Advanced Genetics Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Advanced Genetics delves into the molecular and cellular mechanisms that govern inheritance, gene expression, and genetic variation in living organisms. Building upon foundational genetic concepts, this course explores complex topics such as gene regulation, epigenetics, genetic mapping, population genetics, and the molecular basis of genetic diseases. Students will engage with contemporary research techniques, including CRISPR gene editing, genomic sequencing, and bioinformatics tools, to analyze and interpret genetic data. Emphasis is placed on the application of advanced genetic principles in areas such as medical genetics, evolutionary biology, and biotechnology, fostering critical thinking and experimental problem-solving skills.
Recommended Textbook
Human Heredity Principles and Issues 10th Edition by Michael Cummings
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19 Chapters
1035 Verified Questions
1035 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you were a geneticist working to clone a woolly mammoth, you would be using ____ technology.
A) cytogenetic
B) pedigree analysis
C) molecular genetics
D) transmission genetics
E) recombinant DNA
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following terms is not closely related to the others?
A) Haplotype
B) Single nucleotide polymorphism
C) Genome-wide association study
D) Induced pluripotency
E) All of these terms are closely related
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ribosomes are organelles that function in ____.
A) plasma membrane selectivity
B) cellular energy production
C) synthesis of gene products
D) transport of materials throughout the cytoplasm
E) DNA replication
Answer: C
Q2) The only cytoplasmic organelles besides nuclei that contain DNA are the ____________________.
Answer: mitochondria
Q3) If a cell was to stop dividing, it would stop in the __________ part of the cell cycle.
Answer: G1
Q4) The process of meiosis results in ____.
A) the production of four identical cells
B) no change in chromosome number from parental cells
C) a doubling of the chromosome number
D) a reduction in chromosome number
E) two diploid cells
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes From Generation to Generation
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Independent assortment means that _____.
A) monohybrid crosses will show segregation and independent assortment
B) the segregation of one gene pair depends on the segregation of another gene pair
C) the gametes produced must be heterozygous in all cases
D) the segregation of one gene pair occurs as if no other gene pair was present
E) the phenotypic ratio in F2 will be the same for dihybrid and monohybrid crosses
Answer: D
Q2) In pedigrees, a male individual is symbolized as a ____________________.
Answer: square
Q3) A cross between two individuals who differ with respect to two gene pairs is a ____________________ cross.
Answer: dihybrid
Q4) When members of the gene pair carried by an individual are not alike, the individual is said to be ____________________.
Answer: heterozygous
Q5) Pure-breeding individuals always have the ____________________ genotype. Answer: homozygous
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Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Y-linked traits are
A) known as hemizygous traits.
B) known to skip alternate generations of males.
C) carried only by males and transmitted only to males.
D) known to skip alternate generations of males and are carried only by males and transmitted only to males.
E) known as hemizygous traits and are carried only by males and transmitted only to males.
Q2) The phenotypes of a trait controlled by the same gene are not always identical.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Two phenotypically normal parents have six children. Two daughters and two sons have the same genetic disease. This would be the expected situation for A) hemophilia.
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) Marfan syndrome.
D) hypophosphatemia.
E) all of these.
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6
Chapter 5: Complex Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The role of nutrition in the improvement of spina bifida is an example of a _____ effect.
A) cumulative
B) polygenic
C) epigenetic
D) penetrative
E) phenotypic
Q2) The heritability of IQ is about 0.5. This is interpreted by some to mean that IQ is 50 percent genetic and 50 percent environmental. Is this correct? What exactly does a heritability value of 0.5 mean?
Q3) Which statement about the interaction between genes and environment is most correct?
A) Phenotypic variation is derived from a single source.
B) The phenotype, once determined, is invariable.
C) The phenotype is produced by interaction of genotype and the environment.
D) The phenotype can be quantified into genotypic and environmental components.
E) None of these is true.
Q4) ______________ traits are those that result from the interaction of genes and the environment..
Q5) ______________ twins result from a single fertilization event.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics: Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A translocation involving chromosome 21 can result in
A) a risk for Down syndrome independent of maternal age.
B) a risk for Down syndrome dependent on paternal age.
C) no increased risk outside of maternal age.
D) lowering the risk of Down syndrome.
E) no change in the risk for Down syndrome.
Q2) Show how the frequencies of many chromosome abnormalities are different in newborns than they are in fetuses.
Q3) Which one of the following pairings of an aneuploidy and the syndrome it causes is incorrectly matched?
A) X-chromosome monosomy (X and no Y) causes Turner syndrome.
B) X-chromosome trisomy causes Klinefelter syndrome.
C) Trisomy 21 causes Down syndrome.
D) Trisomy 13 causes Edwards syndrome.
E) Uniparental disomy causes Prader-Willi syndrome.
Q4) Distinguish between:
a. Trisomy 13 and trisomy 18
b. Triploidy and tetraploidy
c. Angelman syndrome and Prader-Willi syndrome
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Q5) Who are translocation carriers and in what sense are they high-risk individuals?
Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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Sample Questions
Q1) It would be possible for a Klinefelter (XXY) cat to have tortoise shell color.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Individuals with androgen insensitivity are abnormal because
A) their ovarian ducts do not develop.
B) their testes do not produce testosterone.
C) they have no Müllerian ducts.
D) they are missing a receptor protein for testosterone.
E) they have two copies of the SRY gene.
Q3) The undifferentiated genitalia of an early human embryo develops into male genitalia under the influence of A) oxytocin.
B) prostaglandin and DHT.
C) prolactin.
D) testosterone and DHT.
E) Müllerian duct inhibitors.
Q4) The ____________________ gene is Y-linked and plays a major role in causing the undifferentiated gonad to develop into a testis.
Q5) Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is the result of ____________________.
Page 9
Q6) X inactivation can lead to ____________________ in females.
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Chapter 8: DNA Structure and Chromosomal Organization
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52 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) To make a DNA vaccine against SARS, what type of genes were used?
A) Human genes
B) E.coli genes
C) Chimpanzee genes
D) SARS viral genes
E) H1N1 viral genes
Q2) The base found in DNA, but not RNA, is ____________________; the base found in RNA, but not DNA, is ____________________.
Q3) The name of the enzyme that replicates DNA is ____________________.
Q4) DNA is made up of a linear array of ____________________.
Q5) Describe the structure of nucleosomes.
Q6) Which of the three parts of a nucleotide (nitrogen base, phosphate, sugar) lies between the other two? ____________________
Q7) The two strands of each polynucleotide chain in DNA are identical.
A)True
B)False
Q8) The 3' end of DNA or RNA ends with a phosphate group.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Gene Expression: From Genes to Proteins
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68 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is NOT required for transcription?
A) RNA polymerase.
B) DNA.
C) Uracil nucleotides.
D) Ribosomes.
E) All of these are needed for transcription.
Q2) Hydrogen bonds join amino acids in the polypeptide chain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Two tRNA molecules occupy the P and A sites in a ribosome. The amino acids they carry are joined by a peptide bond. What is the very next event that occurs?
A) The tRNA in the P site detaches and leaves the ribosome.
B) A third tRNA enters the ribosome.
C) The ribosome moves one codon down the mRNA.
D) The large subunit leaves the ribosome.
E) A new amino acid is joined to the tRNA in the P site.
Q4) ____________________ have two binding sites for tRNA to allow the formation of peptide bonds.
Q5) Prions cause disease by changing the way proteins ____________________.
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Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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58 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Show how the environment, extrauterine and intrauterine factors can influence the expression of PKU.
Q2) Fetal hemoglobin functions adequately in the fetus but is ineffective in adults.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Different genotypes for the CYP2D6 gene produce significantly different responses to tamoxifen, the medication of choice for treatment of most cases of
Q4) Phenylketonuria is a result of a deficiency of the enzyme
Q5) The inability to break down galactose is the genetic disorder called
Q6) The compound that Dr. Folling isolated from the urine of the Egeland children was
A) phenylalanine
B) pyruvic acid
C) phenylpyruvic acid
D) phtalamine
E) pertussic acid
12
Q7) In people who have PKU, phenylalanine cannot be converted into the amino acid
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Chapter 11: Mutation: the Source of Genetic Variation
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genomic imprinting is a phenomenon that does not violate Mendelian principles of segregation and independent assortment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chemicals that resemble base pairs and insert themselves into DNA molecules are called ____________________ agents.
Q3) Which of the following will occur to a cell that undergoes a critical amount of mutational damage?
A) It will enter into senescence.
B) Apoptosis will occur.
C) It will become cancerous.
D) A and C will occur but not
E) All three will occur (A, B, and C).
Q4) Frameshift mutations include nucleotide substitutions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why do some genetic disorders have a high new mutation rate (hemophilia and muscular dystrophy) while others display a very low new mutation rate (Huntington's disease)?
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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations that convert proto-oncogenes to oncogenes are mutations that cause
A) the gene to produce an altered gene product.
B) underproduction of a normal gene product.
C) overproduction of a normal gene product.
D) an increase in the number of copies of the normal gene.
E) all of these.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the effect of cancer-causing mutations on the cell cycle?
A) The mutations increase the speed of the cycle.
B) The mutations cause the cell to bypass checkpoints in the cycle.
C) The mutations eliminate one or more stages of the cycle.
D) The mutations interfere with S stage of the cycle.
E) None of these.
Q3) What is the role of oncogenes and tumor-suppressor genes, and how can mutations in these genes lead to cancer?
Q4) All breast cancers result from a recessively inherited gene that suppresses cell division.
A)True
B)False
Q5) BRCA1 and BRCA2 are inherited in a ______________ fashion.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain what restriction enzymes do to a strand of DNA and how they are used in recombinant DNA experiments.
Q2) In genomic libraries, DNA fragments are stored in ______________ chromosomes.
Q3) To find a specific DNA sequence in a genomic library, researchers employ single-stranded RNA or DNA molecules called _________.
Q4) For what purpose do bacteria use restriction enzymes?
A) They are used in plasmid exchanges to fuse plasmid DNA.
B) They are used to restrict important nutrients from leaving the bacterial cell.
C) They are used to resist infections by viruses.
D) They are used to cut up and recycle mRNA transcripts.
E) They are used to attach amino acids to tRNA molecules.
Q5) Compared to the average cow's milk production, how many times greater was Blackrose II's milk production?
A) 2 times
B) 3 times
C) 4 times
D) 5 times
E) 10 times
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once a gene has been cloned, it can be used for A) disease diagnosis.
B) detecting heterozygotes in the population.
C) making biosynthetic products for commercial use.
D) all of these.
E) none of these.
Q2) Bt crops contain a gene making them resistant to common herbicides.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The use of recombinant DNA technology to produce commercial products is
Q4) Some states are setting up archives of DNA profiles for all convicted criminals. Should this be extended to all citizens and become part of their basic medical records?
Q5) In DNA profiles
A) the bands are derived from variation in restriction cutting sites of DNA.
B) ideally, the pattern is unique for all individuals except identical twins.
C) variations in short tandem repeats produce the banding pattern.
D) all of these are true.
E) none of these are true.
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Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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49 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Annotation is a process done to find all genes that A) code for protein.
B) are active in any given cell type. C) encode any RNA or protein product. D) are linked on any one chromosome. E) exist in a species.
Q2) Two genes have a lod score of 1.2. This indicates that the two genes are most likely __________.
A) moderately linked B) loosely linked C) tightly linked D) on separate chromosomes E) in separate genomes
Q3) Genes on the same chromosome are said to show ______________.
Q4) The techniques by which DNA sequence information is used for deriving the three-dimensional structure of proteins is called ____________________ genomics.
Q5) Frataxin, the protein involved in Friedreich ataxia, is located in cells'
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Q6) The portion of the genome that encodes proteins is called the ____________.
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology, Genetic Testing, and Gene Therapy
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52 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the problems with gene therapy have been traced to ____________________.
Q2) "Gene doping" with Repoxygen has the goal of increasing the production of ____________________ cells in athletes.
Q3) It is argued that genetic testing can be used to hold down costs for insurance and in employee liability. Should mandatory genetic testing be used as a condition for employment or insurance? Why or why not?
Q4) What are the goals of heterozygote screening? Explain why sickle cell anemia and Tay-Sachs screening programs are good examples of this type of screening.
Q5) Most genetic counselors
A) have an M.D. and/or Ph.D. degree.
B) are individuals who have previously sought counseling themselves.
C) are trained in biology and psychology, but are unfamiliar with lab and clinical procedures.
D) work in individual private counseling offices.
E) have none of these traits.
Q6) Gene therapy has been successful in treating Leber congenital amaurosis, a rare form of ____________.
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Q7) Enumerate the various categories of individuals who seek genetic counseling.
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Chapter 17: Genes and the Immune System
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62 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Incompatibility in the Rh blood system can result in hemolytic disease of the newborn. The following combination poses the greatest risk:
A) Rh positive mother, Rh negative fetus
B) Rh positive father, Rh negative fetus
C) Rh negative mother, Rh positive fetus
D) Rh negative mother, Rh negative fetus
E) Rh positive mother, Rh negative father
Q2) How can so many different antibodies be made in a relatively short period of time?
Q3) Complement proteins can form a system of proteins that create a pore in the membranes of bacteria. This system is called the _________________.
Q4) In treating hemolytic disease of the newborn, attempts are made to destroy ____________________ fetal cells that enter the mother's blood.
Q5) ____________________ result from immunological hypersensitivity to what should be harmless substances.
Q6) How can hemolytic disease of the newborn be prevented?
Q7) Of the four types of T cells, only the ____________________ cells destroy infected body cells.
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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51 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies of CNVs (copy number variations) reveal that schizophrenia and autism may be ______________.
A) the same disorder
B) opposite faces of the same disorder
C) always inherited together
D) linked to bipolar disorder
E) X-linked dominant disorders
Q2) A mutation in the MAOA gene is associated with ____________ behavior.
A) fear-based
B) risk-taking
C) violent
D) schizophrenic
E) bipolar
Q3) How are twins used in research behavioral traits?
Q4) Alcohol dehydrogenase converts alcohol into _____________________.
Q5) Amyloid plaques are routinely found in many brains but are much more common in the brains of people who have ____________________.
Q6) Huntington disease involves multiple trinucleotide repeats of the nucleotide sequence _____________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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71 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a large population on a Pacific island, a few individuals had a mutation that caused them to have different colored eyes. After a hurricane, the population was reduced to only a few individuals, but some of those individuals had the rare eye color mutation. Now, after many generations, almost half of the population on this island has different colored eyes. This is an example of _____________.
Q2) In a hypothetical population of 1,000 people, there is a hypothetical trait called pink toe. People who are homozygous dominant have red toes; those who are homozygous recessive have white toes; those who are heterozygous have pink toes. If 400 people have red toes, the number of people with pink toes is ______________.
Q3) It has been suggested that the allele for cystic fibrosis may confer some protection against A) tuberculosis. B) malaria. C) bacterial diarrhea. D) typhoid fever.
E) bacterial diarrhea and typhoid fever only.
Q4) Gene frequencies often differ from population to population. What factors might hold gene frequencies at different levels in adjacent populations?
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