Advanced Genetics Mock Exam - 1189 Verified Questions

Page 1


Advanced Genetics

Mock Exam

Course Introduction

Advanced Genetics explores the molecular and cellular mechanisms governing heredity and variation in living organisms. The course delves into complex topics such as gene regulation, epigenetics, genetic mapping, genome editing technologies like CRISPR, and the genetic basis of disease. Students will examine current research methodologies, including advanced DNA sequencing and bioinformatics approaches, and apply genetic knowledge to fields such as medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology. Emphasis is placed on analysis and interpretation of genetic data, ethical considerations in genetics research, and current trends shaping the future of genetic studies.

Recommended Textbook

Concepts of Genetics Books a la Carte Edition 11th Edition by William S. Klug

Available Study Resources on Quizplus

25 Chapters

1189 Verified Questions

1189 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2010 Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Genetics

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39974

Sample Questions

Q1) What is meant by complementarity in terms of the structure of DNA?

Answer: base pairing of A with T,and G with C

Q2) What term is used to describe the fact that different genes in an organism often provide differences in observable features?

Answer: phenotype

Q3) In nonviral systems,what is the nature of the hereditary substance?

Answer: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)is a double-stranded polymer organized as a double helix.

Q4) Name the substance that serves as the hereditary material in eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

Answer: DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid

Q5) Name two individuals who provided the conceptual basis for our present understanding that genes are on chromosomes.

Answer: Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri

Q6) The human genome sequence was reported in 2003 by two groups,the publicly funded ________ and ________.

Answer: Human Genome Project; a private,industry-funded project

Q7) Name the bases in DNA and their pairing specificities.

Answer: adenine:thymine,guanine:cytosine

Page 3

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 2: Mitosis and Meiosis

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

51 Verified Questions

51 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39975

Sample Questions

Q1) Living organisms are categorized into two major groups based on the presence or absence of a nucleus.What group is defined by the presence of a nucleus?

A) eukaryotic organism

B) virus

C) bacterium

D) prokaryotic organism

E) mitochondrial organism

Answer: A

Q2) If a typical somatic cell has 64 chromosomes,how many chromosomes are expected in each gamete of that organism?

A) 8

B) 16

C) 32

D) 64

E) 128

Answer: C

Q3) There is about as much nuclear DNA in a primary spermatocyte as in ________ [number] spermatids?

Answer: 4

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 4

Chapter 3: Mendelian Genetics

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

63 Verified Questions

63 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39976

Sample Questions

Q1) Two organisms,AABBCCDDEE and aabbccddee,are mated to produce an F that is self-fertilized.If the capital letters represent dominant,independently assorting alleles:

a) How many different genotypes will occur in the F ?

b) What proportion of the F genotypes will be recessive for all five loci?

c) Would you change your answers to (a)and/or (b)if the initial cross occurred betwee \[\text { AAbbCCddee } \times a a B B c c D D E E\] n parents?

d) Would you change your answers to (a)and/or (b)if the initial cross occurred betwee

\[A A B B C C D D E E \times a a b b c c d d E E\] n parents?

Answer: (a)3 = 243 (b)1/243 (c)no (d)yes

Q2) Assuming complete dominance,a 3:1 phenotypic ratio is expected from a monohybrid sib or self-cross.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) According to Mendel's model,because of the ________ of chromosomes during meiosis,all possible combinations of gametes will be formed in equal frequency. Answer: independent assortment

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 5

Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Genetics

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

66 Verified Questions

66 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39977

Sample Questions

Q1) In the mouse,gene A allows pigmentation to be deposited in the individual coat hairs; its allele a prevents such deposition of pigment,resulting in an albino.Gene B gives agouti (wild-type fur); its allele b gives black fur.

a) Diagram the cross between a doubly heterozygous agouti mouse mated with a doubly homozygous recessive white mouse.

b) What would be the expected phenotypic ratio in the progeny?

Q2) Assume that a dihybrid F ratio,resulting from epistasis,was 9:3:4.If a double heterozygote was crossed with the fully recessive type,what phenotypic ratio is expected among the offspring?

Q3) Assume that a cross is made between two organisms that are both heterozygous for a gene that shows incomplete dominance.What phenotypic and genotypic ratios are expected in the offspring?

Q4) The term expressivity defines the percentage of individuals who show at least some degree of expression of a mutant genotype.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What distinguishes sex-limited from sex-influenced inheritance?

Q6) Can females display pattern baldness?

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6

Chapter 5: Chromosome Mapping in Eukaryotes

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

43 Verified Questions

43 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39978

Sample Questions

Q1) Phenotypically wild-type F female Drosophila,whose mothers had light eyes (lt)and fathers had straw (stw)bristles,produced the following offspring when crossed to homozygous light-straw males: \( \begin{array}{lr}\text { Phenotype } & \text { Numb } \\ \text { light-straw } & 22 \\ \text { wild-type } & 18 \\ \text { light } & 990 \\ \text { straw } & \text { Total: } \frac{970}{2000}\end{array} \)

Compute the map distance between the light and straw loci.

Q2) Two lines of work indicated that crossing over actually involves breakage and reunion of chromatid material.What organisms were involved,and who did the work?

Q3) The coefficient of coincidence reflects the frequency of observed double crossovers compared to the frequency of expected double crossovers.What is the relationship between the coefficient of coincidence and interference?

Q4) The cross GE/ge × ge/ge produces the following progeny: GE/ge 404; ge/ge 396; gE/ge 97; Ge/ge 103.From these data one can conclude that the G and E loci assort independently.

A)True

B)False

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 7

Chapter 6: Genetic Analysis and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

50 Verified Questions

50 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39979

Sample Questions

Q1) Name two forms of recombination in bacteria.

A) lytic and lysogenic

B) auxotrophic and prototrophic

C) conjugation and transduction

D) mixed and generalized

E) insertion and replication

Q2) Bacteria that are in a particular physiological state to become transformed are called ________.

Q3) Lysogeny is a process that occurs during transformation and conjugation. A)True

B)False

Q4) Assume that one counted 67 plaques on a bacterial plate where 0.1 ml of a 10 dilution of phage was added to bacterial culture.What is the initial concentration of the undiluted phage?

Q5) In a bacterial cross in which the donor (Hfr)is a b and the recipient strain (F )is a b ,it is expected that recombinant bacteria will all be a b .

A)True

B)False

Q6) What is meant by the term cotransformation?

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8

Chapter 7: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

48 Verified Questions

48 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39980

Sample Questions

Q1) Studies done in the 1960s suggested that individuals with the XYY condition were prone to criminal behavior.What conclusions presently seem appropriate concerning this chromosomal condition?

Q2) Assuming a normal number of autosomes,what would be the sex of the following: XXY mouse,XXY Drosophila?

Q3) Assume that you are told that a particular organism,Drosophila,has the XO chromosome complement.You are also told that the autosomal complement is a normal 2n.You know that in humans the XO complement is female determining.Would you be correct in assuming that the Drosophila sex for XO is also female? Choose the answer that includes the correct explanation.

A) Yes, because sex determination in humans and insects is essentially the same.

B) No, sex determination in Drosophila is dependent on the presence or absence of the Y chromosome.

C) No, the chromosomal basis for sex determination in Drosophila is based on the balance between the number of X chromosomes and haploid sets of autosomes.

D) Yes, the presence of an X chromosome determines a female in both organisms.

E) No, it takes two X chromosomes to produce a female in humans and a Y chromosome to produce a male in Drosophila.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

9

Chapter 8: Chromosome Mutations: Variation in Number and Arrangement

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

48 Verified Questions

48 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39981

Sample Questions

Q1) In Drosophila melanogaster (2n = 8),a fly with seven chromosomes could be called a haplo-IV.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Familial Down syndrome can be caused by a translocation between chromosomes 1 and 14.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Given that a human normally contains 46 chromosomes,give the chromosome number for each of the following conditions:

Turner syndrome (female,no Barr bodies)

Klinefelter syndrome (male,one Barr body)

Triploid

Down syndrome (trisomic)

Trisomy 13

Q4) Assume that a species has a diploid chromosome number of 24.The term applied to an individual with 25 chromosomes would be triploid.

A)True

B)False

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10

Chapter 9: Extranuclear Inheritance

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39982

Sample Questions

Q1) What is the meaning of the term endosymbiotic theory?

Q2) Describe the molecular and transmission characteristics of Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON).

Q3) Direction of shell coiling in the snail Lymnaea peregra is conditioned by a form of extrachromosomal inheritance known as ________.

A) sex-linked inheritance

B) heteroplasmy

C) maternal effect

D) independent assortment

E) epistasis

Q4) Inheritance of the green and white patches phenotype in Mirabilis jalapa (four o'clocks)is an example of maternal influence.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Which three classes of macromolecules are encoded by mtDNA?

Q6) Name two human disorders that appear to be transmitted extrachromosomally.

Q7) Poky strains in yeast result from suppressive mutations in chloroplast DNA.

A)True

B)False

Page 11

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 10: DNA Structure and Analysis

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

51 Verified Questions

51 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39983

Sample Questions

Q1) What type of chemical bond holds the two strands together in double-stranded DNA?

Q2) List two major differences between RNA and DNA at the level of the nucleotide.

Q3) Regarding the structure of DNA,the covalently arranged combination of a deoxyribose and a nitrogenous base would be called a(n)________.

A) nucleotide

B) ribonucleotide

C) monophosphate nucleoside

D) oligonucleotide

E) nucleoside

Q4) The base content of a sample of DNA is as follows: A = 31%,G = 31%,T = 19%,C = 19%.What conclusion can be drawn from this information?

Q5) In ribose,the 2 C has an OH attached to it.

A)True B)False

Q6) Avery et al.(1944)determined that DNA is the genetic material in T2 bacteriophage.

A)True B)False

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12

Chapter 11: DNA Replication and Recombination

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

50 Verified Questions

50 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39984

Sample Questions

Q1) During DNA replication,what is the function of RNA primase?

Q2) What primary ingredients,coupled with DNA polymerase I,are needed for the in vitro synthesis of DNA?

Q3) Meselson and Stahl determined that DNA replication in E coli is semiconservative.What additive did they initially supply to the medium in order to distinguish "new" from "old" DNA?

Q4) In general,DNA replicates semiconservatively and bidirectionally.

A)True

B)False

Q5) DNA strand replication begins with an RNA primer.

A)True

B)False

Q6) DNA replication in vivo requires a primer with a free 3 end.What molecular species provides this 3 end,and how is it provided?

Q7) DNA replication occurs in the 5 to 3 direction; that is,new nucleoside triphosphates are added to the 3 end.

A)True

B)False

Q8) Compare the rate of DNA replication in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13

Chapter 12: DNA Organization in Chromosomes

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39985

Sample Questions

Q1) Telomerase is an enzyme involved in the replication of the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In situ hybridization allows one to "visualize" the location of labeled RNA or DNA in a tissue or cell.

A)True B)False

Q3) The E.coli chromosome is circular and double-stranded DNA.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Briefly describe the makeup of VNTRs (variable number tandem repeats).

Q5) What are histones,and how are they arranged in nucleosomes?

Q6) What similarities do bacterial chromosomes have with eukaryotic chromosomes?

Q7) When native chromatin is digested with micrococcal nuclease,what significant result occurs?

Q8) Chromosomal regions that represent evolutionary vestiges of duplicated copies of genes that have underdone sufficient mutations to render them untranscribable are called ________.

Q9) How do VNTRs relate to DNA fingerprinting? Page 14

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 15

Chapter 13: The Genetic Code and Transcription

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

51 Verified Questions

51 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39986

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following contains the three posttranscriptional modifications often seen in the maturation of mRNA in eukaryotes?

A) 5 -capping, 3 -poly(A) tail addition, splicing

B) 3 -capping, 5 -poly(A) tail addition, splicing

C) removal of exons, insertion of introns, capping

D) 5 -poly(A) tail addition, insertion of introns, capping

E) heteroduplex formation, base modification, capping

Q2) When considering the initiation of transcription,one often finds consensus sequences located in the region of the DNA where RNA polymerase(s)binds.Which of the following is a common consensus sequence?

A) TATA

B) GGTTC

C) TTTTAAAA

D) any trinucleotide repeat

E) satellite DNAs

Q3) The code is nonoverlapping,meaning that,assuming "standard translation," a given base participates in the specification of one and only one amino acid.

A)True

B)False

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 16

Chapter 14: Translation and Proteins

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

50 Verified Questions

50 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39987

Sample Questions

Q1) The secondary structure of a protein includes ________.

A) gamma and delta

B) alpha and gamma

C) -helix and -pleated sheet

D) hydrophobic clusters

E) disulfide bridges

Q2) Describe the basic structure of normal adult hemoglobin and the abnormality observed in sickle-cell hemoglobin.

Q3) By their experimentation using the Neurospora fungus,Beadle and Tatum were able to propose the far-reaching hypothesis that ________.

A) prototrophs will grow only if provided with nutritional supplements

B) several different enzymes may be involved in the same step in a biochemical pathway

C) the role of a specific gene is to produce a specific enzyme

D) genetic recombination occurred in Neurospora

E) more than one codon can specify a given amino acid

Q4) Sickle-cell anemia is caused by the absence of the alpha chain of hemoglobin.

A)True

B)False

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17

Chapter 15: Gene Mutation,dna Repair,and Transposition

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

53 Verified Questions

53 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39988

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following name two mutagens that would be classified as base analogs?

A) acridine orange and proflavine

B) ethylmethane sulfonate and ethylmethylketone peroxide

C) ultraviolet light and cosmic radiation

D) 5-bromouracil and 2-amino purine

E) hydroxyurea and peroxidase

Q2) Apurinic sites (AP sites)involve a spontaneous loss of a(n)________ in an intact double-helix DNA molecule.

Q3) Three major types of RNAs are mRNA,rRNA,and tRNA.For each of the conditions below predict the consequences in terms of the population of proteins being synthesized in a particular cell.What qualitative and quantitative changes,if any,are expected in the individual protein involved (if one is involved)and in the population of proteins produced in that cell?

a) A frameshift mutation in mRNA.The condition is heterozygous in the involved cell.

b) A deletion (homozygous)that removes approximately half of the rRNA genes.

Q4) Recent discoveries on causes of fragile X syndrome,myotonic dystrophy,and Huntington disease indicate which type of genetic alteration?

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18

Chapter 16: Regulation of Gene Expression in Prokaryotes

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39989

Sample Questions

Q1) What symbols are used to describe constitutive mutations at specific regions of the lac regulatory system?

Q2) Explain why lacO mutations are cis-acting while lacI mutations can be trans-acting.

Q3) What is the function of the lacY gene in the lac operon?

Q4) Describe what is meant by a gratuitous inducer.Give an example.

Q5) Attenuation is known to occur in the lac operon.

A)True

B)False

Q6) The enzyme permease cleaves the linkage between glucose and galactose residues in lactose.

A)True

B)False

Q7) Under a system of negative control,genetic expression occurs unless such expression is shut off by some form of regulator.

A)True

B)False

Q8) Present an overview of prokaryotic regulation in terms of growth efficiency.

Q9) What is an allosteric molecule?

Page 19

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 17: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

46 Verified Questions

46 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39990

Sample Questions

Q1) An upstream activator sequence (UAS)can function at variable distances and in either orientation.However,it differs from an enhancer in that it cannot function downstream of the transcription starting point.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Describe the general structure of a transcription factor.

Q3) Alternative RNA processing can result in different mRNAs that start with different exons.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In general,one could say that fewer levels of regulation are possible in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.

A)True

B)False

Q5) In what ways are eukaryotic transcription factors thought to function?

Q6) Approximately 5% of the cytosine residues are methylated in the genome of any given eukaryote.In what way is DNA methylation related to genetic regulation?

Q7) Describe the difference between a focused promoter and a dispersed promoter.

Q8) Describe how nucleosomes may influence gene transcription.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20

Chapter 18: Developmental Genetics

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39991

Sample Questions

Q1) What kinds of general observations cause one to conclude that development is the result of variable gene activity?

Q2) Which general genetic process is believed to account for the variety of cellular structures and functions in eukaryotic cells?

A) variable gene activity

B) negative control exclusively

C) maternal environmental activities

D) intron processing

E) RNA processing

Q3) What significant conclusion has the classic work on the eyeless and Pax6 genes provided in terms of developmental mechanisms?

Q4) In Drosophila,what is the order of function of the segmentation genes?

Q5) Design an experiment that would allow you to determine if a particular nucleus in a Drosophila embryo is capable of directing development of an entire new fly.

Q6) What is the general order of genes involved in determining early Drosophila development?

Q7) How do segment polarity genes relate to pair-rule genes?

Q8) From a human developmental standpoint,what is the significance of Hox genes?

Page 21

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 19: Cancer and Regulation of the Cell Cycle

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

48 Verified Questions

48 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39992

Sample Questions

Q1) The gene p53 is called the "guardian of the genome" because it corrects mutations in the spindle apparatus before nondisjunction can occur.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Describe two classes of proteins known to be involved in the regulation of the cell cycle.

Q3) What functional differences exist between various cyclins?

Q4) Differentiate among the following types of genes: tumor-suppressor gene,proto-oncogene,and oncogene.

Q5) Chronic myelogenous leukemia appears to be associated with a chromosomal rearrangement.Which chromosome(s)is(are)involved,and what is the name of the rearrangement?

Q6) Describe the cellular and molecular function of the ras gene family and the consequences of mutations in ras.

Q7) As more is learned about cancer,it has become clear that cancer,with few exceptions,has no genetic basis.

A)True

B)False

Q8) What is retinoblastoma,and what is its supposed genetic basis?

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22

Chapter 20: Recombinant DNA Technology

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39993

Sample Questions

Q1) A common term for a plasmid or other DNA element that serves as a cloning vehicle is vector.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In recombinant DNA technology,YAC,RFLP,and have identical uses.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Words such as level,civic,and kayak have something in common compared to the fundamental tool of recombinant DNA technology.In the context of recombinant DNA technology,which term would be used to describe such words?

A) lysogenic

B) prototrophic

C) palindromic

D) conjugation

E) insertion

Q4) A knockout animal,in the context of recombinant DNA technology,is one that has been completely anesthetized.

A)True

B)False

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23

Chapter 21: Genomics, bioinformatics, and Proteomics

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39994

Sample Questions

Q1) The term paralog is often used in conjunction with discussions of hemoglobin genes.What does this term mean,and how does it apply to hemoglobin genes?

Q2) Compared with prokaryotic chromosomes,eukaryotic chromosomes are

A) large, mainly organized in single gene transcription units without introns

B) small, mainly organized in single gene transcription units with introns

C) large, mainly organized in polygenic transcription units without introns

D) small, mainly organized in polygenic transcription units without introns

E) large, linear, less densely packed with protein-coding genes, mainly organized in single gene units with introns

Q3) In what way will the discipline called metagenomics contribute to human health and welfare?

Q4) A number of generalizations can be made about the organization of protein-coding genes in bacterial chromosomes.First,the gene density is very high,averaging about

Q5) Explain the goal of the emerging discipline called systems biology.

Q6) Typically,bacterial DNA contains less repetitive DNA than eukaryotic DNA.

A)True

B)False

Q7) What is ELSI?

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24

Chapter 22: Applications and Ethics of Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

36 Verified Questions

36 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39995

Sample Questions

Q1) Prenatal detection of human diseases has been greatly enhanced by two procedures.Name and briefly describe each.

Q2) One of the problems associated with the generation of transgenic plants is that the ecological parameters of many plants are not completely understood.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In the past decades,direct-to-consumer (DTC)genetic tests have become widespread.Are such tests approved by the Food and Drug Administration?

Q4) A restriction fragment is generated by the action of a restriction enzyme (endonuclease).

A)True

B)False

Q5) Rational drug design involves the synthesis of specific chemical substances that affect specific gene products.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Name at least three applications for examining sequence variants such as RFLPs.

Q7) Describe,in general terms,the aims of gene therapy.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25

Chapter 23: Quantitative Genetics and Multifactorial Traits

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

52 Verified Questions

52 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39996

Sample Questions

Q1) Assume that you are studying a trait determined by a number of polygenes.If there are seven phenotypic categories,how many genes are probably involved?

Q2) What is meant by the term heritability? Describe the components of heritability and provide a brief explanation of each.Of what interest is heritability to animal and plant breeders?

Q3) The 9:3:3:1 ratio is typical of a dihybrid cross in which complete dominance and independent assortment occur.What is the dihybrid ratio with independent assortment of polygenes?

Q4) In the early part of the twentieth century,Nilsson-Ehle and others described experiments showing that multiple loci may be involved in the inheritance of certain traits.Such patterns are often called ________.

Q5) Name the three components of phenotypic variance.

Q6) To estimate how much the means of a variety of like samples drawn from the same population might vary,what statistic is often used and what is the formula for it?

Q7) If the proportion of F individuals resembling either of the two most extreme phenotypes (the parental phenotypes)can be determined,what formula can be applied to determine the number of gene pairs involved?

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26

Chapter 24: Neurogenetics

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39997

Sample Questions

Q1) Why is cyclic AMP considered important in behavioral studies?

Q2) The HD gene,one of the first genes to be mapped in humans by RFLP,is located on the short arm of chromosome 4.It codes for ________.

Q3) What conclusion has been reached regarding the genetic status of schizophrenia using genome-wide association studies?

A) A single dominant gene is involved.

B) No single gene or allele makes a significant contribution.

C) A single recessive gene is involved.

D) Several dominant genes located on the X chromosome cause this disease.

E) No more than three loci are involved in the expression of schizophrenia.

Q4) Evidence from genome-wide association studies on schizophrenia indicates that no single gene or allele makes a significant contribution to this disorder.

A)True

B)False

Q5) List at least three areas of research that deal with the genetics of behavior in humans.

Q6) Briefly describe the mutant status of the HD gene.

Q7) What is the biochemical role of adenyl cyclase?

Page 27

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 25: Population and Evolutionary Genetics

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

58 Verified Questions

58 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39998

Sample Questions

Q1) Would one expect a linear relationship between DNA sequence divergence and phylogenetic distance? Why or why not?

Q2) What term is given to the total genetic information carried by all members of a population?

A) gene pool

B) genome

C) chromosome complement

D) breeding unit

E) race

Q3) Provide a general definition for the term speciation.

Q4) What does the variable 2pq represent?

Q5) Why are some proteins more likely than others to diverge within a species?

Q6) List at least five of the assumptions that pertain to a population in a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

Q7) What single event is probably common to all occurrences of speciation?

Q8) Assume that a trait is caused by the homozygous state of a gene that is recessive and autosomal.Nine percent of the individuals in a given population express the phenotype caused by this gene.What percentage of the individuals would be heterozygous for the gene? Assume that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28

Turn static files into dynamic content formats.

Create a flipbook