Advanced Genetics
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Advanced Genetics delves into the complexities of genetic mechanisms governing heredity, gene expression, and genome organization. This course explores advanced topics such as molecular genetics, genetic mutations, epigenetics, quantitative genetics, and the application of genetic technologies like CRISPR and next-generation sequencing. Students will examine classical and modern genetic approaches through analysis of case studies, current research literature, and laboratory data, gaining a nuanced understanding of how genetic principles inform fields such as evolutionary biology, medicine, and biotechnology. The course emphasizes problem-solving and critical thinking skills essential for interpreting complex genetic data and designing experiments in the modern genetics laboratory.
Recommended Textbook
iGenetics A Molecular Approach 3rd Edition by Peter J. Russell
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Chapter 1: Genetics: An Introduction
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Q1) Centrioles are also called basal bodies.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The organism that Mendel used for his experiments was A)E.coli.
B)the fruit fly.
C)maize.
D)yeast.
E)the pea plant.
Answer: E
Q3) How can a genetic map be used?
Answer: Genetic maps can be used in the process of localizing genes and studying the distribution of genes on chromosomes and in the genome.
Q4) Bacteria and plants both have a rigid cell wall outside the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Q1) The genome of the T-even family of bacteriophage consists of single-stranded RNA.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Describe the differences between heterochromatin and euchromatin in chromosomes.Are there any situations in which one can be changed into the other?
Answer: Euchromatin contains actively transcribed genes and undergoes normal cycles of condensation and decondensation in the cell cycle.Heterochromatin remains condensed and contains genes that are usually transcriptionally inactive.Euchromatin can be inactivated,as in the case of Barr bodies.It is then known as facultative heterochromatin.
Q3) In a strand of DNA,a hydrogen bond connects the phosphate group of one nucleotide to the sugar of the adjacent nucleotide.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: DNA Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzymatic activity of a telomerase is best described as a A)polymerase.
B)ligase.
C)topoisomerase.
D)reverse transcriptase.
E)exonuclease.
Answer: D
Q2) In eukaryotic cells,histone proteins are actively synthesized during the S phase of the cell cycle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) As helicase unwinds the DNA molecule,what keeps the strands apart?
A)DNA polymerase
B)Reverse transcriptase
C)Replication fork
D)Single-strand binding proteins
E)Okazaki fragments
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Gene Function
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Q1) You discover a mutant strain of Neurospora crassa that will not grow on a minimal medium but that will grow on a medium supplemented by the amino acid methionine.How can you determine which step in the methionine synthesis pathway is affected by the mutation?
Q2) Genetic counseling is the best advice that a physician can give a person about his or her risk of having a child with a genetic disorder while lacking precise statistical evidence.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is an inborn error of metabolism? Give an example.
Q4) Auxotrophs are organisms that can grow
A)on minimal media.
B)on complete media.
C)only on amino acid supplemented media.
D)only on vitamin supplemented media.
E)on any media.
Q5) Cystic fibrosis is a pleiotropic disease.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What factor do the diseases PKU,albinism,and alkaptonuria all have in common?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Gene Expression: Transcription
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Q1) Group I introns,such as those found in Tetrahymena,are unique in that they are excised from mRNA by a protein-driven catalytic reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sequence of a template strand of DNA is 3'-CATTACGCTT-5'.What is the sequence of the corresponding mRNA?
Q3) What is the difference between an intervening sequence and an untranslated region in a eukaryotic mRNA?
Q4) In eukaryotes,what is the difference between promoter proximal elements in "housekeeping genes" vs.cell-specific genes,and how does this relate to gene expression?
Q5) Outline the basic differences in function among RNA polymerases in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Q6) Which of the following catalyzes the synthesis of ribosomal RNA in eukaryotes?
A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)Both RNA polymerase I and II
E)Both RNA polymerase I and III
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Gene Expression: Translation
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Q1) Part of a DNA gene sequence reads CAT.If a mutation occurs that changes the T to A,will the final protein be affected?
Q2) What is the wobble hypothesis,and what implications does it have for base-pairing rules and selective pressure on codons?
Q3) How can a carrot plant express a bacterial gene?
A)Because the bacterial gene hijacks the carrot's cellular machinery
B)Because the genetic code is the same in both organisms
C)Because of the wobble phenomenon
D)Because of the degeneracy of the genetic code
E)A carrot cannot express a bacterial gene.
Q4) In a gene sequence,the DNA codon for tryptophan experiences a mutation at the first base position,changing it to T.What will the resulting amino acid be?
A)Tryptophan (no change)
B)Serine
C)Arginine
D)Threonine
E)None (a stop codon will halt translation)
Q5) How are proteins sorted into their appropriate cell compartments in eukaryotes?
Q6) Why is methionine the first amino acid to be added to every polypeptide chain?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Dna Mutation, DNA Repair, and Transposable Elements
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Q1) Nonsense suppressors are usually mutations in genes coding for A)proteins.
B)enzymes.
C)mRNA.
D)tRNA.
E)rRNA.
Q2) Mutation frequency is the
A)number of mutations per gene per generation.
B)number of mutations per nucleotide per generation.
C)number of mutations per cell per generation.
D)number of a specific mutation in a defined population.
E)total number of mutations in a defined population.
Q3) Which of the following transposable elements are found in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes?
A)IS elements
B)Families of autonomous and nonautonomous elements
C)Retrotransposons
D)Ty elements
E)B,C,and D only
Q4) How can PCR be used to induce site-specific mutations in DNA?
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Chapter 8: Genomics: The Mapping and Sequencing of Genomes
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Q1) A plasmid used as a cloning vector in E.coli must have A)an ori sequence.
B)a selectable marker.
C)unique restriction sites.
D)B and C
E)All of these
Q2) A DNA copy of an mRNA molecule is called A)dDNA. B)rDNA. C)mDNA.
D)shDNA.
E)cDNA.
Q3) When DNA is cut with a restriction enzyme,the resulting fragments have A)5' carboxyls.
B)5' hydroxyls.
C)3' hydroxyls.
D)3' phosphates.
E)3' carboxyls.
Q4) What problem does this result in?
Q5) What advantage do cDNA libraries have over genomic libraries?
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Chapter 9: Functional and Comparative Genomics
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Q1) Why are BLAST comparisons based on protein sequences often easier to interpret than those based on DNA sequences?
Q2) A genomic region can rapidly become very common in a population due to A)positive selection.
B)negative selection.
C)specific selection.
D)linkage equilibrium.
E)homologous recombination.
Q3) After how many PCR cycles,starting from a single starting molecule,will fragments consisting of only the target DNA (the DNA between the primers)be generated?
Q4) Which of the following is an archaean that has been identified in the human gut?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Enterobacter aerogenes
C)Bifidobacterium longum
D)Methanobrevibacter smithii
E)Caenorhabditis elegans
Q5) BLAST is a software that searches for similarities between DNA sequences only.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) DNase is used to treat hemophilia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Expressed sequence tags,or ESTs,
A)are genetic markers generated from cDNA.
B)pertain to expressed genes only.
C)are oligonucleotides derived from mRNA.
D)A and C only
E)All of these
Q3) Successful cotransformation in the yeast two-hybrid system will result in the binding of proteins produced by each yeast expression vector.These fusion proteins function by
A)binding to the lacZ operator,preventing transcription.
B)binding to RNA polymerase,preventing transcription.
C)binding to the lacZ repressor,enabling transcription.
D)binding to the lacZ upstream activator sequence,enabling transcription.
E)changing color in the presence of X-gal.
Q4) How does an RFLP help identify sickle-cell anemia?
Q5) How do genetic tests differ from diagnostic tests for genetic disease?
Q6) How does a transcribable vector differ from an expression vector?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Mendelian Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dominant allele of a gene is the most frequently found allele in a population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A testcross with a heterozygous dominant individual will yield only heterozygous dominant offspring.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Recessive alleles are usually loss-of-function mutations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the F<sub>2</sub> generation,how many genotypic classes could be generated from a dihybrid cross of two heterozygotes in which the genes involved show complete dominance?
A)3
B)4
C)8
D)9
E)12
Q5) What characteristics make an organism a good candidate for Mendelian studies?
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Chapter 12: Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Describe two dosage compensation mechanisms found in animals.
Q2) Individuals with Turner syndrome are A)euploid.
B)aneuploid.
C)polyploid.
D)haploid.
E)monoploid.
Q3) Synaptonemal complex forms during A)leptonema. B)zygonema. C)pachynema.
D)diplonema.
E)diakinesis.
Q4) X-linked or sex-linked traits are expressed in males but not in females. A)True B)False
Q5) Drosophila fruit flies,like mammals,have an X-Y sex-determination system.The insect differs from the mammalian system in an important respect,however.What is it?
Q6) What are the differences between metaphase I and metaphase II of meiosis?
14
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Chapter 13: Extensions of and Deviations From Mendelian
Genetic Principles
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Q1) In the human ABO blood system,the allele i is dominant to I<sup>A</sup> and I<sup>B</sup>.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Solid black,black with tan belly,and agouti coat color in mice are all caused by alleles of the agouti gene.All three colors can be true-breeding.When using mice from true-breeding strains: (1)Black × Agouti F<sub>1</sub>s are all agouti,(2)Black × Black with Tan belly F<sub>1</sub>s are all black and tan,and (3)Black with Tan belly × Agouti F<sub>1</sub>s are all agouti.If you were to cross the F<sub>1</sub>s from (1)with the F<sub>1</sub>s from (2),what proportion of the resulting offspring would you expect to be black with a tan belly?
A)None
B) \(\frac { 1 } { 4 }\)
C) \(\frac { 3 } { 16 }\)
D) \(\frac { 1 } { 2 }\)
E) \(\frac { 1 } { 16 }\)
Q3) For a gene with multiple alleles,what is the maximum number of alleles that a diploid organism may have?
Q4) What is the phenotype and genotype of the chicks?
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Chapter 14: Genetic Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Of the three pairs of genes,which ones are closest to each other and which ones are farthest apart?
Q2) Explain how Curt Stern showed,using evidence from Drosophila,that genetic recombination is associated with the physical exchange of parts between homologous chromosomes.
Q3) Why does the recombination frequency often lead to an underestimation of the true map distance between linked genes?
Q4) Which gene pair is closer together; i.e.there are fewer map units between them?
A)a ? b
B)b ? c
C)a ? c
D)a ? b and b ? c are the same length
E)a ? c and b ? c are the same length
Q5) Genes that are linked
A)segregate to opposite poles during meiosis.
B)do not assort independently during meiosis.
C)segregate independently during meiosis.
D)are on nonhomologous chromosomes.
E)are always on the X chromosome.
Q6) What is the order of these three genes on the chromosome?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Genetics of Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Q1) In bacteriophage T4,all rIIA mutants are found to complement all rIIB mutants.However,rIIA mutants fail to complement other rIIA mutants,and rIIB mutants fail to complement other rIIB mutants.Furthermore,mutants with deletions that span both rIIA and rIIB complementation groups do not complement either A or B mutants.What do these data mean,and what do the complementation groups represent?
Q2) In F<sup>+</sup> × F<sup>-</sup> crosses,none of the bacterial chromosome is transferred; only the F factor is.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During a cis-trans complementation assay,two lac<sup>-</sup> strains of bacteria are crossed.The progeny cells exhibit a lac<sup>-</sup> phenotype.What does this indicate?
Q4) In the lysogenic bacteriophage life cycle,the chromosome
A)replicates and the phage genes take over the bacterium.
B)inserts itself physically into the host cell's chromosome.
C)expresses a repressor protein gene that inhibits the lytic pathway.
D)is replaced by a piece of bacterial DNA when packaged inside phage progeny.
E)Both B and C
Q5) What are temperate bacteriophages?
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Chapter 16: Variations in Chromosome Structure and Number
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Q1) An X-linked homozygous color-blind woman gives birth to a son who is not color blind.He could have normal vision because he
A)has Down syndrome.
B)has Klinefelter syndrome.
C)has Turner syndrome.
D)is XYY.
E)has triploidy.
Q2) A woman with normal vision,whose father has sex-linked color blindness,marries a man with normal vision.They have a son who has Klinefelter syndrome and is color blind.Describe precisely what kind of event could caused have his Klinefelter syndrome.
Q3) What are the gametic consequences of a lack of cytokinesis following the first or second meiotic division?
Q4) Seedless bananas are produced from
A)sterile tetraploid allopolyploid plants.
B)sterile triploid autopolyploid plants.
C)monoploid plants grown from unfertilized seeds.
D)fertile diploid plants that are unfertilized.
E)Both C and D
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Q5) How does a Philadelphia chromosome occur,and what condition does it cause?
Chapter 17: Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Q1) Briefly define what is meant by negative and positive control of the lac operon.
Q2) The use of CAP- cAMP complex as a positive regulator is specific to the lac operon.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The genetic switch for the infection pathways of lambda phage is controlled by two regulatory proteins: ________ and ________.
A)lambda repressor,Cro
B)lambda repressor,permease
C)excisionase,integrase
D)recA,Cro
E)lyase,lysogenase
Q4) Should viruses like lambda phage be considered living entities? Or are they more properly viewed as parasitic fragments of DNA?
Q5) Genes required for maintaining basic cell structure,growth,and division are housekeeping genes and have regulated expression.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How are partial diploid E.coli constructs made?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Heterochromatin is associated with A)differential gene expression.
B)gene silencing.
C)mRNA translation.
D)heterozygotes.
E)A,B,and C only
Q2) Embryonic development is orchestrated by a cascading series of genes,the expression of many of which are controlled in time and space by transcription factors and effector molecules of various kinds.But what controls the expression of the first regulatory genes to be transcribed in the newly fertilized zygote?
Q3) Interference RNA technology is one of the most exciting new developments in genetics in recent years.In April 2004,Cancer Research UK and the Netherlands Cancer Institute announced creation of a 24,000-molecule iRNA library,designed to inactivate about 8,000 human genes.One hope for this library is its application in combating cancer.How might iRNA be implemented in cancer treatment?
Q4) What are enhancers?
Q5) Gene silencing is a form of regulation controlled by repressor proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Genetic Analysis of Development
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Q1) The major classes of antibody molecules are called antigen-globulins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ is a conserved 180-bp sequence found in homeotic genes.
A)TATA box
B)bicoid box
C)Hox box
D)homeobox
E)Pribnow box
Q3) No human cells lose all of their DNA during differentiation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ cells may differentiate into any cell or tissue type.
A)Pluripotent
B)Omnipotent
C)Totipotent
D)Hyperpotent
E)Potent
Q5) As of 2008,human cloning was banned in the United States.What are the arguments for maintaining such a ban?
21
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Chapter 20: Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) Describe Knudson's two-mutation model: When and where are the mutations posited to occur?
Q2) The nucleic acid of retroviral provirus is composed of RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some carcinogens act on the genome directly,while others are converted to mutagenic substances by the cells's enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Programmed cell death,or apoptosis,is a necessary and useful property of cells.Why is this so?
Q5) BRCA1 is a gene involved in repair of double-stranded DNA breaks.Mutant forms of this gene are linked to a substantial proportion of familial breast cancers.A woman who inherits a certain allele of the gene has about a 60-80% chance of getting breast cancer,as well as an elevated chance of getting ovarian cancer,in her lifetime.
a.Why don't a higher percentage of women with the mutation get breast cancer?
b.How would the breast cancer inheritance caused by BRCA1 be described in Mendelian terms?
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Chapter 21: Population Genetics
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Q1) Red-green color blindness is an X-linked trait.In a population genetics study,1,000 people (500 men and 500 women)were tested for this trait,and 35 men were found to be color blind.Use this information to compute the frequency of the allele for color blindness and the wild-type allele in this population,and estimate the expected number of carrier females.
Q2) According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, at equilibrium the allele frequencies are dependent on the genotypic frequencies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The genetic variation between human "races," such as Africans and Europeans,is greater than the variation within a single race.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Hardy-Weinberg relationship cannot be used to compute allele frequencies when one or more alleles are recessive.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In light of the fact that the assumptions of the
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Chapter 22: Quantitative Genetics
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Q1) Which of the following is a source of genetic variation in a population caused by epistatic interactions between genes?
A)Additive genetic variance
B)Dominance variance
C)General environmental effects
D)Interaction variance
E)Maternal effect
Q2) Evolution is defined as genetic change in populations over time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The distribution of continuous traits can best be described as A)linear.
B)bell-shaped.
C)hyperbolic.
D)logarithmic.
E)bimodal.
Q4) In a controlled cross for a quantitative trait,600 F<sub>2</sub> offspring are obtained,10 of which exhibit the phenotype of one of the parentals.How many genes are estimated to control this trait based on these results?
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Chapter 23: Molecular Evolution
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Q1) The average synonymous substitution rate in mammalian mitochondrial genes is ________ the average rate for nuclear genes.
A)2 times
B)5 times
C)10 times
D)50 times
E)100 times
Q2) It is not unusual for a phylogeny reconstruction to result in several equally robust phylogenetic trees that differ in their branching patterns.How can this be the case if evolution only took one true pathway?
Q3) Which of the following statements about molecular evolution is true?
A)Homologous genes often evolve in the same way.
B)Different regions of the same gene evolve at different rates.
C)Genes in the same organism evolve at about the same rate.
D)Genes in different organisms evolve at about the same rate.
E)Nucleotide substitutions are nonrandom.
Q4) What is codon bias? If synonymous substitutions give the same amino acid,why should there be a bias in which codons encode that amino acid?
Q5) Distinguish between a gene tree and a species tree.
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