Advanced First Aid
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced First Aid is an in-depth course designed to equip students with critical lifesaving skills necessary for responding to medical emergencies in a variety of settings. The curriculum covers advanced patient assessment, management of trauma and medical emergencies, airway management, control of bleeding, shock, and splinting of fractures. Students will also learn to use automated external defibrillators (AEDs), administer oxygen, and manage environmental emergencies such as heat stroke and hypothermia. The course combines theoretical instruction with practical hands-on simulations to ensure students can confidently and effectively respond to complex first aid situations until professional medical help arrives.
Recommended Textbook
Emergency Care 13th Edition by Daniel J. Limmer
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1984 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Emergency Medical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) You and your new EMT partner arrive first on the scene of a single car rollover on the shoulder of a busy highway.You pull off in a safe location and just as you stop the ambulance,your partner throws the passenger door open,steps out of the truck,and begins jogging through the scattered debris toward the overturned car.You shout for him to stop and he looks back at you,but then continues to the vehicle and begins assessing the driver.Later,as you are restocking in the ambulance bay of the local trauma center your partner tells you that he thinks you acted unprofessionally by shouting at him.What is the best way to respond?
A) Shouting was an attempt to protect the EMT from a potentially unsafe scene.
B) New EMTs should expect partners to yell at them occasionally.
C) The On-Duty Supervisor should be called.
D) An EMT should never hurry to assist a patient.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is a role of the EMT in the quality improvement process?
A) Taking responsibility for the actions of one's partner
B) Writing complete patient care reports
C) Critiquing performance of one's partner
D) Assuring personal safety
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Well-Being of the Emt
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Q1) Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis?
A) Current and former smokers
B) Immunosuppressed patients
C) Uranium mine workers
D) Healthcare practitioners
Answer: B
Q2) One's "cognitive ability" refers to his or her ability to do which of the following?
A) Control his or her emotions
B) Use fine motor skills
C) Adapt to stress
D) Think and solve problems
Answer: D
Q3) Which three "Rs" are essential for the EMT to practice when reacting to danger?
A) Retreat, radio, reevaluate
B) Remember, respect, respond
C) Ricochet, recover, re-entry
D) Realize, react, reassess
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Lifting and Moving Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) When placing all fingers and the palm in contact with the object being lifted,you are using which of the following?
A) Lock grip
B) Power lift
C) Power grip
D) Vise grip
Answer: C
Q2) What is the contraindication for the use of a scoop or orthopedic stretcher?
A) Internal injuries
B) Hip fracture
C) Pelvic injury
D) Spinal injury
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following patients should NOT be transported in a stair chair?
A) Patient with difficulty breathing
B) Patient who is nauseated
C) Patient with a suspected spinal injury
D) Patient found lying in bed
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Medicallegal and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the EMT is in doubt as to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be resuscitated,which of the following is the best decision?
A) Have the patient's family put their wishes in writing.
B) Withhold resuscitative measures.
C) Consult with the patient's physician.
D) Begin resuscitative measures.
Q2) While documenting a call,you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor.This could constitute which of the following?
A) Libel
B) Slander
C) Degradation of character
D) HIPAA violation
Q3) Which of the following is NOT required to prove a claim of negligence against an EMT?
A) The EMT had a duty to act.
B) Proximate causation existed.
C) The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care.
D) The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.
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6
Chapter 5: Medical Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) You respond to a large concert venue where a number of spectators are reported to be severely intoxicated.You are directed to an area where several patients appear to be unconscious,lying face down on the ground.The position of these patients is described as:
A) posterior.
B) supine.
C) anterior.
D) prone.
Q2) With regard to anatomical locations,which of the following is NOT true?
A) The umbilicus is located on the ventral aspect of the body.
B) The ears are located on the lateral aspect of the head.
C) The foot is distal to the knee.
D) The mouth is proximal to the nose.
Q3) The term lateral is best defined as:
A) under the arms.
B) toward the middle of.
C) to the back of.
D) to the side.
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Chapter 6: Anatomy and Physiology
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Q1) Failure of the liver would result in which of the following?
A) Inability to filter out old and damaged blood cells
B) Inability to secrete insulin
C) Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following structures receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the venae cavae?
A) Right ventricle
B) Left ventricle
C) Left atrium
D) Right atrium
Q3) In relation to anatomy,the term topography means :
A) the study of the skin.
B) external landmarks of body structures.
C) blood pressure fluctuations.
D) key elements of the central nervous system.
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Chapter 7: Ventilation, perfusion, and Shock: Understanding Pathophysiology
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Q1) In normal exhalation,the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax to contract the chest,which creates a positive pressure.This is what type of process?
A) Inspiration
B) Active
C) Passive
D) Respiration
Q2) Carbon dioxide is transported back to the lungs in two ways: via the red blood cells and:
A) white blood cells.
B) oncotic pressure.
C) hydrostatic pressure.
D) plasma.
Q3) Our blood transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells and returns with what byproduct of metabolism?
A) Lactic acid
B) Carbolic acid
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Carbon monoxide
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Chapter 8: Life Span Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you place your finger in an infant's palm,she grasps it with her fingers.This is an example of which reflex?
A) Sucking
B) Palmar
C) Rooting
D) Moro
Q2) Patients in which age group tend to be very concerned with body image?
A) School age
B) Adolescence
C) Middle adulthood
D) Early adulthood
Q3) Your 89-year-old male patient has called for help because he almost passed out after bringing in his garbage cans from the curb.The patient lives alone and says that he became panicked when he started feeling so lightheaded and dizzy.Patients in this age group often undergo all of the following changes to their health,except:
A) blood volume decreases.
B) increased metabolism.
C) sleep-wake cycle disrupted.
D) deterioration of respiratory system.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The high-pitched sound caused by an upper airway obstruction is known as:
A) gurgling.
B) stridor.
C) rhonchi.
D) rales.
Q2) Which of the following is true concerning the procedure for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)?
A) The bevel should be turned toward the nasal septum.
B) If a water-soluble lubricant is not available, a silicon spray can be substituted.
C) It can only be placed in the right nostril.
D) The length of the device is not as important as it is with oropharyngeal airways.
Q3) What is the danger that an altered mental status can pose to a patient's breathing?
A) Depressed alveolar function
B) Loss of muscle tone and airway collapse
C) Bronchospasms
D) Hyperoxia
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Chapter 10: Respiration and Artificial Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the three types of oxygen flowmeters,which one can only be used upright?
A) Bourdon gauge flowmeter
B) Hudson gauge flowmeter
C) Constant flow selector valve
D) Pressure-compensated flowmeter
Q2) Which of the following describes why fast respiration may decrease minute volume?
A) The lungs may not have the time to fill and exchange gas.
B) The rate causes turbulence in the trachea that increases the friction and decreases the amount of air movement.
C) It is due to the delay in the movement of the intercostal muscles and the pleural space.
D) The rate does not decrease minute volume; it actually increases.
Q3) What device is used to perform mouth-to-mask ventilation?
A) Pocket face mask
B) Bag-valve mask
C) Stoma
D) Automatic transport ventilator
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12
Chapter 11: Scene Size-Up
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what point is the scene size-up complete?
A) When crashed vehicles have been stabilized
B) At the end of the call
C) Upon stabilization of the c-spine
D) When the number of patients has been determined
Q2) A fall is considered severe anytime an adult patient has fallen more than ________ feet.
A) 20
B) 15
C) 10
D) 8
Q3) Which of the following is NOT determined in a scene size-up?
A) Chief complaint
B) Mechanism of injury
C) Potential hazards to the EMS crew
D) Need for additional resources
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Chapter 12: The Primary Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are approaching an adult female lying supine on the ground with snoring respirations.You should:
A) open her airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver.
B) insert an oropharyngeal airway.
C) insert a nasopharyngeal airway.
D) ventilate with a bag-valve mask.
Q2) Which of the following is true concerning the primary assessment?
A) Manual airway maneuvers must be performed on all patients.
B) The EMT should perform a sternal rub on all patients to test for response to painful stimuli.
C) External bleeding will be obvious as you enter the room and initially see the patient.
D) The primary assessment begins by just observing the patient as you enter the room.
Q3) Which of the following describes the chief complaint?
A) Reason why the patient summoned EMS
B) Events immediately preceding the call for EMS
C) Overall impression of the patient's condition
D) All of the above
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14
Chapter 13: Vital Signs and Monitoring Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are transporting a patient down a bumpy road.Your patient's blood pressure has just been measured by the monitor to be 190/110.The patient's blood pressure on scene was 130/80.You should:
A) ignore the blood pressure reading.
B) have the driver increase truck speed.
C) apply the automatic cuff to the other arm.
D) re-measure the blood pressure manually.
Q2) A patient being transported by ambulance to the hospital can have his blood pressure measured by which of the following methods?
A) Blood pressure monitor
B) Palpation
C) Auscultation
D) Any of the above
Q3) An oxygen saturation of 97% is considered which of the following?
A) Severe hypoxia
B) Normal
C) Hypoxia
D) Significant hypoxia
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15
Chapter 14: The Secondary Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ are signs or symptoms that suggest the possibility of a particular problem that is very serious.
A) Pertinent negatives
B) Differentials
C) Red flags
D) All of the above
Q2) For which of the following patients is a focused physical examination appropriate?
A) A 30-year-old male with a history of diabetes and who is found unresponsive by his son
B) A 25-year-old female with a history of asthma and who is complaining of difficulty breathing
C) A 19-year-old female with a history of epilepsy and who is found only responsive to painful stimuli by her roommate
D) A 70-year-old male with dementia whose caretaker called because he "didn't seem like himself today"
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16
Chapter 15: Communication and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it important to notify medical control as soon as practical about your patient's condition?
A) It provides legal protection as patient care now becomes their responsibility.
B) It allows the receiving facility more time to prepare for your arrival.
C) It is common courtesy.
D) It minimizes the chance that you will forget to contact medical control.
Q2) Which of the following is a possible consequence of using medical terminology about which you are unsure of the meaning in your patient care report?
A) Loss of credibility
B) Embarrassment
C) Negative impact on patient care
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following can be correctly noted as a chief complaint?
A) The patient had a respiratory rate of 44.
B) The patient was confused.
C) The patient stated that she felt sick.
D) The patient was found sitting in the driver's seat of a full-size sedan.
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17
Chapter 16: General Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have just administered nitroglycerin to a 68-year-old patient.Within a few minutes,she complains of feeling faint and lightheaded,but states that she is still having some chest pain.Which of the following would be the BEST sequence of actions?
A) Lower the head of the stretcher and take the patient's blood pressure.
B) Administer activated charcoal to prevent further absorption of the nitroglycerin and closely monitor the patient's blood pressure.
C) Advise the patient that this is a normal occurrence and administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
D) Increase the amount of oxygen you are giving to the patient before administering a second dose of nitroglycerin.
Q2) You are on the scene of a 44-year-old female patient who has attempted suicide by taking all 30 pills of her antidepressant medication at once.You are ordered by medical control to administer activated charcoal.How will activated charcoal reduce the effects of the medication?
A) Activated charcoal will cause the patient to vomit the medication.
B) Activated charcoal will inactivate the patient's stomach acid.
C) Activated charcoal will coat the intestines, preventing absorption.
D) Activated charcoal will bind to the medication, reducing absorption.
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Chapter 17: Respiratory Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is a 6-year-old male who appears very anxious,is using increased effort during expiration,and has a fever.He is wheezing and has a respiratory rate of 34.The patient's skin is very warm and dry.He does not have any cyanosis.The child is drooling and his mother states that he complained of a sore throat and pain on swallowing earlier in the afternoon.Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient's distress?
A) COPD
B) Epiglottitis
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Pneumonia
Q2) Which of the following patients does NOT necessarily have inadequate breathing?
A) Patient with cyanosis
B) Patient's whose breath sounds cannot be heard
C) Patient with agonal respirations
D) Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm
Q3) Which of the following is true concerning expiration?
A) The chest cavity increases in size.
B) The diaphragm moves upward.
C) The intercostal muscles contract to force air out of the lungs.
D) The ribs move upward and outward.
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Chapter 18: Cardiac Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are on-scene with a 48-year-old unresponsive male patient.Bystanders state he complained of chest pain and then suddenly collapsed.Vital signs are blood pressure 68/42,pulse 36,and respiratory rate 3.He is unresponsive to painful stimuli.After performing the primary assessment and treating all life threats,what is your next intervention?
A) Insert an oral airway.
B) Administer high-concentration oxygen at 15 lpm by bag-valve mask.
C) Package the patient for rapid transport.
D) Apply the AED.
Q2) Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker medication?
A) Causes vasoconstriction, increasing the blood pressure
B) Slows the heart rate
C) Increases the amount of oxygen needed by the myocardium
D) Increases the strength of myocardial contraction
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a role of the EMT in providing emergency cardiac care?
A) CPR
B) Early defibrillation
C) Administration of epinephrine
D) Airway management
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Diabetic Emergencies and Altered Mental
Status
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Q1) Your patient is waking up from a seizure; it was the patient's first seizure ever.When you ask what happened,the patient tells you she had the smell of fresh mown grass just before she seized.This sensation is known as a(n):
A) tonic phase.
B) postictal phase.
C) clonic phase.
D) aura.
Q2) The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA)may last up to:
A) 1 hour.
B) 30 minutes.
C) 24 hours.
D) 6 hours.
Q3) Which of the following conditions may be mimicked by hypoglycemia?
A) Intoxication
B) Respiratory distress
C) Heart attack
D) All of the above
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Allergic Reaction
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Q1) You respond to a local swim park for a 29-year-old male who was stung by a bee and "passed out." Upon arrival,you find the patient unresponsive to all stimuli with agonal respirations at 6 per minute.You insert an oral airway and administer oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask.You notice that it is difficult to bag the patient.Your partner listens to lung sounds and states they are very diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower fields.What is the best action?
A) Request an ALS unit.
B) Hyperventilate the patient.
C) Request orders from medical control for an emergency cricothyroidotomy.
D) Request orders from medical control to administer epinephrine.
Q2) Which of the following would you expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a patient having an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Clear, adequate air movement
B) Fine, wet crackles or rales
C) Coarse-sounding rhonchi
D) Wheezing
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Chapter 21: Poisoning and Overdose Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most cases of accidental poisoning involve which of the following?
A) Infants
B) Adults
C) Adolescents
D) Young children
Q2) Which patient would MOST likely benefit from the administration of activated charcoal?
A) Alert 16-year-old female who overdosed on Tylenol®
B) 48-year-old man who attempted suicide by drinking Drano®
C) Unresponsive 28-year-old female who overdosed on sleeping pills
D) 28-year-old male who is suffering from food poisoning after eating eggs contaminated with salmonella
Q3) By what route does nitroglycerin spray enter the body?
A) Inhalation
B) Ingestion
C) Absorption
D) Injection
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Chapter 22: Abdominal Emergencies
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Q1) Which of the following organs is located in the retroperitoneal space?
A) Liver
B) Stomach
C) Kidneys
D) Uterus
Q2) Which of the following questions may help the EMT assess a patient with abdominal pain?
A) Do you have any allergies to foods or medicines?
B) Do you have any medical problems, such as diabetes or heart problems?
C) What medications are you taking?
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a cause of abdominal pain?
A) Stroke
B) Food poisoning
C) Heart attack
D) Diabetes
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Chapter 23: Behavioral and Psychiatric Emergencies and Suicide
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Q1) Which one of the following statements is NOT true?
A) In any given year, 26.2% of adult Americans suffer from a diagnosable mental disorder.
B) Almost 10% of the population of adult Americans has a mood disorder such as depression.
C) Just over 20% of the population of adult Americans has anxiety or panic issues.
D) It is very unusual for an EMT to be called for a psychiatric emergency.
Q2) Your patient is a 15-year-old female who has n diagnosed with a personality disorder.She has no history of violent behavior.The staff at her residential care facility wants her to be transported for evaluation of a possible urinary tract infection.Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A) Have a female EMT attend to the patient.
B) Transport the patient, but do not speak to her or perform an assessment.
C) Refuse to transport the patient without a police escort.
D) Ask that the patient be given a tranquilizer injection prior to transport.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Hematologic and Renal Emergencies
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Q1) You are dispatched to a sick call.The patient was just extricated from a bathtub where he was trapped under the shower door for 2 weeks.This 72-year-old male had limited access to water from the bathtub faucet.The patient is complaining of disorientation,nausea,and vomiting.What do you think is the underlying cause for the illness?
A) Chronic renal failure
B) End-stage renal disease
C) Acute renal failure
D) Gastrointestinal infection
Q2) Patients who dialyze at home are at high risk for what type of infection?
A) Peritonitis
B) Decubitus ulcers
C) Cellulitis
D) Fistula infection
Q3) A patient with renal disease who is currently on dialysis and missed an appointment may present with dangerously high levels of the electrolyte:
A) phosphorous.
B) potassium.
C) sodium.
D) calcium.
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Chapter 25: Bleeding and Shock
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Q1) Which of the following BEST describes the delivery of oxygen and nutrients at the body's cellular level?
A) Hydrostatic pressure
B) Perfusion
C) Osmosis
D) Circulation
Q2) Which of the following statements is true when talking about neurogenic shock?
A) Neurogenic shock is sometimes caused by spinal injuries.
B) Neurogenic shock is the result of the blood vessels decreasing in size.
C) Neurogenic shock is caused by the blood vessels overfilling with blood, causing leaking into the nerves.
D) Neurogenic shock is very common in the field.
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of venous bleeding?
A) It commonly requires the use of pressure point compression.
B) It can be profuse, but is generally easily controlled.
C) It cannot lead to life-threatening amounts of blood loss.
D) It often requires the use of a tourniquet.
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Chapter 26: Soft-Tissue Trauma
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Q1) Your patient is a 40-year-old man who was burned when he spilled gasoline on his pants as he was standing near the pilot light of his hot water heater.He has partial thickness burns from his feet to just above his knees,and circumferentially around both legs.Using the rule of nines,which of the following most accurately represents the extent of body surface area burned?
A) 18%
B) 9%
C) 36%
D) 4.5%
Q2) Which of the following BEST describes an avulsion?
A) An injury caused by a sharp, pointed object
B) Flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue
C) Epidermis that is scraped away by a rough surface
D) Accumulation of blood beneath the skin, resulting in swelling
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an open tissue injury?
A) Abrasion
B) Contusion
C) Avulsion
D) Evisceration
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Chest and Abdominal Trauma
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Q1) You are caring for a 27-year-old male who has a puncture wound to the right upper chest.The patient was stabbed with a serrated steak knife by his ex-girlfriend.You have placed an occlusive dressing to the site and began emergent transport to the closest trauma center.However,while en route the patient begins to complain of increasing shortness of breath.You notice a decrease in ventilatory volume and an increase in thoracic diameter.Which of the following options would be the best step to perform next?
A) Free a corner or edge of the dressing and have the patient exhale to release pressure buildup. And re-seal the wound
B) Begin providing BVM-assisted ventilations to the patient.
C) Call dispatch for an ALS intercept en route to the hospital.
D) Begin providing CPR to the patient.
Q2) Your patient has an open abdominal wound with intestines protruding.You should:
A) leave them alone and transport rapidly.
B) attempt to place the organs back into the abdomen.
C) cover the entire abdomen with a blanket.
D) cover the organs with moist sterile dressings.
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29
Chapter 28: Musculoskeletal Trauma
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A) A fracture is any break in a bone.
B) A comminuted break is when a bone is broken in only one place.
C) A greenstick break is an incomplete break in a bone.
D) An angulated break is when the broken bone is bent at an angle.
Q2) Which one of the following statements is NOT true?
A) Cartilage is connective tissue that covers the outside of the bone end and acts as a surface for articulation.
B) Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles.
C) Ligaments are connective tissues that connect bone to bone.
D) Muscles are the tissues or fibers that cause movement of body parts or organs.
Q3) A painter falls from his ladder and tells you he has dislocated his shoulder again.When you attempt to splint the shoulder,it "pops back into place." What should your next step be?
A) Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient.
B) Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient.
C) Check distal CSM, apply a traction splint, and transport the patient.
D) Continue splinting and report the popping sound to the triage nurse when you arrive at the hospital.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Trauma to the Head, neck, and Spine
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Q1) Which of the following describes the proper position of the patient's head for spinal immobilization?
A) Chin tilted upward for airway maintenance
B) Neutral, in-line "eyes forward" position
C) Stabilized in position found
D) The "sniffing" position
Q2) When using a short spine immobilization device,which part of the body is secured last?
A) Arms
B) Torso
C) Head
D) Legs
Q3) At which point may manual stabilization of the cervical spine be terminated?
A) Only when directed to do so by medical control
B) When the patient is secured to a long backboard
C) After a short immobilization device has been applied
D) After a cervical collar has been applied
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Chapter 30: Multisystem Trauma
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Q1) You are getting ready to transport an unresponsive 25-year-old female patient.She was hit by a vehicle while crossing the street.She is 26 weeks pregnant.You are 10 minutes away from the nearest facility,15 minutes away from a Level I Trauma Center,and 15 minutes away from a hospital that specializes in high-risk obstetrics.You should transport the patient to which hospital?
A) The nearest facility: she is unresponsive and unstable
B) The trauma center: the fetus will need specialized neonatology surgeons
C) The trauma center: the patient will need specialized trauma surgeons
D) The high-risk obstetric hospital: the fetus will need specialized neonatology surgeons
Q2) What are three elements of successful trauma care that field practitioners can use which will ultimately translate into greater rates of survival?
A) Teamwork, timing, and transport
B) Ground ambulances, air helicopters, and trauma centers
C) Lights, sirens, and diesel
D) Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury
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32
Chapter 31: Environmental Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Applying an external source of heat to the patient's body to rewarm him is called ________ rewarming.
A) central
B) active
C) endogenous
D) peripheral
Q2) You respond to a professional volleyball tournament for a potential heatstroke.Upon arrival you find a 28-year-old male patient seated inside the air-conditioned first aid trailer.He is alert and in obvious distress.He is complaining of severe cramping of his arms and legs.His vital signs are stable.What is the most likely cause of the cramping?
A) Heat exhaustion
B) Drinking too many sports drinks
C) Sweating too much
D) Cooling off too quickly
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a classification of localized cold injury?
A) Hypothermia
B) Frostbite
C) Frostnip
D) All of the above
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Obstetric and Gynecologic Emergencies
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Q1) If the baby's umbilical cord is noted to be wrapped around his neck after the head is delivered,which of the following should be done?
A) Clamp the cord in two places, but do not cut it until the baby is delivered.
B) Try to slip the cord over the baby's head and shoulder.
C) Transport emergently without further intervention.
D) Immediately cut the cord before delivering the baby.
Q2) If the baby's head is delivered with the amniotic sac still intact,which of the following should be done first?
A) Use your fingers to tear the sac away from the baby's face.
B) Leave the sac intact until the entire body is delivered.
C) Use the scissors in the obstetrics kit to cut the sac away from the baby's head.
D) Call medical control before taking action.
Q3) Traditionally an APGAR score is taken at what time intervals after birth?
A) 5 and 10 minutes
B) 2 and 7 minutes
C) 1 and 5 minutes
D) 1 and 6 minutes
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Chapter 33: Pediatric Emergencies
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Q1) You are called to a home where a family has been enjoying a Labor Day picnic and swim party.A 2-year-boy slipped to the bottom of the pool unnoticed.By the time you arrive,the child has been removed from the water and family members are administering CPR.You assess the child and note that he has a weak pulse and is trying to breathe on his own.You initiate transport and continue providing positive pressure ventilations.You are also very concerned about:
A) the safety of the other children at the party.
B) how the parents are handling the situation.
C) the child being hypothermic.
D) the last time the child ate something.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the skin and body surface area of children as compared to adults?
A) The skin of a child is thicker.
B) Children have more subcutaneous fat.
C) Children have a larger body surface-to-weight ratio.
D) A child is not more prone than an adult to heat loss through the skin.
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Chapter 34: Geriatric Emergencies
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Q1) The use of a made-up experience to replace lost memories with imaginary ones is called:
A) hysteria.
B) confusion.
C) denial.
D) confabulation.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a form of elder abuse or neglect?
A) Social
B) Physical
C) Psychological
D) Financial
Q3) Which of the following lung conditions is the fourth leading cause of death among the elderly?
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Pneumothorax
C) Pneumonia
D) Tuberculosis
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Emergencies for Patients With Special Challenges
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Q1) Which of the following is true in regards to touching a patient who is being shocked with an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)?
A) The EMT will always feel the shock, and it is very dangerous to the EMT as well.
B) The EMT cannot feel the shock of an AICD when delivered to the patient.
C) The EMT will always feel the shock, but it is not very painful.
D) It depends on the AICD model as to whether or not the EMT can feel the shock.
Q2) Bariatrics is defined as the branch of medicine that deals with the cause,prevention,and treatment of which of the following diseases?
A) Diabetes
B) Sleep apnea
C) Blindness
D) Obesity
Q3) Which of the following BEST describes when positive pressure is applied to the patient's airway using a CPAP machine?
A) Between inhalation and exhalation
B) During exhalation only
C) During both inhalation and exhalation
D) During inhalation only
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Chapter 36: Ems Operations
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Q1) Because of the extra equipment now placed on ambulances for specialty rescue,advanced life support,and hazardous materials operations,their gross vehicle weight has been easily exceeded in some communities.This has necessitated introduction of a ________ truck chassis built for rugged durability and large storage and work areas.
A) Type I
B) Type III
C) Medium-duty
D) Type II
Q2) The process of combining the patient and patient-carrying device into a unit ready for moving and transporting the patient is called:
A) loading.
B) wrapping.
C) immobilizing.
D) packaging.
Q3) An EMT's BEST defense against potential legal liability is:
A) purchasing medical malpractice insurance.
B) documenting as little as possible on the run sheet.
C) relying on Good Samaritan immunity.
D) practicing excellent prehospital care.
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Chapter 37: Hazardous Materials, multiple-Casualty Incidents,
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials emergency?
A) Rehabilitating the hazmat team
B) Decontaminating injured victims
C) Treating injured patients
D) Staying in the cold zone
Q2) You are in charge of your department's personnel at the scene of a mass-casualty incident.As the incident progresses,you request additional resources and a neighboring department assists you.As part of this department's response,a battalion chief responds to oversee operations.At the command post,you and the battalion chief work together to manage the incident.This cooperative management effort is known as:
A) dual command.
B) redundant command.
C) unified command.
D) incident command.
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Chapter 38: Highway Safety and Vehicle Extrication
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Q1) Which of the following is a common reason that EMTs are struck by motor vehicles at the scene of motor vehicle collisions on roadways?
A) Drivers are distracted by the scene of the collision and do not pay attention to what they are doing.
B) EMTs sometimes lose track of what they are doing and wander into traffic.
C) Drivers who are angry at being delayed deliberately take out their frustrations on rescue workers.
D) All of the above
Q2) On arrival at a vehicle collision,you observe a small fire in the engine compartment.A bystander is attempting to smother the fire with a jacket as you approach with an A-B-C extinguisher from your ambulance.Which of the following is the BEST method of extinguishing the fire?
A) Sweep the nozzle of the extinguisher left and right using short bursts until you are out of extinguishing agent.
B) Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out.
C) Close the hood to contain the fire within the engine compartment.
D) Aim the nozzle to the side of the fire and, with a sweeping motion, push the fire at its base.
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Chapter 39: Ems Response to Terrorism
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Q1) Which of the following is a consideration when responding to a terrorist incident?
A) Presence of mass casualties
B) Crime scene considerations
C) Presence of booby traps such as secondary explosive devices
D) All of the above
Q2) Dangerous organisms that grow inside of living cells and reproduce are known as:
A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) toxins.
D) biologicals.
Q3) Which of the following may be a clue that an incident is the result of terrorist violence?
A) Function of the target
B) Number of people present
C) Occurrence on the anniversary of a significant or symbolic historical event
D) All of the above
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