Advanced Genetics
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Genetics delves into the complex principles underlying heredity, gene structure, and gene function at both the molecular and organismal levels. The course explores advanced topics such as gene regulation, epigenetics, genetic mapping, genome editing technologies, population genetics, and quantitative genetics. Emphasis is placed on current methods used in genetic analysis, including next-generation sequencing, CRISPR-Cas systems, and bioinformatics tools. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and real-world case studies, students gain a comprehensive understanding of genetic variation, the molecular basis of inherited disorders, gene-environment interactions, and the implications of genetic research in medicine, biotechnology, and evolution.
Recommended Textbook
Human Heredity Principles and Issues 10th Edition by Michael Cummings
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19 Chapters
1035 Verified Questions
1035 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The decline of the eugenics movement in the U.S. in the early 20th century resulted from ____.
A) its misuse for social and political purposes by the Nazis
B) the lack of knowledge of the cell theory
C) the lack of understanding of natural selection
D) the idea that most human traits are controlled by single genes
E) all of these
Answer: A
Q2) What was a major issue in deCODE's genomic studies of Icelanders that ultimately led to it filing for bankruptcy?
A) Too many Icelanders were reluctant to cooperate with deCODE.
B) deCODE did not have the money to invest in the high-tech equipment needed.
C) Most diseases are are caused by multiple gene mutations and are therefore too complex for deCODE's purposes.
D) There was too much criticism from bioethicists, especially from the United Nations.
E) Several top executives at deCODE were charged with embezzlement.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) In meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate in ____.
A) metaphase I
B) anaphase I
C) metaphase II
D) anaphase II
E) telophase
Answer: B
Q2) A polar body, once formed, has no further function and dies.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) In meiosis of oogenesis, how many mature eggs result?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: A
Q4) In many respects, the events of prophase seem to be the reverse of those occurring in ____________________.
Answer: Telophase
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes From Generation to Generation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The offspring resulting from the cross of two red flowered plants are 3/4 red and 1/4 white. The most likely genotype of the red flowered plants is _____ .
A) homozygous dominant
B) heterozygous
C) homozygous recessive
D) impossible to tell from this information
Answer: B
Q2) In crosses involving complete dominance, the F genotypic ratio is 1:2:1 and is expressed as a phenotypic ratio of ____________________.
Answer: 3/4 dominant and 1/4 recessive or 3:1 ratio
Q3) A cross between two individuals who differ with respect to two gene pairs is a ____________________ cross.
Answer: dihybrid
Q4) Chi square tests are used to determine whether a cross has been correctly constructed and analyzed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A large family exhibits a previously undiscovered trait: green hair. One parent has the trait as do 6 of their 12 children (50%). (a) Satisfy yourself that this result could be produced by either one of two situations: Green hair is caused by a dominant allele, and the green-haired parent has one copy of that allele; OR green hair is a recessive trait; the green-haired parent is homozygous and the other parent is heterozygous. (b) How might we determine which one of these possibilities is true?
Q2) The frequency of heterozygotes for cystic fibrosis shows ethnic variations. A)True B)False
Q3) Dystrophin is a protein that normally
A) shortens and lengthens to produce muscle contraction. B) carries signals into muscle cells to initiate contraction.
C) strengthens the attachment between muscle proteins and the plasma membrane. D) helps provide energy for muscle contraction. E) signals muscle cells to divide.
Q4) How would you distinguish between a trait that is X-linked dominant trait and one that is autosomal dominant?
Q5) Adults who have children who have died from lethal recessive disorders are most likely ____________________.
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Chapter 5: Complex Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) How have twins been useful in studies of multifactorial traits?
Q2) Mendel's experiments with pea plants yielded useful results because A) pea plants exhibit continuous variation.
B) pea plants exhibit a variety of inheritance patterns.
C) pea plants show discontinuous variation and complete dominance. D) pea plants are sterile.
E) more than one of these are correct.
Q3) Discuss the factors responsible for regression to the mean.
Q4) In a certain population with a mean IQ of 100, the heritability of IQ was measured at 0.6. A chapter of Mensa in this population has an average IQ of 140. If they are otherwise typical of their population, about how many of their IQ points can be attributed to their genes?
A) 60
B) 84
C) 24
D) 100
E) 40
Q5) Scientists are now using an expanded definition of intelligence, beyond IQ, called
Page 7
Q6) The hormone leptin is produced in ____________________ cells.
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics: Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the karyotypic designation of a female with trisomy for the X chromosome? ____________________
Q2) Two sets of parents who have children with Down syndrome meet at a clinic. The Williams know that their son has trisomy 21. The Millers have two affected children and Mrs. Miller has had two miscarriages. Why should the Millers be more concerned about future reproductive problems than the Williams? How did Down syndrome occur in each of these families?
Q3) Who are translocation carriers and in what sense are they high-risk individuals?
Q4) Among abnormalities of the sex chromosomes, no cases of OY individuals are known, although XO individuals have been found. Why do you think this is the case? Is this evidence for differences in genetic content between the X and Y chromosome?
Q5) The degree of mental retardation in a Down syndrome fetus is predictable. A)True B)False
Q6) Nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes produces both Klinefelter syndrome (XXY) and Turner syndrome (XO), but among live births, 1 in 1,000 males is XXY, but only 1 in 10,000 females is XO. What mechanisms can account for this tenfold difference in frequency?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phenotypic sex depends most directly on
A) the presence of a Y chromosome.
B) the presence of the number of active X chromosomes.
C) the development of the ovaries.
D) the influence of hormones.
E) the degeneration of the Müllerian duct.
Q2) The leading preventable cause of birth defects is exposure of the fetus to: A) X-rays.
B) cigarette smoke.
C) alcohol.
D) the herpes virus.
E) mercury.
Q3) During the third trimester, calcium in the mother's diet is used for development of the ____________________.
Q4) Most of the protein eaten by the mother during the third trimester is used for the development of the ____________________ system.
Q5) Once formed, sperm are stored in the epididymus.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The result of X inactivation is ____________________ between the sexes.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: DNA Structure and Chromosomal Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both ________________ and _________________ have a two-ringed chemical structure.
Q2) In addition to the nucleosome, DNA in a chromosome has several more levels of folding and compaction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The basic unit of a DNA molecule is the
A) nitrogenous base.
B) sugar-phosphate backbone.
C) amino acid.
D) nucleotide.
E) ribose sugar.
Q4) RNA differs from DNA in A) its single-stranded nature.
B) the type of sugar found in the nucleotide.
C) the types of pyrimidine bases.
D) the type of sugar found in the nucleotide, the types of pyrimidine bases, and its single-stranded nature.
E) the types of pyrimidine bases and its single-stranded nature only.
Q5) The name of the enzyme that replicates DNA is ____________________.
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Chapter 9: Gene Expression: From Genes to Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A string of 30 to 100 adenine nucleotides
A) is found in the promoter region of all genes.
B) is the sequence of which introns are composed.
C) is found at the 3'-end of all tRNAs.
D) is found in the terminator region of all genes.
E) is added to the 3'-end on mRNA during RNA processing.
Q2) tRNAs bind to the mRNA via their ____________________.
Q3) Describe the flow of information in the cell.
Q4) Discuss the meaning of the following two statements and determine whether each one is true or false:
(1) One amino acid can be coded for by more than one codon.
(2) One codon can be coded for by more than one amino acid.
Q5) The 3-nucleotide sequences in DNA that is transcribed into mRNA codons are the same 3 nucleotides as the anticodons that bind to those codons.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The genetic code is described as "universal." What does that mean, and why is this very significant to our understanding of life on Earth?
Q7) The covalent bond attaching two amino acids is called a ____________ bond.
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Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss therapeutic approaches in metabolic diseases.
Q2) The existence of differential drug sensitivity serves to reinforce the idea that A) many people carry genetic defects.
B) each individual is biologically and biochemically unique.
C) drugs need to be more closely regulated.
D) metabolic blocks are a widespread phenomenon.
E) none of these is reinforced.
Q3) The study of genetic variations that affect people's responses to environmental chemicals is called _____________.
Q4) Antonio is 27, has a severely enlarged liver, and has a kidney infection. The inherited disease Antonio has is most likely ____________.
A) glycogen storage disease
B) Pompe disease
C) amylopectinosis
D) PKU
E) lactose intolerance
Q5) The enzyme lactase splits the lactose molecule into ____________ and
Q6) Phenylketonuria is a result of a deficiency of the enzyme
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Chapter 11: Mutation: the Source of Genetic Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why the phenomena of anticipation and genomic imprinting seemed at first, before they were understood, to violate basic concepts of Mendelian genetics.
Q2) Some genes with a number of trinucleotide repeats significantly above normal produce a mutant phenotype.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fragile-X syndrome is an example of a disorder caused by trinucleotide repeats. A)True
B)False
Q4) Julie has pigmented spots and tumors on her skin and nervous system. It is determined the disease Julie has is autosomal dominant. Julie most likely has
A) hemophilia
B) neurofibromatosis
C) achondroplasia
D) Marfan syndrome
E) fragile-X syndrome
Q5) Explain why individuals with cystic fibrosis may have different levels of severity of the disease.
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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genetic model of colon cancer states that development of colo-rectal cancer requires only one key mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What phrase best describes the field of epidemiology?
A) It is the study of factors that control the presence or absence of disease.
B) It is the study of infectious disease.
C) It is a direct and experimental science.
D) It begins with laboratory studies on experimental animals.
E) It is none of these.
Q3) Which of the following statements about retinoblastoma offers support for the idea that multiple mutations are needed in cancer?
A) Noninherited cases involve both eyes and occur later in life.
B) Noninherited cases involve both eyes and occur early in life.
C) Inherited cases involve one eye and occur early in life.
D) Inherited cases involve one eye and occur late in life.
E) Noninherited cases involve one eye and occur later in life.
Q4) BRCA1 and BRCA2 are inherited in a ______________ fashion.
Q5) The primary risk factor for cancer is ____________________.
Q6) Some people have a genetic predisposition to cancer. Explain.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the benefits of cloning animals?
Q2) A fragment cut out of DNA and a plasmid cut open for insertion of the fragment must both have been cut with the same type of restriction enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Embryo splitting
A) mimics the way identical twins and triplets are produced naturally.
B) is a means of cloning animal embryos.
C) requires in vitro fertilization.
D) is a technology that could improve the production of domestic animals.
E) is characterized by all of these traits.
Q4) A method for amplifying DNA segments using DNA polymerase is ____________.
Q5) Restriction enzymes recognize and cut DNA at specific nucleotide sequences.
A)True B)False
Q6) Linked DNA segments from humans and vectors, such as plasmids, are called ____________________ molecules.
Q7) The cloning technique that employs in vitro fertilization is ____________.
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Q8) In DNA recombinant technology, the enzyme that acts like glue is
Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a forensic test done using two loci, the chance of a match between the two samples from one locus is 1 in 400, and at the second locus it is 1 in 1000. The overall probability that the two samples match by chance is ____________________.
Q2) Pluripotent cells are taken from the ____________ of a blastocyst.
Q3) Rape (from which canola oil is produced), sunflowers, and soybeans have been genetically modified to enhance production of ___________ fatty acids.
Q4) Transgenic animals are valuable in the study of human diseases for which of the following reasons?
A) They can manifest the same symptoms as human diseases.
B) They can be used to study the development and progress of human diseases.
C) They can be used to test drugs on.
D) They can be cloned and thus have identical genomes.
E) All of these are reasons why transgenic animals are valuable in the study of human diseases.
Q5) Mutations at the cutting site of restriction enzymes always lead to shorter fragments.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what percent of the human genome encodes genetic information?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 15
E) 50
Q2) A branch of genomics that generates three-dimensional structures from their amino acid sequences is _____________.
A) bioinformatics
B) comparative genomics
C) structural genomics
D) pharmacogenomics
E) proteomics
Q3) The private attempt to sequence the human genome, coordinated by Celera Corporation, used a method called ____________________ cloning.
Q4) What are appropriate roles for (a) the government, (b) private enterprises, and (c) not-for-profit organizations and foundations in research on the human genome?
Q5) How has information technology and computing become indispensable for genomics?
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology, Genetic Testing, and Gene Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) About what portion of all couples are affected by infertility?
A) Fewer than 1 percent
B) About 3 percent
C) About 8 percent
D) About 13 percent
E) Over 20 percent
Q2) No birth control method other than complete abstinence is 100 percent successful.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Genetic screening for PKU is mandated by law in the U.S., yet it only affects about 1 in 40,000 individuals. As screening techniques become increasingly sophisticated, how far should mandatory screening be extended? What about screening for conditions such as XYY (about 1 in 1,000 male births)? Can you suggest guidelines for the selection of genetic disorders to be included in such mandatory screening?
Q4) What are the problems and benefits associated with presymptomatic testing for late-onset disorders such as Huntington disease?
Q5) The condition of having no sperm in the semen is called _____________.
Page 18
Q6) Explain why PKU is a model disease for newborn screening programs.
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Chapter 17: Genes and the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In treating hemolytic disease of the newborn, attempts are made to destroy ____________________ fetal cells that enter the mother's blood.
Q2) Which of the following is a pair of agents that both puncture the membranes of foreign bacteria?
A) Macrophages and helper T cells
B) MAC and killer T cells
C) Antibodies and killer T cells
D) Antibodies and plasma cells
E) MAC and plasma cells
Q3) Incompatibility in the Rh blood system can result in hemolytic disease of the newborn. The following combination poses the greatest risk:
A) Rh positive mother, Rh negative fetus
B) Rh positive father, Rh negative fetus
C) Rh negative mother, Rh positive fetus
D) Rh negative mother, Rh negative fetus
E) Rh positive mother, Rh negative father
Q4) The chemical defense system that complements the immune system and supplements the inflammatory response is the ____________________ system.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies of CNVs (copy number variations) reveal that schizophrenia and autism may be ______________.
A) the same disorder
B) opposite faces of the same disorder
C) always inherited together
D) linked to bipolar disorder
E) X-linked dominant disorders
Q2) Alcohol dehydrogenase converts alcohol into _____________________.
Q3) The mutant huntingtin protein that results in Huntington disease
A) causes a decrease in production of another protein.
B) leads to degeneration of cells in the brain's striatum.
C) is toxic to brain cells.
D) leads to degeneration of cells in the brain's striatum and is toxic to brain cells only.
E) has all of these traits.
Q4) The normal form of huntingtin protein enhances the production of another protein,
Q5) The so-called language gene is a transcription factor called _____________.
Q6) How are twins used in research behavioral traits?
Q7) MAOA is an enzyme that breaks down ______________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the out-of-Africa model and multiregional theories of the origin of modern man. Which theory is supported by the preponderance of genetic evidence? What type of evidence supports the other theory?
Q2) In discussing customs and laws affecting marriages between relatives, it is often said that consanguineous matings lead to an increase in the frequency of deleterious alleles in the population. Is this true? Why or why not?
Q3) Genetic drift is a random process that can change the genetic structure of a population.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To be effective as a force changing genetic diversity, drift requires A) a long period of time.
B) selection.
C) small, isolated populations.
D) large-scale migrations.
E) geographic stability.
Q5) Comparative genome studies show that humans and chimpanzees shared a common ancestor approximately ____________ million years ago.
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