rheumatoid factor (RF)
C) Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA)
D) Anti-citrullinated protein autoantibodies (ACPA)
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Chapter 15: Neurological System
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are an emergency room clinician that assisted with CPR on a 20-year-old trauma patient.The CPR was unsuccessful,the patient expired,and you need to explain this to the family in the waiting room.Upon telling the mother about the death of her son,she becomes dizzy and faints.What is the most likely cause for the woman fainting?
A) Cardiogenic shock
B) Vasovagal response
C) Syncope due to hypoxia
D) Dizziness and vertigo
Q2) A female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of a severe,throbbing,unilateral headache.She complains of seeing flashes of light prior to the headache.She complains of sound and light sensitivity as well as nausea.The clinician should recognize these as symptoms of:
A) Epilepsy with aura
B) Cluster headache
C) Migraine headache
D) Normal pressure hydrocephalus
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Chapter 16: Nonspecific Complaints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following disorders is associated with unintentional weight loss?
A) Clinical depression
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Diabetes
D) All of the above
Q2) A 32-year-old morbidly obese male complains of excessive fatigue,snoring,and awakening in the middle of the night,which prevents restorative sleep.He is sluggish during the day due to the lack of sleep and feels like he is going "fall asleep at the wheel" when driving to work.Occupation: dishwasher.Medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes.Current medications include ACE inhibitor and metformin.Denies use of alcohol,tobacco,or drugs.On physical examination,the patient is afebrile,pulse 88,resps 20/min,BP 178/95.BMI is 45.These are signs and symptoms of:
A) Obstructive sleep apnea
B) Primary insomnia
C) Heart failure
D) All of the above
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18
Chapter 17: Psychiatric Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with anxiety frequently complain of:
A) Chest pain
B) Dizziness
C) Shortness of breath
D) A and B
Q2) It is a psychiatric emergency if a patient confides in you that:
A) There are no reasons for him to keep from dying
B) He is having episodes of elation and increased energy
C) He is experiencing free floating anxiety and fear
D) Death and dying is constantly on his mind
Q3) A schizoaffective disorder is characterized by:
A) Mood component coexisting with the schizophrenic symptoms
B) Thought disorder that comes and goes
C) Psychotic disorder with substance abuse
D) Schizophrenia with auditory and visual hallucinations
Q4) Hypomania is different from mania in that:
A) Hypomania does not cause impaired social or occupational functioning
B) Hypomania does not require hospitalization
C) Mania can endure for a longer period of time than hypomania
D) A and B
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Chapter 18: Pediatric Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following stances is normal in a toddler?
A) Genu varum
B) Genu valgum
C) Lordosis
D) A and C
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding growth and development of an infant?
A) At 2 weeks,an infant should be lifting the head while lying prone
B) An infant should smile and respond to mother at 1 month
C) The infant should roll over by 6 months
D) The infant should sit independently by 3 months
Q3) How should the clinician examine the ear canal in an infant?
A) Pull the auricle down and out
B) Pull the auricle up and back
C) First in the sequence of a physical examination
D) Child should be lying in prone position
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Chapter 19: Pregnant Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Estimated date of delivery is calculated by:
A) Adding 7 days to LMP and subtracting 3 months
B) Adding 9 months to the date of LMP
C) Most accurately by ultrasound examination
D) A & C
Q2) A pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum should be checked for:
A) Multiple pregnancy
B) Hyperadrenalism
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Fibroid tumor
Q3) The schedule of prenatal care should be:
A) Every 2 weeks between 28 and 36 weeks
B) Every week between 28 and 36 weeks
C) Every week between 36 and 40 weeks
D) A & C
Q4) Which of the following can cause abruptio placenta?
A) Uterine trauma
B) Gestational HTN
C) Coagulopathy
D) All of the above
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Chapter 20: Older Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obesity defined as a BMI greater than is an independent risk factor for functional decline in the elderly patient.
A) 20
B) 24
C) 30
D) 35
Q2) A preliminary,concise test to screen patients for dementia in primary care is the:
A) Mini-mental status exam (MMSE)
B) Mini-Cog Clock Drawing test
C) Geriatric Depression Scale
D) Physical Self-Maintenance Scale
Q3) Adults tend to lose 1 inch every years after age 40.
A) 30
B) 25
C) 20
D) 15
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